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Analogy means ‘correspondence’(x:y::a:b). In the questions based on analogy, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. Analogy tools are therefore meant to test one’s ability to reason -how far you are able to compare and comprehend the relationship that exists between two objects, things or figures. Verbal analogy measures the ability to understand the relationship between two given words or group of letters, presented in abbreviated form. See the following example. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : Planet This abbreviated form conveys the idea that moon is related to satellite in the same way as the earth is related to planet. Look for the Kinds of Relationship There are many possibilities in establishing a relationship. Here are some useful points on the basic general knowledge required for the test.
Country and Currency
· India-Rupee
· US-Dollar
· UAE-Dirham
· USA-Dollar
· Turkey-Lira
· Germany-Mark
· Japan-Yen
· Greece-Drachma
· Argentina-Peso
· Russia-Rouble
Country and Capital/Famous Place
· India-Delhi
· Nepal- Kathmandu
· USA-Washington
· Bhutan-Thimphu
· Austria – Vienna
· Canada - Ottawa
· Japan – Tokyo
· China - Beijing
· Russia - Moscow
· Australia - Canberra
· UK – London
· Iran – Tehran
· Egypt-Cairo
· Greece-Athens
· Bangladesh-Dhaka
Male and Female
· Son : Daughter : : Nephew : Niece
· Drone - Bee
· Lion -Lioness
· Dog –Bitch
· Stag – Doe
· Gentleman - Lady
· Tiger – Tigress
· Horse - Mare
· Uncle - Aunt
Animal and Young One
Cat - Kitten : : Dog – Puppy
Kitten is the young one of a Cat and Puppy is the young one of a Dog.
· Butterfly – Caterpillar
· Lion – Cub
· Cow - Calf
· Man – Child
· Duck – Duckling
· Pig – Piglet
· Frog – Tadpole
· Stallion - Colt
· Hen- Chicken
· Sheep-Lamb
· Horse- Pony
· Swa-Cygnet
Animal and Sound
· Insect – Whine, Hum, Buzz
· Human – Cocks, Crow
· Birds – Caw, Quack, Scream
· Deer – Bell
· Dogs – Bark
· Dolphins – Click
· Donkeys – Bray
· Doves – Coo
· Ducks – Quack
· Eagles – Scream
· Elephants – Trumpet, Roar
· Flies – Buzz, Hum
· Foxes – Bark, Yelp, Simper
· Frogs – Croak
· Giraffes – Bleat
· Goats – Bleat
· Geese – Cackle, Quack
· Grasshoppers – Chirp
· Hamsters – Squeak
· Hares – Squeak
· Hens – Cackle, Cluck
· Hogs – Grunt
· Horses – Neigh, Snort, Whinny, Nicker
· Hummingbirds – Hum
· Hyenas – Laugh, Scream
· Jackals – Howl
· Kangaroos – Chortle
Animal and Keeping Place (Dwelling Place)
· Spider – Web
· Bird – Nest
· Pig – Sty
· Eskimo – Igloo
· Bee – Hive
· Nun – Convent
· Lion – Den
· Knight – Mansion
· Hare – Burrow
· Gypsy – Caravan
· Mouse – Hole
· Cow – Byre / Pen
· Peasant – Cottage
· Monk – Monastery
· Eagle – Eyrie
· Lunatic – Asylum
· Horse – Stable
· Convict – Prison
· King – Palace
· Soldier – Barracks
· Owl – Barn
Example:
Carpenter – Furniture :: Mason – Wall
(Carpetner makes furniture and a mason builds a wall.)
· Author – Book
· Editor – Newspaper
· Architect – Design
· Farmer – Crop
· Butcher – Meat
· Judge – Justice
· Chef – Food
· Poet – Poem
· Choreographer – Ballet
· Teacher – Education
· Cobbler – Shoes
· Tailor – Clothes
Example:
Woodcutter – Axe :: Soldier – Gun
(Axe is the tool used by a woodcutter, likewise a soldier uses a gun.)
· Author – Pen
· Doctor – Stethoscope
· Astronomer – Telescope
· Farmer – Plough
· Barber – Scissors
· Gardener – Harrow
· Butcher – Chopper
· Painter – Brush
· Blacksmith – Anvil
· Sculptor – Chisel
· Bricklayer – Trowel
· Surgeon – Scalpel
· Carpenter – Saw
· Tailor – Needle
· Cobbler – Awl
Example:
Pen – Write :: Knife – Cut
(Pen is used for writing and knife is used for cutting.)
· Axe – Grind
· Spade – Dig
· Auger – Bore
· Shovel – Scoop
· Chisel – Carve
· Spoon – Feed
· Gun – Shoot
· Spanner – Grip
· Loudspeaker – Amplify
· Steering – Drive
· Microscope – Magnify
· Sword – Slaughter
· Oar – Row
Example:
Farmer – Field :: Doctor – Hospital
(A farmer works in a field while a doctor works in a hospital.)
· Artist – Theatre
· Pilot – Cockpit
· Actor – Stage
· Sailor – Ship
· Clerk – Office
· Scientist – Laboratory
· Driver – Cabin
· Teacher – School
· Engineer – Site
· Umpire – Pitch
· Lawyer – Court
· Worker – Factory
· Mechanic – Garage
· Warrior – Battlefield
Example:
Cloth – Fibre :: Petrol – Crude Oil
(Cloth is made from fibre and petrol is extracted from crude oil.)
· Book – Paper
· Omelette – Egg
· Butter – Milk
· Paper – Pulp
· Furniture – Wood
· Road – Asphalt
· Fabric – Yarn
· Rubber – Latex
· Jaggery – Sugarcane
· Shoes – Leather
· Metal – Ore
· Sack – Jute
· Oil – Seed
Quantity and Unit
Example:
Length – Metre :: Distance – Light Year
(Metre is the unit of length and light year is the unit of distance.)
· Angle – Radian
· Power – Watt
· Current – Ampere
· Pressure – Pascal
· Energy – Joule
· Resistance – Ohm
· Force – Newton
· Time – Second
· Mass – Kilogram
· Volume – Litre
· Potential – Volt
· Work – Joule
Instrument and Measurement
Example:
Barometer – Pressure :: Speedometer – Speed
(Barometer measures pressure and speedometer measures speed.)
· Ammeter – Current
· Rain Gauge – Rainfall
· Anemometer – Wind Velocity
· Screw Gauge – Thickness
· Balance – Mass
· Seismograph – Earthquakes
· Hygrometer – Humidity
· Sphygmomanometer – Blood Pressure
· Thermometer – Temperature
Sport and Place of Playing
· Badminton – Court
· Boxing – Ring
· Race – Track
· Tennis – Court
· Skating – Rink
· Athletics – Stadium
· Hockey – Ground
· Wrestling – Arena
· Cricket – Pitch
· Exercise – Gymnasium
Study and Topic
Example:
Botany – Plants :: Ornithology – Birds
(Botany is the study of plants and ornithology is the study of birds.)
· Anthropology – Man
· Orography – Mountains
· Astrology – Future
· Palaeontology – Fossils
· Conchology – Shells
· Pedology – Soil
· Cardiology – Heart
· Pathology – Diseases
· Entomology – Insects
· Semantics – Language
· Haematology – Blood
· Seismology – Earthquakes
· Nephrology – Kidney
· Taxonomy – Classification
· Oology – Eggs
· Zoology – Animals
Word and Synonym
Example:
Mend – Repair :: House – Home
· Abode – Dwelling
· Fierce – Violent
· Abduct – Kidnap
· Happy – Glad
· Ban – Prohibition
· Presage – Predict
· Blend – Mix
· Solicit – Request
· Brim – Edge
· Substitute – Replace
· Dissipate – Squander
· Aborigine – Native
Word and Antonym
Example:
Ignore – Notice :: Friend – Foe
· Advance – Retreat
· Gentle – Harsh
· Best – Worst
· Gradual – Abrupt
· Cruel – Kind
· Initial – Final
· Chaos – Peace
· Kindle – Extinguish
· Create – Destroy
· Lend – Borrow
· Cordial – Hostile
· Robust – Weak
· Deep – Shallow
· Sink – Float
Word and Intensity
Example:
Anger – Rage :: Joy – Ecstasy
(Rage is a greater degree of anger and ecstasy is a greater degree of joy.)
· Crime – Sin
· Refuse – Deny
· Error – Blunder
· Unhappy – Sad
· Quarrel – War
· Wish – Desire
· Sink – Drown
· Famous – Renowned
Directions: In each of the following questions there is a certain relation between the two given words on one side of (: :) and one word is given on the other side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair. Choose the correct alternative.
(1) Smart
(2) Heroic
(3) Courageous
(4) Handsome
(5) None of these
(1) Chemistry
(2) Medicine
(3) Palaeontology
(4) Mechanics
(5) None of these
(1) Human being
(2) Children
(3) Father
(4) Apes
(5) None of these
(1) Increase
(2) Investigate
(3) Examine
(4) Magnify
(5) None of these
(1) Ring
(2) Sphere
(3) Circle
(4) Ball
(5) None of these
Q6. Meat : Vegetarian : : Liquor : ?
(1) Insane
(2) Introvert
(3) Teetotaller
(4) Foolish
(5) None of these
Q7. Tuberculosis : Lungs : : Cataract : ?
(1) Ear
(2) Throat
(3) Skin
(4) Eye
(5) None of these
Q8. Professor : Lecture : : Doctor : ?
(1) Hospital
(2) Disease
(3) Medicine
(4) Patient
(5) None of these
(1) Sadness
(2) Defeat
(3) Anger
(4) Frustration
(5) None of these
(1) Court
(2) Punishment
(3) Lawyer
(4) Judgement
(5) None of these
The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship between each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
(1) Library : Catalogue
(2) Journal : Newspaper
(3) Book : Encyclopaedia
(4) College : Account
(5) None of these
(1) Brain : Psychology
(2) History : Histology
(3) Civics : Polity
(4) Fossils : Palaeontology
(5) None of these
(1) Flower : Bunch
(2) Drop : Ocean
(3) Sailor : Crew
(4) Deer : Jungle
(5) None of these
(1) Mathematics : Geometry
(2) Radio : Song
(3) Pathology : Disease
(4) Communication : Phone
(5) None of these
(1) Brass : Metal
(2) Hen : Poultry
(3) Paper : Book
(4) Karnataka : State
(5) None of these
(1) Whale : Water
(2) Dog : Lungs
(3) Car : Wheels
(4) Pen : Paper
(5) None of these
(1) Amoeba : Dysentery
(2) Acid : Burns
(3) Quinine : Malaria
(4) Iron : Anemia
(5) None of these
(1) Cool : Cold
(2) Accident : Death
(3) Pneumonia : Fever
(4) Fall : Slip
(5) None of these
(1) Sound : Wave
(2) Speed : Time
(3) Distance : Kilometre
(4) Ohm : Resistance
(5) None of these
(1) Hindus : Temple
(2) Sikhs : Avesta
(3) Christians : Christ
(4) Jews : Torah
(5) None of these
In each of the following questions, the first two words have a definite relationship. Choose one word out of the given four alternatives which will fill in the blank space and show the same relationship with the third word as between the first two.
(1) Clean
(2) Dust
(3) Sweep
(4) Floor
(5) None of these
(1) Hardship
(2) Rest
(3) Poverty
(4) Difficulty
(5) None of these
(1) Steering
(2) Water
(3) Oar
(4) Sail
(5) None of these
(1) Pressure
(2) Blood Pressure
(3) Precipitation
(4) Heartbeat
(5) None of these
(1) Story
(2) Page
(3) Chapter
(4) Author
(5) None of these
Q.No. | Answer |
|---|---|
1 | (4) |
2 | (2) |
3 | (1) |
4 | (4) |
5 | (3) |
6 | (3) |
7 | (4) |
8 | (3) |
9 | (4) |
10 | (4) |
11 | (1) |
12 | (4) |
13 | (3) |
14 | (3) |
15 | (4) |
16 | (3) |
17 | (3) |
18 | (1) |
19 | (4) |
20 | (4) |
21 | (3) |
22 | (1) |
23 | (3) |
24 | (2) |
25 | (3) |
“Beautiful” describes the quality of prettiness in girls, while “Handsome” describes the quality of prettiness in boys.
Anatomy is a branch of Zoology. Likewise, Paediatrics is a branch of Medicine.
Matricide is the killing of one's mother. Similarly, Homicide is the killing of a human being.
A microphone makes sound louder, while a microscope magnifies an object.
The first is a part of the second.
A vegetarian never eats meat. Similarly, a teetotaller never drinks liquor.
Tuberculosis is a disease of the lungs. Similarly, cataract is a disease of the eye.
A professor delivers lectures to students. Similarly, a doctor gives medicine to patients.
Victory leads to encouragement, whereas failure leads to frustration.
The function of a doctor is to diagnose a disease, and the function of a judge is to give judgement.
A menu gives the list of items available in a restaurant. Similarly, a catalogue gives the list of books available in a library.
The study of the heart is called Cardiology. Similarly, the study of fossils is called Palaeontology.
A group of soldiers is called a regiment. Similarly, a group of sailors is called a crew.
Acoustics is the science of sound. Similarly, Pathology is the study of diseases.
Yen is a currency. Similarly, Karnataka is a state.
Wings help a bird to move. Similarly, wheels help a car to move.
Aspirin is used to cure headache. Similarly, Quinine is used to cure malaria.
The second is a more intensive form of the first.
Ampere is the unit of current. Similarly, Ohm is the unit of resistance.
The Quran is the holy book of Muslims. Similarly, the Torah is the holy book of Jews.
The second denotes the function of the first.
The given words are opposites of each other.
The second is the tool used to move the first.
A Hygrometer is an instrument used to measure humidity. Similarly, a Sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure.
The second is a unit or component of the first.
Directions: There is a certain relation between two given Words/Numbers/Alphabets on one side of (::) and one Word/Number/Alphabet is given on the other side of (::), while another Word/Number/Alphabet is to be found from the given alternatives having the same relation with this Word/Number/Alphabet as the given pair. Select the correct alternative.
(1) Ceramic
(2) Carbon
(3) Silver
(4) Coke
(5) None of these
(1) Rack
(2) Newspaper
(3) Library
(4) Books
(5) None of these
(1) Snakes
(2) Insects
(3) Birds
(4) Germs
(5) None of these
(1) Grind
(2) Grip
(3) Magnify
(4) Feed
(5) None of these
(1) Lawlessness
(2) Government
(3) Monarchy
(4) Disorder
(5) None of these
(1) Brain
(2) Idiot
(3) Think
(4) Intelligence
(5) None of these
(1) Rubbish
(2) Gangue
(3) Sand
(4) Dregs
(5) None of these
(1) Seat
(2) Horse
(3) Saddle
(4) Chair
(5) None of these
(1) Country
(2) Depart
(3) Banish
(4) Punishment
(5) None of these
(1) Usual
(2) Restrained
(3) Striking
(4) Evocative
(5) None of these
(1) 23
(2) 82
(3) 97
(4) 113
(5) None of these
(1) 867
(2) 868
(3) 872
(4) 888
(5) None of these
(1) 169
(2) 248
(3) 261
(4) 268
(5) None of these
(1) 210
(2) 216
(3) 222
(4) 240
(5) None of these
(1) 55
(2) 63
(3) 64
(4) 65
(5) None of these
(1) 901
(2) 1009
(3) 9889
(4) 9999
(5) None of these
(1) 2367
(2) 2451
(3) 2531
(4) 4521
(5) None of these
(1) 2154
(2) 3562
(3) 5487
(4) 5784
(5) None of these
(1) 41
(2) 56
(3) 60
(4) 65
(5) None of these
(1) 125
(2) 248
(3) 342
(4) 343
(5) None of these
(1) ORK
(2) OSQ
(3) PRJ
(4) UXQ
(5) None of these
(1) CLL
(2) CLM
(3) CML
(4) CEP
(5) None of these
(1) oxpixdig
(2) ocqicyig
(3) ocqixcjg
(4) ocqixcig
(5) None of these
(1) ADGF
(2) HDGE
(3) HDGF
(4) HEGF
(5) None of these
(1) mulmul
(2) sulsul
(3) munmun
(4) srspql
(5) None of these
(1) ABJ
(2) CBD
(3) IJH
(4) AJB
(5) AKB
(1) CLB
(2) CLD
(3) AKB
(4) EMF
(5) CDB
(1) PJG
(2) CDP
(3) CLP
(4) PME
(5) PHE
(1) GBLD
(2) GBJO
(3) GPLD
(4) GBDM
(5) IBDE
(1) KLM
(2) KLF
(3) OBM
(4) KLO
(5) KMN
Q31. ABSORPTION : ROSBANOITP :: VISUALIZER : ?
(1) AUSIVREILZ
(2) VUAISREZIL
(3) AUSIVREZIL
(4) UASIVERZIL
Q32. SLOW : MPTX :: CAUGHT : ?
(1) WVHIUV
(2) BDHIUV
(3) BDIUVH
(4) DBVHIU
Q33. 16 : 224 :: ?
(1) 20 : 400
(2) 22 : 440
(3) 25 : 650
(4) 17 : 289
Q34. CROW : XILD :: SPONGE : ?
(1) HKLPRV
(2) HKLMSY
(3) HKLMTV
(4) FJLMTV
Q35. 5 : 75 :: ?
(1) 6 : 36
(2) 8 : 192
(3) 9 : 343
(4) 7 : 83
Q36. ZODIAC : DOZCAI :: MISTER : ?
(1) NITUFS
(2) SFUTJN
(3) SMIRTE
(4) SIMRET
Q37. 14 : 588 :: ?
(1) 20 : 980
(2) 12 : 666
(3) 18 : 972
(4) 11 : 344
Q38. VOWEL : ZPAFP :: FRICK : ?
(1) JVJGO
(2) OGMVH
(3) JVMGO
(4) JVGOK
Q39. BEST : WVHE :: CROP : ?
(1) PRUM
(2) SRVG
(3) SRUF
(4) RTUF
Q40. 7 : 198 :: ?
(1) 6 : 72
(2) 9 : 162
(3) 5 : 240
(4) 8 : 228
Q41. PORCH : IDSPQ :: MOIST : ?
(1) OMITS
(2) UTJQO
(3) UTJPN
(4) OPJTU
Q42. JEALOUSY : LAYSEJUO :: FUSEWIRE : ?
(1) REWISEFU
(2) ESERUFIW
(3) EEFIRSUW
(4) ESUFERIW
Q43. ACTION : TCANOI :: BOTTLE : ?
(1) EBLOTT
(2) TOBELT
(3) OBTTEL
(4) ELTTOB
Q44. 84 : 72 :: ?
(1) 64 : 56
(2) 68 : 54
(3) 76 : 62
(4) 77 : 64
Q45. RUBBER : BURREB :: CATTLE : ?
(1) ACTTEL
(2) TACELT
(3) ELTTAC
(4) TACTLE
Q46. FEEDBACK : DEABEFKC :: HIGHLAND : ?
(1) HGIHDNAL
(2) HGALIHDN
(3) ALHGDNIH
(4) IHHGALDN
Q47. 48 : 60 :: ?
(1) 78 : 94
(2) 64 : 72
(3) 86 : 100
(4) 98 : 114
Q48. (2, 3, 25) : ?
(1) (9, 11, 81)
(2) (7, 11, 169)
(3) (15, 17, 400)
(4) (19, 23, 441)
Q49. 19 : 171 :: 9 : ?
(1) 81
(2) 49
(3) 86
(4) 98
Q50. 531 : 441 :: 3114 : ?
(1) 5201
(2) 2151
(3) 8610
(4) 9014
Classification refers to categorization, the process in which ideas and objects are recognized, differentiated, and understood.
There are five types of Classification questions generally asked in examinations:
All questions are based on numbers. The pattern may involve:
Four options follow the same pattern, while one does not belong to the group.
Q1. Which number does not belong to the group?
(a) 19
(b) 17
(c) 13
(d) 27
(e) 37
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All others are prime numbers, whereas 27 is not.
(a) 52
(b) 39
(c) 91
(d) 117
(e) 27
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All numbers except 27 are multiples of 13.
(a) 4
(b) 36
(c) 16
(d) 64
(e) 84
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All others are perfect squares.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
(e) 12
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All others are divisible by 5.
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 51
(d) 72
(e) 82
(a) 24
(b) 32
(c) 27
(d) 36
(e) 15
(a) 56
(b) 35
(c) 49
(d) 42
(e) 51
(a) 343
(b) 64
(c) 75
(d) 27
(e) 216
Q1. (e) — All are divisible by 3 except 82.
Q2. (b) — All are divisible by 3 except 32.
Q3. (e) — All are divisible by 7 except 51.
Q4. (c) — All are cubes except 75.
Questions are based on alphabetical patterns and relationships.
(a) BE
(b) GJ
(c) LO
(d) QT
(e) US
(a) AD
(b) EI
(c) JN
(d) OS
(e) TX
(a) PQR
(b) CDE
(c) HIJ
(d) KLM
(e) TSU
(a) EVW
(b) FUV
(c) JQR
(d) LOP
(e) STV
There are two letters between the given pair in all options except (e).
There are four letters between the pair in all options except (a).
All others contain letters in continuous alphabetical order.
In all other options, the 2nd and 3rd letters are consecutive; option (e) does not follow the pattern.
These questions combine letters and numbers.
(a) BY27
(b) GH15
(c) LM25
(d) QT35
(e) US40
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Sum of alphabetical positions equals the number in all options except (d).
(a) A2D
(b) E12Q
(c) C11N
(d) O5T
(e) T6Y
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Numerical difference of letters follows the same pattern except in (d).
(a) PQR17
(b) CDE4
(c) HIJ9
(d) KLM12
(e) TSU18
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Numerical value of the middle letter matches the given number pattern except (a).
(a) EVW17
(b) FUV15
(c) JQR7
(d) LOP4
(e) SHV12
Answer: (e)
Explanation: Difference between the first and second letters follows the same rule except (e).
These questions are based on:
(a) Sitar
(b) Guitar
(c) Sarod
(d) Violin
(e) Flute
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All others are played using hands, while a flute is played using the mouth.
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Earth
(d) Uranium
(e) Moon
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Uranium is a metal; others are celestial bodies.
(a) Wood
(b) Table
(c) Chair
(d) Sofa
(e) Bench
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Others are objects made from wood.
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Violet
(e) Grey
Answer: (e)
Explanation: Grey is not a rainbow colour.
(a) April
(b) July
(c) September
(d) November
(e) June
Answer: (b)
Explanation: July has 31 days; others have 30 days.
Questions are based on relationships between pairs.
(a) Car – Road
(b) Ship – Sea
(c) Aeroplane – Pilot
(d) Rocket – Space
(e) Train – Track
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All others show vehicle and route/place, whereas Pilot is a person.
(a) IKL : MPO
(b) EGH : ITS
(c) UWX : YDC
(d) PRS : TLH
(e) SUV : HFE
Answer: (d)
Explanation: In all other pairs, the last two letters are opposite letters of each other; option (d) does not follow the pattern.
Practice Test-1
Q1. (1) Ladder (2) Staircase (3) Bridge
(4) Escalator (5) Lift
Q2. (1) Nephrology (2) Entomology (3) Astrology
(4) Mycology (5) Pathology
Q3. (1) Swimming (2) Breathing (3) Walking
(4) Dancing (5) Playing
Q4. (1) Arrow (2) Missile (3) Sword
(4) Bullet (5) Spear
Q5. (1) Biscuit (2) Chocolate (3) Cake
(4) Bread (5) Pastry
Q6. (1) Tortoise (2) Snail (3) Turtle
(4) Spider (5) Oyster
Q7. (1) Virgo (2) Pisces (3) Libra
(4) Sagittarius (5) Orion
Q8. (1) Japan (2) India (3) Sri Lanka
(4) New Zealand (5) Malagasy
Q9. (1) Producer (2) Director (3) Investor
(4) Financier (5) Entrepreneur
Q10.(1) Chariot (2) Car (3) Bus
(4) Wagon (5) Sledge
Q11.(1) Crow (2) Pigeon (3) Parrot
(4) Butterfly (5) Peacock
Q12.(1) Hepatitis (2) Tetanus (3) Cancer
(4) Conjunctivitis (5) Measles
Q13.(1) Fox (2) Wolf (3) Jackal
(4) Deer (5) Panther
Q14.(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Phosphorus (5) Hydrogen
Q15.(1) Man (2) Mother (3) Sister
(4) Father (5) Brother
Q16.(1) EWZQ (2) OSLS (3) GFKD
(4) VSPM (5) QBTV
Q17.(1) 26Z (2) 24X (3) 22V
(4) 20S (5) 18R
Q18.(1) BTR (2) CTR (3) DTR
(4) ETR (5) FTR
Q19.(1) NOOP (2) HIIJ (3) PQQR
(4) UVVX (5) XYYZ
Q20.(1) TYN (2) BFD (3) MQO
(4) LPN (5) QUS
Q21.(1) BCD (2) HIJ (3) MNP
(4) TUV (5) WXY
Q22.(1) MNO (2) CDE (3) GHI
(4) PQR (5) STU
Q23.(1) BEH (2) ILO (3) NQT
(4) GHK (5) RUX
Q24.(1) TAN (2) RAE (3) UCT
(4) AWS (5) YSX
Q25.(1) 135 (2) 286 (3) 371
(4) 591 (5) 719
Answers Key:
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (5) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (5)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (5) 25. (2)
1. All except Bridge are used for up and down movement.
2. All except Astrology are connected with Biology.
3. Breathing is the only natural action.
4. All except Sword strike the target from a distance.
5. All except Chocolate are baked items.
6. All except Spider have hard protective shells.
7. All except Orion are zodiac signs, while Orion is a constellation.
8. All except India are islands, while India is a peninsula.
9. All except Director spend money.
10. All except Sledge have wheels.
11. All except Butterfly are birds, whereas Butterfly is an insect.
12. All except Tetanus are diseases caused by viruses, while Tetanus is caused by bacteria.
13. All except Deer are flesh-eating animals.
14. All others are gases.
15. All other words define some relationship.
16. No letter is repeated in any other group.
17. In all other options, the number denotes the position of the letter in the English alphabet.
18. No other group has a vowel.
19. All other groups contain three consecutive letters with the second letter repeated twice.
20. In all other options, there are three alternate letters.
21. In all others, the letters are consecutive.
22. All except option (4) are consecutive letters ending with a vowel.
23. In all other groups, there are two letters between the 1st & 2nd letters and also between the 2nd & 3rd letters.
24. In all others, a meaningful word can be formed by the letters.
25. In all others, the numbers are odd numbers.
Direction (Q.1 to 25): Given below are five alternatives. Four of them are alike in a certain way and form a group. Find the one that does not belong to that group.
Q1. (1) Painting (2) Art (3) Sculpture
(4) Drawing (5) Music
Q2. (1) Mountain (2) Plateau (3) Valley
(4) Peak (5) Hill
Q3. (1) Dynamics (2) Mechanics (3) Electronics
(4) Optics (5) Physics
Q4. (1) Consumer (2) Customer (3) Buyer
(4) Purchaser (5) Retailer
Q5. (1) Jasmine (2) Coriander (3) Lotus
(4) Lily (5) Rose
Q6. (1) Moth (2) Bee (3) Lizard
(4) Cockroach (5) Aphid
Q7. (1) Kiwi (2) Eagle (3) Emu
(4) Penguin (5) Ostrich
Q8. (1) Swimming (2) Diving (3) Driving
(4) Sailing (5) Fishing
Q9. (1) Pupil (2) Iris (3) Cornea
(4) Medulla (5) Retina
Q10. (1) Sahara (2) Thar (3) Gobi
(4) Sunderbans (5) Kalahari
Q11. (1) Skull (2) Pelvis (3) Fibula
(4) Appendix (5) Vertebra
Q12. (1) Cap (2) Turban (3) Helmet
(4) Veil (5) Hat
Q13. (1) Snore (2) Slumber (3) Yawn
(4) Doze (5) Dream
Q14. (1) Epicentre (2) Seismology (3) Focus
(4) Crater (5) Richter Scale
Q15. (1) Curious (2) Humour (3) Wise
(4) Angry (5) Mighty
Q16. (1) Flat (2) Bungalow (3) House
(4) Temple (5) Palace
Q17. (1) Sweet (2) Cold (3) Sour
(4) Bitter (5) Salty
Q18. (1) Paper (2) Pencil (3) Eraser
(4) Ink (5) Sharpener
Q19. (1) Cotton (2) Rice (3) Wheat
(4) Gram (5) Barley
Q20. (1) Cricket (2) Baseball (3) Football
(4) Billiards (5) Badminton
Q21. (1) 17 (2) 44 (3) 21
(4) 66 (5) 19
Q22. (1) DFI (2) MOQ (3) BDG
(4) RTW (5) IKN
Q23. (1) 341 (2) 679 (3) 385
(4) 495 (5) 561
Q24. (1) 250 (2) 150 (3) 125
(4) 116 (5) 105
Q25. (1) BdE (2) XpD (3) HQu
(4) MkV (5) PtZ1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (5) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3)यदि '$' का मतलब जोड़ है, '%' का मतलब घटाव है, '#' का मतलब गुणा है और '@' का मतलब भाग है, तो इसका मान क्या होगा?
18 # 2 @ 2 $ 18 % 18 = ?
(a)36 (b)0 (c)2 (d)18 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q2. If '+' stands for '-', '-' stands for '×', '×' stands for ' ÷ ' and ' ÷ ' stands for '+', then what will be the value of the following expression?
यदि '+' का मतलब '-' हो, '-' का मतलब '×' हो, '×' का मतलब '÷ ' हो और ' ÷ ' का मतलब '+', तो निम्नलिखित का मान क्या होगा?
@reasoningbyamitsingh 14 – 3 + 10 × 5 ÷ 5 = ?
(a)65 (b)48 (c)45 (d)40
Q3. What will come in place of (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '–' are interchanged and '×' and ' ÷ ' are interchanged?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘+’ और ‘−’ को आपस में तथा ‘×’ और ‘÷’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए?
107+ 2028 × 6 – 427 ÷ 7 = ?
(a) 2759 (b) 2758 (c) 2268 (d) 2785
Q4. Which of the following interchanges of numbers (not digits) would make given equation correct?
निम्नलिखित में से संख्याओं (अंकों नहीं) के किस अदला-बदली से दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
257 – 33 ÷ 11 × 13 – 2 + 364 – 56 ÷ 8 × 4 – 44 = 35
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 56 and 57 (c) 57 and 64 (d) 33 and 44
Q5. If 'A' stands 'addition', B stands for 'division', C stands for 'subtraction' and D stands for 'multiplication, then what is the value of the following equation?
यदि 'A' का मतलब 'जोड़' है, 'B' का मतलब 'भाग' है, 'C' का मतलब 'घटाव' है और 'D' का मतलब 'गुणा' है, तो निम्नलिखित समीकरण का मान क्या है?
4 D (3 A 1) C 5A (6 B 2) C 7 = ?
(a) 12 (b) 7 (c)17 (d) 5 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q6. If 'A' stands 'addition', B stands for 'division', C stands for 'subtraction' and D stands for 'Multiplication', then what is the value of the following equation?
यदि 'A' का मतलब 'जोड़' है, 'B' का मतलब 'भाग' है, 'C' का मतलब 'घटाव' है और 'D' का मतलब 'गुणा' है, तो निम्नलिखित समीकरण का मान क्या है?
14 A 7 D 5 D (2 D 2) C (96 B 6) D 3 =?
(a)104 (b)105 (c)106 (d)107
Q7. If A indicates >; B indicates <; C indicates =; D indicates +; E indicates –; F indicates ×; G indicates ÷; then which of the following options is true?
यदि A का मतलब > है; B का मतलब < है; C का मतलब = है; D का मतलब + है; E का मतलब – है; F का मतलब × है; G का मतलब ÷ है; तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विकल्प सही है?
(a) (27G3) C(75G5) C(6F2) (b) (35E15) C(5F5) A(20G4)
(c) (5D6) A(6D12) A(13D6) (d) (5D6) A(4D3) A(3D3)
Q8. If 'A' denotes 'addition', 'B' denotes 'multiplication', 'C' denotes 'subtraction', and 'D' denotes 'division', then what will be the value of the following expression?
यदि 'A' का अर्थ 'जोड़', 'B' का अर्थ 'गुणा', 'C' का अर्थ 'घटाव', और 'D' का अर्थ 'भाग' है, तो निम्नलिखित अभिव्यक्ति का मान क्या होगा?
50 D (2 B 5) A 3 B (15 A 12) C 2 B (18 C 15) =?
(a)127 (b)89 (c)54 (d)80
Q9. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘×’ और ‘÷’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए
28 + 125 × 5 − 12 ÷ 3 = ?
(a) 17 (b) 46 (c) 28 (d) 21
Q10. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘÷’ और ‘×’ को आपस में तथा ‘+’ और ‘−’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए?
38 − 8 ÷ 2 + 16 × 8 = ?
(a) 53 (b) 52 (c) 55 (d) 54
Q11. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged? @reasoningbyamitsingh
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘÷’ और ‘−’ को आपस में तथा ‘×’ और ‘+’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए?
93 × 9 ÷ 9 − 3 × 8 + 23 × 6 ÷ 3 − 3 × 2 = ?
(a) 235 (b) 274 (c) 266 (d) 290
Q12. Which option gives the two signs that need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
6 – 20 ÷ 12 × 7 + 1 = 70
(a) ÷ and + (b) × and - (c) × and + (d) ÷ and x
Q13. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
14 + 4 ÷ 5 – 18 × 2 = 25
(a) ÷ and + (b) × and + (c) × and - (d) ÷ and × @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q14. Which option gives the two signs that need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
24 – 8 ÷ 5 + 5 × 3 = 13
(a) × and + (b) × and ÷ (c) ÷ and + (d) ÷ and –
Q15. Which option gives the two signs that need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
15 ÷ 15 × 10 – 10 + 5 = 15
(a) ÷ and × (b) + and – (c) × and – (d) ÷ and –
Q16. Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making the following equation correct.
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
@reasoningbyamitsingh
(a) × and + (b) ÷ and – (c) + and – (d) × and –
Q17. Select the correct equation from the given options after interchanging operations '-' and ‘× ‘and numbers '4' and '5'.
दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही समीकरण का चयन करें, जब क्रियाओं ‘−’ और ‘×’ तथा संख्याओं ‘4’ और ‘5’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए।
(a) 9 - 4 * 5 = 21 (b) 5 * 4 – 9 = 7
(c) 5 * 9 – 4 = 4 (d) 4 – 5 * 9 = 11
Q18. If sign '+' is interchanged with '÷ ' and number '2' is interchanged with '6', which of the following equations would be:
यदि चिह्न ‘+’ को ‘÷’ से तथा संख्या ‘2’ को ‘6’ से आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण होगा?
(a) 8 + 6 ÷ 2 = 8 (b) 2 + 8 ÷ 6 = 6
(c) 2 + 8 ÷ 2 = 8 (d) 2 + 6 ÷ 8 = 11
Q19. From the given alternatives select the numbers that must be interchanged to make the following equation correct.
दिए गए विकल्पों में से उन संख्याओं का चयन करें जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर निम्नलिखित समीकरण सही हो जाएगा |
16 – 6 + 12 × 3 ÷ 4 = 18
(a) 16 and 3 (b) 6 and 3 (c) 12 and 4 (d) 6 and 4
Q20. Which two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
दिए गए विकल्पों में से उन संख्याओं का चयन करें जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर निम्नलिखित समीकरण सही हो जाएगा |
618 + 37 × 12 – 703 ÷ 14 = 767
(a) 14 and 37 (b) 618 and 14 (c) 703 and 12 (d) 12 and 37 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q21. Which two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
दिए गए विकल्पों में से उन संख्याओं का चयन करें जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर निम्नलिखित समीकरण सही हो जाएगा
6 × 3 – 8 ÷ 2 + 5 = 8 ÷ 2 + 3 × 5 – 6
(a) 6 and 2 (b) 8 and 6 (c) 5 and 6 (d) 3 and 5
Q22. If the two signs, '+ and ÷ ' are interchanged, which of the following equations will be correct? @reasoningbyamitsingh
यदि दो चिह्न ‘+’ और ‘÷’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सही होगा?
(a) 16 ÷ 9 + 4 × 8 = 34 (b) 16 ÷ 21 + 13 × 26 = 56
(c) 11 + 13 × 4 ÷ 2 = 37 (d) 13 × 9 + 16 ÷ 2 = 125
Q23. If the given two numbers 3 and 5 are interchanged, which of the following equations will become correct?
यदि दिए गए 3 और 5 दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
(a) 3 + 5 – 4 * 2 = 1 (b) 1 + 9 + 3 + 5 = 9
(c) 6 + 5 * 2 – 3 = 7 (d) 3 + 4 – 1 * 5 = 2
Q24. After interchanging the given two numbers, what will be the value of
दिए गए दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदलने के बाद, निम्नलिखित का मान क्या होगा?
6 +7 × 3 – 8 ÷ 4 = ?
(a)43 (b)41 (c)42 (d)38 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q25. Which of the following interchanges of signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को सही बनाने के लिए किन दो चिह्नों और किन दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदलना चाहिए?
10 + 8 – 200 × 15 ÷ 5 = 407
(a) + and –, 15 and 10 (b) × and ÷, 8 and 5
(c) × and –, 5 and 15 (d) + and ÷, 200 and 10
Q26. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को सही बनाने के लिए किन दो चिह्नों और किन दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदलना चाहिए?
18 + 25 – 10 × 10 ÷ 5 = 203
(a) + and –, 18 and 25 (b) × and –, 18 and 25
(c) × and ÷, 25 and 5 (d) + and ÷, 18 and 5
Q27. Select the correct sequence of mathematical signs to replace the * signs so as to balance the given equation. @reasoningbyamitsingh
दिए गए समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए ‘*’ चिह्नों के स्थान पर गणितीय चिह्नों के सही क्रम का चयन करें।
72 * 12 * 8 * 6 * 22 = 32
(a) ×, +, –, ÷ (b) +, –, ×, + (c) ÷, +, ×, – (d) +, ×, ÷, –
Q28. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation. @reasoningbyamitsingh
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए ‘*’ चिह्नों के स्थान पर उपयुक्त गणितीय चिह्नों के सही संयोजन का चयन करें।
*
* 2 * 8 * 35 * 23
(a) ×, –, ÷, +, = (b) ×, +, ÷, –, = (c) +, –, ÷, ×, = (d) ÷, –, ×, +, =
Q29. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation.
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए ‘*’ चिह्नों के स्थान पर उपयुक्त गणितीय चिह्नों के सही संयोजन का चयन करें।
(9 * 8 * 7) * 13 * 5
(a) ×, =, =, – (b) ×, –, +, ÷, = (c) ÷, –, =, × (d) –, +, ×, =
Q30. Which of the following options of changing the mathematical operations will make the given equation correct?
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा गणितीय क्रियाओं में परिवर्तन दिया गया समीकरण को सही बना देगा?
– 5 × 3 + 3 = 16
(a) ÷ → ×, – → ÷, × → +, + → – (b) ÷ → ×, – → +, × → ÷, + → –
(c) ÷ → –, – → ÷, × → +, + → ÷ (d) ÷ → +, – → ×, × → –, + → ÷
ANSWER KEY
1.d | 2.c | 3.b | 4.d | 5.b | 6.c | 7.d | 8.d | 9.a | 10.b |
11.d | 12.a | 13.d | 14.d | 15.b | 16.d | 17.d | 18.d | 19.d | 20.a |
21.c | 22.a | 23.c | 24.a | 25.a | 26.d | 27.c | 28.d | 29.b | 30.d |
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Edit text includes selecting, deselecting, deleting, inserting, replacing text, which are described in this subsections:
Cut (ctrl+x), Copy (ctrl+c) & Paste (ctrl+v)
If a portion of the text is to be moved to a different place, select the text to be moved and then use the cut option in the edit menu. The selected text will be copied to the clipboard in windows. Now the Paste option is enabled in the Edit menu. To Paste the text that is in the Clipboard at some position in the document, place the cursor at the starting point of the insertion and choose Edit-> Paste. The Text will be pasted there.
Typing Special Characters (Symbols)
MS- Word supports a set of special characters and symbols, which cannot be entered through the keyboard. To insert these specials characters choose Insert-> Symbol. The dialog box of all available symbols is displayed for respective fonts.
Some Common Features ( Upper Case & Lower Case)
The “Change Case” command in the “ Format” menu allow you to change the case of the characters in text without having to retype them.
Justifying text
Justification determine the way text is aligned with respect to the margins. The default for word is left justification, which aligns text to the left margin. You can change the justification of text by using the justification buttons on the toolbar from left to right they are:
Finding and Replacing ( Ctrl + F)
Ms- Word provides some excellent features as Find and Replace, which may be used for a number of tasks, with high flexibility, using these features it is possible to find a specific text in a document, search for a particular pattern of text etc.
Spelling Checker
Spell checker is one of the powerful features of MS- Word. It also provides to check the spellings of the entire document including the header, footer and hidden text. Adding words to the dictionary is possible.
To retain the word, choose Ignore and to ignore the change at all its occurrences in the document choose Ignore All.
To change the word, choose Change and to change the word at all its occurrences in the document choose Change All.
Checking Grammar
During a grammar check, Word identifies sentences that conatin possible grammatical or stylish errors and suggests improvements. For example, if you wrote “The Project were completed by your team”. Word could question the grammar, first for subject- verb agreement and then for passive voice. Word also question style errors, such as wordiness and the use of clichés.
The Government of India is concerned about the old age income security of the working poor and is focused on encouraging and enabling them to save for their retirement. To address the longevity risks among the workers in unorganized sector and to encourage the workers in unorganized sector to voluntarily save for their retirement. The GoI has therefore announced a new scheme called Atal Pension Yojana (APY) in 2015-16 budget. The APY is focussed on all citizens in the unorganized sector. The scheme is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) through NPS architecture.
HIGHLIGHTS OF ATAL PENSION YOJANA:
– Under the APY, there is guaranteed minimum monthly pension for the subscribers ranging between Rs. 1000 and Rs. 5000 per month.
– The benefit of minimum pension would be guaranteed by the GoI.
– GoI will also co-contribute 50% of the subscriber’s contribution or Rs. 1000 per annum, whichever is lower. Government co-contribution is available for those who
are not covered by any Statutory Social Security Schemes and is not income tax payer.
– GoI will co-contribute to each eligible subscriber, for a period of 5 years who joins the scheme between the period 1st June, 2015 to 31st December, 2015. The benefit of five years of government Co-contribution under APY would not exceed 5 years for all subscribers including migrated Swavalamban beneficiaries.
– All bank account holders may join APY. Eligibility
– APY is applicable to all citizen of India aged between 18-40 years.
– Aadhaar will be the primary KYC. Aadhar and mobile number are recommended to be obtained from subscribers for the ease of operation of the scheme. If not available at the time of registration, Aadhar details may also be submitted later stage.
1. The literature prize was awarded- 2015 is:
a) Takaaki Kajita
b) Svetlana Alexievich
c) National Dialogue Quartet
d) Ram prasad
2. Which of the following states decided to establish India’s first Dolphin Community Reserve?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Bihar
c) Assam
d) West Bengal
3. Name the Carnatic flautist who died on 9 October 2015 in Chennai?
a) Natesan Ramani
b) U Srinivas
c) MS Gopalakrishnan
d) N Rajam
4. Baba Ramdev’s Patanjali Ayurved tied-up with which group to sell its products on their retail stores?
a) Reliance Group
b) Future Group
c) MORE Group
d) 24/7 Stores
5. Who was appointed to the Board of Securities and Exchange Board of India?
a) Tapan Ray
b) Anjuly Chib
c) Prabhjot Singh
d) Prakash
6. Name the music composer who died and was known for famous songs like Geet Gaata Chal, Ram Teri Ganga Maili and Chor Machaye Shor?
a) Aadesh Shrivastava
b) Ravindra Jain
c) MS Viswanathan
d) U Shrinivas
7. Identify the multilateral agency that launched Operation Sophia (Phase-II) to combat Mediterranean Migration Crisis?
a) NATO
b) UN Peacekeeping
c) EU Naval Force
d) African Union
8. Which of the following states launched e-Pragati project to facilitate e-governance?
a) Kerala
b) Telangana
c) Karnataka
d) Andhra Pradesh
9. Identify the eminent scientist who was appointed as the chairman of Atomic Energy Commission.
a) Sekhar Basu
b) Anil Kakodkar
c) R K Sinha
d) Srikumar Banerjee
10. ICICI Bank launched which service to enable customers to make electronic payments from their smartphones at traditional stores and e-commerce sites?
a) mVisa based Mobile Payment Service
b) Star mPay Service
c) PayZippy Payment Service
d) PayZapp mPayment Service
11. Which state launched the Operation Valsalya project to track missing children?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Rajasthan
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu
12. Identify the Indian-origin poet who was appointed as BBC Radio 4’s first resident poet?
a) Vijay Seshadri
b) Siddhartha Mukherjee
c) Geeta Anand
d) Daljit Nagra
13. With which of the following South American nations, India signed a protocol to Protocol to set up a Joint Economic and Trade Committee (JETCO) on 9 October 2015
a) Brazil
b) Ecuador
c) Argentina
d) Peru
14. Identify the literary personality who resigned from the general council of Sahitya Academy on 9 October 2015
a) Nayantara Sahgal
b) Shashi deshpande
c) Ashok Vajpeyi
d) Sarah Joseph
15. Who was resigned as the CEO of National Skill Development Corporation on 9 October 2015?
a) Atul Bhatnagar
b) Chandrajit Banerjee
c) Dilip Chenoy
d) Subramaniam Ramadorai
Answers
1-(a) 6-(b) 11-(c)
2-(b) 7-(c) 12-(d)
3-(a) 8-(d) 13-(b)
4-(b) 9-(a) 14-(b)
5-(a) 10-(a) 15-(c)
Q.1) MP is related to HK, in the same way HK is related to _______?
a) CE
b) CF
c) CG
d) DG
e) None of these
Q.2) In a certain code MUMBAI is written as NFNYZR, how THANE is written in that code.
a) VMZSG
b) GSZMV
c) ENAHT
d) AHTEN
e) None of these
Q.3) In a certain code, DOMAIN is written as CNLZHM. How is STREAM written in that code?
a) RSQDZL
b) TUSFBN
c) UTSFBN
d) LZDQSR
e) None of these
Q.4) If PRISM is written as OSHTL and RUBLE is written as QVAMD. How will WHORL is written in that code?
a) XIPSM
b) VGNQK
c) UINSK
d) XGPQM
e) VINQK
Q.5) In a certain code, GARNISH is written as RGAINHS. How Will GENIOUS be written in that code?
a) NEGOISU
b) NGEOIUS
c) NGESUOI
d) NEGSUOI
e) None of these
Q.6) In a certain code COMPUTER is written MOCUPRET, in the same way PRODUCTS is written as
a) UDSTCORP
b) ORPUDSTC
c) PUDSTCOR
d) RODUCTSP
e) None of these.
Q.7) In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code?
a) RMNBSFEJ
b) BNMRSFEJ
c) RMNBJEFS
d) TOPDQDCH
e) None of these
Q.8) In the word MELODRAMATIC, position of 1st and 7th letter is interchanged, similarly 2nd to 8th and so on till after arrangement. What is the position of 5th element from the right end?
a) E
b) G
c) K
d) M
e) None of these
Q.9) If “red means white” “White means black” “Black means yellow” “Yellow means green” “Green means blue” “Blue means indigo” then which of the following will represent the color of the “sunflower”.
a) Sky
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Blue
e) None of these.
Q.10) If in the word, DOCUMENT, all the vowels are first arranged alphabetically followed by the entire consonant arranged alphabetically then which letter is fifth from right?
a) U
b) D
c) M
d) N
e) None of these
Answer:
1. b) 2. b) 3. a) 4. e) 5. e) 6. b) 7. a) 8. a) 9. b) 10. b)
Cheque Truncation truncation is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque. In its place an electronic image of the cheque is transmitted to the paying branch through the clearing house, along with relevant information like data on the MICR band, date of presentation, presenting bank, etc.
Benefits of Cheque Truncation:
It speeds up the process of collection of cheques resulting in better service to customers,
reduces the scope of loss of instruments in transit,
lowers the cost of collection of cheques, and
Removes reconciliation-related and logistics-related problems, thus benefitting the system as a whole.
CTS 2010 is a cheque truncation system, an image-bound method, for faster clearing of cheques. Truncation means conversion of a physical cheque into electronic form. As per RBI guideline, all banks providing cheque facility to their customers have been advised to issue only ‘CTS-2010’ standard cheques.
MUDRA, which stands
for Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd., is a new institution being set up by Government of India for development and refinancing activities relating to micro units. It was announced by the Hon’ble Finance Minister while presenting the Union Budget for FY 2016. The purpose of MUDRA is to provide funding to the non corporate small business sector.
MUDRA would be r
esponsible for refinancing all Last Mile Financiers such as Non Banking Finance Companies of various types engaged in financing of small businesses, Societies, Trusts, Section 8 Companies [formerly Section 25], Co-operative Societies, Small Banks, Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks which are in the business of lending to Micro / Small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading and services activities. The Bank would partner with State / Regional level financial intermediaries to provide finance to Last Mile Financier of Small / Micro business enterprises.
Under the aegis of Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, MUDRA has already created its initial products / schemes. The interventions have been named ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishor’ and ‘Tarun’ to signify the stage of growth / development and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit / entrepreneur and also provide a reference point for the next phase of graduation / growth to look forward to :
a. Shishu : covering loans upto 50,000/-
b. Kishor : covering loans above 50,000/- and upto 5 lakh
c. Tarun : covering loans above 5 lakh to 10 lakh
more details: Click here
This year Jan 2015 will witness the change in lives of countless girl child and women. The pet project launched by Prime Minister Shri Narender Modi “Beti bachao beti Padhao” (BBBP) Yojana (save daughter, educate daughter) to save and empower the girl child is making waves all over the nation.The scheme will have focussed intervention and multi-section action in almost 100 districts with low Child Sex Ratio (CSR). The objective of this campaign is to celebrate and value the girl child and highlight the importance of education in empowering her.
“The village that succeeds in attaining a balanced sex ratio will be awarded Rs 1 crore’’this strong incentive will reduce the declining CSRensuring that the girl child gets equal opportunities to shine.
Bring a smile to those angels. SAVE THE GIRL CHILD, EDUCATE THE GIRL CHILD!
Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), a real-time funds transfer mechanism, developed by National Payment Corporation of India. It offers an instant, 24X7, interbank electronic fund transfer service through mobile phones. It is also being extended through other channels such as ATM, Internet Banking, etc. This facility is provided by NPCI through its existing National Financial Switch (NFS).
Objective of IMPS:
• To enable bank customers to use mobile instruments as a channel for accessing their banks accounts and remit funds
• Making payment simpler just with the mobile number of the beneficiary
• To sub-serve the goal of RBI in electronification of retail payments
• To build the foundation for a full range of mobile based Banking services.
Participants in the transaction:
• Remitter (Sender)
• Beneficiary (Receiver)
• Banks
• National Financial Switch – NPCI
Procedure of fund transfer through IMPS:
Registration for Remitter:
Remitter is required to register for mobile banking service with his/her bank and obtain Mobile Money Identifier (MMID) and MPIN from the bank. Download Software (Application) for mobile banking (ensuring compatibility of mobile with the application) or using the SMS facility in the mobile if bank provides IMPS on SMS.
Note: Mobile Money Identification Number (MMID) is a seven digit number of which the first four digits are the unique identification number of the bank offering IMPS.
Registration for Beneficiary:
Beneficiary has to link his/her mobile number to the account in the respective bank and obtain MMID from the bank. There is no need to register for mobile banking service.
Services available under IMPS:
1. Funds Transfer and Remittances: Sending Money and Receiving Money
2. Merchant Payments
• Grocery bills
• Travel & Ticketing
• Credit Card bills
• Utility bills
• Online shopping
• School & College fees
• Mobile top ups & DTH recharge
Benefits of IMPS:
• Instant
• Available 24 x7 (functional even on holidays)
• Safe and secure, easily accessible and cost effective
• Channel Independent can be initiated from Mobile/ Internet / ATM channels
• Debit & Credit Confirmation by SMS
Advantage of IMPS over NEFT and RTGS: No other fund transfer mechanism can match IMPS in terms of swiftness when it comes to remittance and merchant payments.
• IMPS is instant fund transfer, in ideal scenario transaction will be completed in 15-20 seconds i.e. beneficiary will receive the amount in 20 seconds.
• There is no holiday for IMPS like NEFT and RTGS.
• IMPS works 365 days and 24×7.
• Both the remitter as well as Beneficiary will receive the SMS i.e remitter will receive SMS on debit to his account and beneficiary will receive SMS on credit to his account.
Who all are offering IMPS ?
Banks and non-bank entities authorized by RBI are offering IMPS to the customers across India. Pre-Paid instruments Issuer such as Oxigen, GI Tech , Airtel Money, ITZ Cash, UAE Exchange, mRupee & M-Pesa etc are providing IMPS services.
ALGOL –Algorithm language
ALU – Arithmetic Logic Unit
AMD – Advanced Micro Devices
ANSI– American National Standards Institute
APCI– Application Layer Protocol Control Information
ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange
ASP– Active Server pages/ Application Service Provider
AVC –Advance Video Coding
BAL -Basic Assembly Language
BASIC – Beginner’s All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
BIOS – Basic Input- Output System
CAD -Computer Aided Design
CAE- Computer Aided Engineering
CD – Compact Disc.
CDMA– Code Division Multiple Access.
COBOL – Common Business Oriented Language
CD – Compact Disc
CDROM – Compact Disc Read Only Memory
CDRW – Compact Disc Rewritable
CPU- Central Processing Unit
DB – Database
DBA – Data Base Administrator
DBMS – Data Base Management System
DDR – Double Data Rate
DMS – Direct Memory Access
DNS – Domain Name System
DRAM – Dynamic Random Access Memory
DVD – Digital Video Disc/Digital Versatile Disc
DVDR – DVD Recordable
DVDROM – DVD Read Only Memory
DVDRW – DVD Rewritable
DVI – Digital Visual Interface
DVR – Digital Video Recorder
EPROM-Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
The seventh BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) summit was held from 8 to 9 July 2015 in the Russian city of Ufa in Bashkortostan. It was held under the theme BRICS Partnership – a Powerful Factor of Global Development. The seventh BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) summit was held from 8 to 9 July 2015 in the Russian city of Ufa in Bashkortostan. It was held under the theme BRICS Partnership – a Powerful Factor of Global Development.
The summit was attended by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Dilma Rousseff, Vladimir Putin, Xi Jinping and Jacob Zuma president of Brazil, Russia, China and South Africa respectively.
At the end of the summit, Ufa Declaration was released by the leaders that called for enhanced coordinated efforts in responding to emerging challenges, ensuring peace and security, promoting development in a sustainable way among the member countries.
Besides the BRICS summit level meeting, the leaders held a summit with the members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) and the Eurasian Economic Union (EEU).
In a five-year summit cycle, the summit is hosted by Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa in the order. While the 6th BRICS summit was held at Fortaleza in Brazil in 2014, New Delhi will be hosting the 8th summit in 2016.
Head of BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) nations on 9 July 2015 released the Ufa Declaration. The declaration was released after the 7th BRICS summit held in the Russian city of Ufa in Bashkortostan from 8 to 9 July 2015. 7th BRICS Summit was held under the theme ‘BRICS Partnership – a Powerful Factor of Global Development’.
The Ufa declaration saw the support for India to host the Eighth BRICS Summit in 2016.
Main highlights
10 Steps for the Future proposed by PM Narendra Modi for BRICS countries:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 July 2015 proposed a 10 point initiative named as ‘Dus Kadam: 10 Steps for the Future’ to boost cooperation within the members of the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa). He proposed the initiative while addressing the 7th BRICS summit in Ufa, Russia.
The 10 steps of the proposed Dus Kadam are:
1.BRICS Trade Fair (to be held during India’s chairmanship in 2016).
2.BRICS Railway Research Centre.
3.Cooperation among Supreme Audit Institutions.
4.BRICS Digital Initiative.
5.BRICS Agricultural Research Centre.
6.BRICS state/Local Government’s Forum.
7.Cooperation among cities in field of Urbanisation.
8.BRICS Sports Council and Annual BRICS Sports Meet.
9.First Major Project of NDB to be in field of Clean Energy.
10.BRICS Film Festival.
India will be hosting the Eighth BRICS Summit in 2016.
A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
In a simple sentence, Non-bank financial companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that provide certain banking services without having the banking licenses.
As per the latest directives, the RBI has raised the limit for NBFCs to maintain the net owned fund (NOF) requirement to four times by 2017 to Rs.2 crore.
At present, the NOF requirement is at Rs.25 lakh. In a phased manner, the NBFCs would be required to raise it to Rs.1 crore by March, 2016, and to further double it to Rs.2 crore by 2017.
The Salient Features of NBFCs Regulations:-
– The NBFCs are allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a minimum period of 12 months and
maximum period of 60 months. They cannot accept deposits repayable on demand.
– NBFCs cannot offer interest rates higher than the ceiling rate prescribed by RBI from time to time. The present ceiling is 12.5 per cent per annum. The interest may be paid or compounded at rests not shorter than monthly rests.
– NBFCs cannot offer gifts/incentives or any other additional benefit to the depositors.
– NBFCs (except certain AFCs) should have minimum investment grade credit rating.
– The deposits with NBFCs are not insured.
– The repayment of deposits by NBFCs is not guaranteed by RBI. Certain mandatory disclosures are to be made about the company in the Application Form issued by the company soliciting deposits.
– For deposit and non-deposit taking NBFCs, Capital to Risk (Weighted) Assets Ratio or CRAR, which includes Tier I capital of 7.5 per cent, is 15 per cent at present.
Categories of NBFCs registered with RBI
Asset Finance Company(AFC) : An AFC is a company which is a financial institution carrying on as its principal business the financing of physical assets supporting productive/economic activity, such as automobiles, tractors, lathe machines, generator sets, earth moving and material handling equipments, moving on own power and general purpose industrial machines. Principal business for this purpose is defined as aggregate of financing real/physical assets supporting economic activity and income arising therefrom is not less than 60% of its total assets and total income respectively.
Investment Company (IC) : IC means any company which is a financial institution carrying on as its principal business the acquisition of securities,
Loan Company (LC): LC means any company which is a financial institution carrying on as its principal business the providing of finance whether by making loans or advances or otherwise for any activity other than its own but does not include an Asset Finance Company.
Infrastructure Finance Company (IFC): IFC is a non-banking finance company a) which deploys at least 75 per cent of its total assets in infrastructure loans, b) has a minimum Net Owned Funds of Rs. 300 crore, c) ha
Systemically Important Core Investment Company (CIC-ND-SI): CIC-ND-SI is an NBFC carrying on the business of acquisition of shares and securities which satisfies the following conditions:-
(a) it holds not less than 90% of its Total Assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, debt or loans in group companies;
(b) its investments in the equity shares (including instruments compulsorily convertible into equity shares within a period not exceeding 10 years from the date of issue) in group companies constitutes not less than 60% of its Total Assets;
(c) it does not trade in its investments in shares, debt or loans in group companies except through block sale for the purpose of dilution or disinvestment;
(d) it does not carry on any other financial activity referred to in Section 45I(c) and 45I(f) of the RBI act, 1934 except investment in bank deposits, money market instruments, government securities, loans to and investments in debt issuances of group companies or guarantees issued on behalf of group companies.
(e) Its asset size is Rs 100 crore or above and
(f) It accepts public funds
Infrastructure Debt Fund: Non- Banking Financial Company (IDF-NBFC) : IDF-NBFC is a company registered as NBFC to facilitate the flow of long term debt into infrastructure projects. IDF-NBFC raise resources through issue of Rupee or Dollar denominated bonds of minimum 5 year maturity. Only Infrastructure Finance Companies (IFC) can sponsor IDF-NBFCs.
Non-Banking Financial Company – Micro Finance Institution (NBFC-MFI): NBFC-MFI is a non-deposit taking NBFC having not less than 85%of its assets in the nature of qualifying assets which satisfy the following criteria:
a. loan disbursed by an NBFC-MFI to a borrower with a rural household annual income not exceeding Rs. 60,000 or urban and semi-urban household income not exceeding Rs. 1,20,000;
b. loan amount does not exceed Rs. 35,000 in the first cycle and Rs. 50,000 in subsequent cycles;
c. total indebtedness of the borrower does not exceed Rs. 50,000;
d. tenure of the loan not to be less than 24 months for loan amount in excess of Rs. 15,000 with prepayment without penalty;
e. loan to be extended without collateral;
f. aggregate amount of loans, given for income generation, is not less than 75 per cent of the total loans given by the MFIs;
g. loan is repayable on weekly, fortnightly or monthly instalments at the choice of the borrower
Non-Banking Financial Company Factors (NBFC-Factors): NBFC-Factor is a non-deposit taking NBFC engaged in the principal business of factoring. The financial assets in the factoring business should constitute at least 75 percent of its total assets and its income derived from factoring business should not be less than 75 percent of its gross income.
Difference between banks & NBFCs:
a. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits;
b. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself;
c. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks.
Types of NBFC which are not regulated by RBI:
Category of Companies Regulator
Chit Funds Respective State Governments
Insurance companies —————–IRDA
Housing Finance Companies ——— NHB
Venture Capital Fund ————-SEBI
Merchant Banking companies ——-SEBI
Stock broking companies ———–SEBI
Nidhi Companies —————-Ministry of corporate affairs, Government of India
Nidhi Company
to any mutual benefit society notified by the Central / Union Government as a Nidhi Company. They are created mainly for cultivating the habit of thrift and savings amongst its members. The companies doing Nidhi business, viz. borrowing from members and lending to members only, are known under different names such as Nidhi, Permanent Fund, Benefit Funds, Mutual Benefit Funds and Mutual Benefit Company.
Nidhis are more popular in South India and are highly localized single office institutions. They are mutual benefit societies, because their dealings are restricted only to the members; and membership is limited to individuals. The principal source of funds is the contribution from the members. The loans are given to the members at relatively reasonable rates for purposes such as house construction or repairs and are generally secured. The deposits mobilized by Nidhis are not much when compared to the organized banking sector.
Prime Minister launched Digital India Week to spread awareness about Digital India Programme.
The Department of Electronics & Information Technology (DeitY) is the nodal agency for implementing the Digital India Programme in close cooperation with other departments and ministries.
Digital India has been envisioned as an ambitious umbrella programme to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
In order achieve the above objectives, several projects/products were already launched by the Union Government and Public Sector Enterprises or ready to be launched as indicated below:
Digital Locker System aims to minimize the usage of physical documents and enable sharing of e-documents across agencies. The sharing of the e-documents will be done through registered repositories thereby ensuring the authenticity of the documents online, says the government.
in has been implemented as a platform for citizen engagement in governance, through a “Discuss”, “Do” and “Disseminate” approach.The mobile app for MyGov would bring these features to users on a mobile phone.
Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) Mobile app would be used by people and Government organizations for achieving the goals of Swachh Bharat Mission.
eSign framework would allow citizens to digitally sign a document online using Aadhaar authentication.
The Online Registration System (ORS) under the eHospital application has been introduced. This application provides important services such as online registration, payment of fees and appointment, online diagnostic reports, enquiring availability of blood online etc, the government claims.
National Scholarships Portal is said to be a one stop solution for end to end scholarship process right from submission of student application, verification, sanction and disbursal to end beneficiary for all the scholarships provided by the Government of India.
Digitize India Platform (DIP) for large scale digitization of records in the country that would facilitate efficient delivery of services to the citizens.
Bharat Net, a high speed digital highway to connect all 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats of country. This would be the world’s largest rural broadband connectivity project using optical fibre.
Policy initiatives have also been undertaken by in the e-Governance domain likee-Kranti Framework, Policy on Adoption of Open Source Software for Government of India, Framework for Adoption of Open Source Software in e-Governance Systems,
Policy on Open Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) for Government of India, E-mail Policy of Government of India, Policy on Use of IT Resources of Government of India, Policy on Collaborative Application Development by Opening the Source Code of Government Applications, Application Development & Re-Engineering Guidelines for Cloud Ready Applications
BSNL has introducedNext Generation Network (NGN), to replace 30 year old exchanges, which is an IP based technology to manage all types of services like voice, data, multimedia/ video and other types of packet switched communication services.
BSNL has undertaken large scale deployment of Wi-Fi hotspots throughout the country. The user can latch on the BSNL Wi-Fi network through their mobile devices.
BPO Policy has been approved to create BPO centres in different North Eastern states and also in smaller/mofussil towns of other states.
Electronics Development Fund (EDF) Policy aims to promote Innovation, R&D, and Product Development and to create a resource pool of IP within the country to create a self-sustaining eco-system of Venture Funds.
National Centre for Flexible Electronics (NCFlexE) is an initiative of Government of India to promote research and innovation in the emerging area of Flexible Electronics.
Centre of Excellence on Internet on Things (IoT) is a joint initiative of Department of Electronics & Information Technology (DeitY), ERNET and NASSCOM.
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) and the UN Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR) signed an agreement to protect cultural heritage sites with the latest geo-spatial technologies. The agreement was signed at the annual meeting of the World Heritage Committee in Bonn, Germany.
Satellite imagery is often the only source of objective information for areas affected by conflict or by natural disasters. It helps the international community to understand the situation on the ground and plan emergency measures. For example, a recently-published report on cultural heritage sites in Syria, by UNITAR-UNOSAT revealed the extent of damage to cultural heritage, confirming information obtained through unofficial sources.
The agreement between both the UN organizations was signed against the backdrop of damage occurred to cultural heritage sites due to conflicts and natural calamities in different parts of the world in recent times. For example, the earthquake that struck Nepal on 25 April 2015 destroyed the 19th century Dharahara (Bhimsen) tower and Monkey Temple of Swayambhunath that happens to be UNESCO heritage sites. Similarly, damage was done to world heritage sites in Syria and Iraq by the ISIS militant group.
Bank ——————–Punch line
Allahabad Bank———–A Tradition of Trust
Andhra Bank————–Much more to do, with YOU in focus
Bank of Baroda———–India’s International Bank
Bank of India————Relationship beyond Banking
Bank of Maharashtra——One Family, One Bank
Canara Bank of India—–Together we can
Central Bank of India—-Build A Better Life Around US
Corporation Bank———Sarve Jahan Sukhino Bhavantu (Prosperity for all)
Dena bank—————-Trusted family bank
IDBI Bank—————-Aao soche bada
Indian Bank————–Taking banking technology to the common man
Indian Overseas Bank—–Good people to grow with
Oriental Bank of Commerce-Where every individual is committed
Punjab and Sind bank——Where service is a way of life
Punjab national Bank——A name you can bank upon
Syndicate Bank————Your faithful & friendly financial partner
State Bank of India——-Pure Banking Nothing Else
Union Bank of India——-Good people to bank with
United Bank of India——The bank that begin with ‘U’
UCO Bank——————Honours yours trust
Vijaya Bank—————A friend you can bank upon
Bharatiya Mahila Bank —-Empowering women Empowering India
Corporate Affairs Secretary Tapan Ray has been appointed to the board of capital market regulator, SEBI. Ray, who took charge as Corporate Affairs Secretary in August, replaces his predecessor Anjuly Chib Duggal on the Sebi board.
SEBI: The Preamble of the Securities and Exchange Board of India describes the basic functions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India as
“…to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate the securities market and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”
The Forward Markets Commission (FMC) is the chief regulator of commodity futures markets in India. On 28 September 2015, it was merged with SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India ).
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) projected that India’s gross domestic product (GDP) is expected to grow at 7.5 per cent in 2015.
As per the report, the growth rate for world in 2015 is expected to remain more or less unchanged from last year, at 2.5 per cent.
Highlights of the report with respect to India
• India’s gross domestic product (GDP) is expected to grow at 7.5 per cent in 2015 compared to China’s 6.9 as China rebalances the structure of its demand by concentrating more on exports.
• India’s upward growth will be possible because of lowering oil prices in the international market that will ease pressure on current account deficit.
• India’s export growth (by volume) slowed down from 8.5 per cent in 2013 to 3.2 per cent in 2014.
• Public banks, which account for 62 per cent of Indian bank loans, will find it difficult to meet the Basel III capital requirements between 2015 and 2019.
• India has emerged as an important player in extending development assistance to developing and under developed countries as part of south-south cooperation that takes the form of credit, concessional loans and grants.
• India is one of the few countries where the Public Private Partnership investment is high. Almost 60 per cent of the total private participation in projects recorded in developing countries was in China, Brazil, the Russian Federation, India, Mexico and Turkey.
• It identified potential financial role of south-led multilateral banks including New Development Bank of BRICS and the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) in both of which India has membership.
A word processor is a software package, which helps enter and edit a document much faster than the usual manual ways. Most of the word processors today allow much more than allowing one to enter and edit a document. MS- Word Basic is also known as Word Processing.
The following is a list of some of the functions that are possible by using a Word Processor.
Starting Word
As in the case with other window applications, to invoke MS Word, you click on the icon Micro soft Word. In application or MS Office group the following icon will be displayed. To invoke MS Word, double click on this icon.
To start word and simultaneously open a word document, double click the filename of the document in the file Manager.
The Word Screen
This section provides an overview of the major elements on the Word Screen, such as menus, toolbars and status bar.
When the word is started, a new, blank document appears on the word screen. The following illustration identifies each part of the word screen.
(Image)
The Menu bar provides access to the word commands, these commands are grouped together in menus, with only the group (menu) name displayed on the menu bar.
The “toolbars” contain buttons that provide quick access to commonly used commands.
The Ruler allows you to accurately set layout of the document. It allows you to set tabs, indents, and change page margins.
Getting to Word Document
This section explains the basic procedure for creating new documents, saving new documents, saving your work, opening existing documents, and printing .
Creating a Document (Ctrl + N)
To create a new document at any time, click the new button on the standard toolbar. While creating a document such as memo, letter, report or resume, one can often save time by using one of the wizards or templates that come with word.
Opening a Document (Ctrl + O)
To quickly open one of the last documents you worked on, choose it from the bottom of the file menu. To open a document, click on the Open button on the standard toolbar. When the dialog box appears, select the document in the file Name box and then choose the OK button.
Saving a Document (Ctrl + S)
To save a document on disk, click the save button on the standard toolbar. When you save a document for the first time, Word displays the Save As dialog box so that you can type a name for the document.
Printing a Document (Ctrl + P)
Before printing a document, Page breaks and choosing print preview from the file menu checks the overall appearance of the document. To view the document one page at a time, and also edit the text more easily, choose Page Layout from View Menu. When the ready to print, click the Print button on the standard toolbar. Your default printer should be set using windows programs for printing.
Closing a Document and Quitting Word
When finished working in Word close the active document and then quit Word by choosing Exit( windows) from the file menu. To work on another document in word , close the active document by choosing Close from file menu and then open the other document.
Typing and Revising Text
Typing text in MS- Word is very easy and straightforward task, because of the useful word processing features supported by it. When you create a new document in word you can just start typing. Press the Enter key only when you have finished a paragraph.
The prize was awarded “for its decisive contribution to the building of a pluralistic democracy in Tunisia in the wake of the Jasmine Revolution of 2011”.The 2015 Nobel Peace Prize went to the National Dialogue Quartet in Tunisia.
The National Dialogue Quartet consists of four organisations in Tunisian civil society – the Tunisian General Labour Union (UGTT, Union Générale Tunisienne du Travail), the Tunisian Confederation of Industry, Trade and Handicrafts (UTICA, Union Tunisienne de l’Industrie, du Commerce et de l’Artisanat), the Tunisian Human Rights League (LTDH, La Ligue Tunisienne pour la Défense des Droits de l’Homme), and the Tunisian Order of Lawyers (Ordre National des Avocats de Tunisie)
After the Arab Spring in Tunisia in 2010-2011, the Quartet paved the way for a peaceful dialogue between the citizens.
LIST NOBEL PRIZE WINNERS, 2015:
Peace:National Dialogue Quartet
Literature: Svetlana Alexievich
Physiology or Medicine: William C. Campbell, Satoshi Omura, Youyou Tu, Paul Modrich
Physics: Arthur McDonald, Takaaki Kajita.
Chemistry: Tomas Lindahl, Aziz Sancar
Q1. The ratio of monthly salaries of two persons, A and B is 8:7. If the salary of A is increased by 20% and that of B by 11%, the new ratio becomes 96 : 77. What is A’s Salary?
1) Rs.800
2)Rs.700
3)Rs.750
4)Cant be determined
5)None of these
Q2.Three persons A, B and C start a business with Rs.12800, Rs.16800 and Rs.9600 respectively. At the end of the year, B received Rs.13,125 as share in total profit. What is the share of C in the profit?
1) Rs.7850
2)Rs.7550
3)Rs.7500
4)Rs.8500
5) None of these
Q3. The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in a school is 9:7. If the number of boys increases by 40% and that of girls by 20%, what will be the new ratio of boys to girls?
1)3:2
2)2:3
3)4:3
4)3:4
5) None of these
Q4. The ratio of the present ages of A to B is 2:3. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 5:7. What is the present age of A?
1)24 years
2)20 years
3)21 years
4) 16 years
5) None of these.
Q5. The total number of Students in a college is 3906. The number of girls is 1638. What is the ratio of boys to girls in the college?
1) 18:13
2) 13:18
3)13:19
4)19:13
5) None of these.
Q6. The Total number of students in a school is 31700. If the ratio of boys to the girls in the school is 743:842 respectively, what is the total number of girls in the school?
1)14860
2)16480
3)15340
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
Q7. The ratio between Gloria’s and Sara’s present ages is 4:7 respectively; Two years ago the ratio between their ages was 1:2 respectively. What will be the Sara’s age three years hence?
1)17 years
2) 14 years
3) 11 years
4) 8 years
5) None of these
Q8. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their ages is 16:3. What is the age of the daughter?
1)9 years
2)3 years
3)12 years
4)6 years
5) None of these.
Q9. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 847 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
1) 1450
2)1640
3)1500
4)Can’t be determined
5) None of these
Q10. Amits present age is three times Pratibha’s present age and nine-thirteenths of his father’s present age. The sum of the present age of all them is 150 years. What is the difference between Pratibha’s present age and Amit’s Father’s present age?
1)56 years
2) 64 years
3) 60 years
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
Winner of three Wimbledon titles in a day, who died at the age of 89– Doris Hart
Person who was sworn-in as 19th Governor of Arunachal Pradesh – Jyoti Prasad Rajkhowa
Former cricketers who were inducted into the BCCI’s newly-constituted cricket advisory committee – Sachin Tendulkar, Sourav Ganguly and VVS Laxman
Football club Copa del Rey also known as Spanish King’s Cup by defeating Athletic Bilbao – Barcelona
Person who was appointed as the new Chancellor of the Nalanda University, Bihar– George Yeo, the former Foreign Minister of Singapore
The women, who was designated as the new President of the Indian Ocean island nation, Mauritius by its government– Ameenah Gurib-Fakim
India and Sweden signed 6 agreements to boost ties and restart the bilateral strategic dialogue in presence of– President Pranab Mukherjee, who was on a state visit to Sweden
One of the founders of India’s Information Technology (IT) industry and chairman of Hinditron Group who died – Hemant Sonawala
92 year 65 days old cancer survivor, who became the oldest woman to finish a marathon at San Diego’s Rock ‘n’ Roll Marathon of 26.2 miles (42.2 kilometers)– Harriette Thompson
President of FIFA who resigned amid the corruption scandal that has engulfed the football’s governing body– Sepp Blatter
To attract investment of 1 lakh crore rupees Maharashtra Cabinet approved– a Composite Renewable Energy Policy worth 4156.43 crore rupees
Scientists claimed that some female members of a critically endangered species of sawfish are reproducing in the wild without sex, that is, by– Parthenogenesis
US President Barack Obama signed the USA FREEDOM Act 2015 in law for Uniting and Strengthening America by– Fulfilling Rights and Ensuring Effective Discipline Over Monitoring Act of 2015.
The former cricket captain of Indian team, who was re-appointed as the Director of Indian cricket team for the Bangladesh tour– Ravi Shastri
Sixth city in the country to have metro services; other cities are Delhi, Gurgaon, Mumbai, Bangalore, and Kolkata is– Jaipur
Indian shot putter who won gold medal in men’s shot put event in the 21st Asian Athletics Championships– Inderjeet Singh
India and Belarus inked six agreements to boost ties and relationship based on – friendship and mutual benefit
Jharkhand Cabinet approved Jharkhand Special Courts Ordinance, 2015 to make Jharkhand– rid of corruption
Person who for his contribution towards the development of athletics in Asian continent was was conferred with the Asian Athletics Association (AAA) President’s award – Suresh Kalmadi
World Bank Board approved $250 Million support to Jammu and Kashmir for– Jhelum and Tawi Flood Recovery Project
Name the legendary Telugu writer who died in Hyderabad after a brief illness– Dasaradhi Rangacharya
Name the Cyclonic storm that was developed over the Arabian Sea – ASHOBAA
Three districts of Haryana and Uttar Pradesh that were included in National Capital Region are– Jind, Karnal and Muzaffarnagar
ICICI Bank, India’s largest private sector bank, appointed a person as the non-executive chairman for a period of five years is– Mahendra Kumar Sharma
City that who’s Municipal Corporation (AMC) announced USE and GET PAID scheme, under which people will be paid one rupees for using public toilets– Ahmadabad
Person who was conferred with the prestigious 14th Sant Namdev National Award 2015 at a function in Pune, Maharashtra– Punjab Chief Minister Parkash Singh Badal
Former Indian cricketer who died after a prolonged illness at his residence in Pune, Maharashtra– Hemant Kanitkar
Delhi Jal Board vice-chairman who was named as the new Law Minister of Delhi– Kapil Mishra
Researchers discovered a trio of mud statuettes inside a reed basket in a building, an important archaeological site, in the ancient city of Vichama in northern Peru is believed to be created about 3800 years ago by– the ancient Caral civilization.
HDFC Bank launched a mobile app as a complete digital payment and purchase solution–PayZapp
The United Nations (UN) envoy in Burundi crisis, who stepped down from his role as mediator of the crisis after being accused of being biased– Said Djinnit
Union Government scrapped customs import duties for drugs and test kits used to treat– AIDS
Four Indian languages included in the books of Roads and Transport Authority (RTA) of UAE which can be chosen while appearing for driving tests here in the UAE from September 2015 includes– Hindi, Malayalam, Tamil and Bengali
Cricketer who became the ninth all-time highest Test wicket-takers by claiming 416 wickets in 102 matches is– Indian off-spin cricketer Harbhajan Singh
Person elected as the President of United Nations General Assembly’s 70th session– Mogens Lykketoft of Denmark
China unveiled 800-year-old Buddha statue (Qianshou Guanyin) famous for its 1000 hands in– Dazu County in Sichun province
First Indian footballer to score 50 international goals – Sunil Chhetri
India’s first 100 percent visually-challenged person to be inducted into the Indian Foreign Services (IFS) is– Beno Zephine
The World Indigenous Games are a multi-sport event involving indigenous athletes that will be first staged in 2015. The Games are governed by the Inter Tribal Council, a Brazilian indigenous peoples NGO that has staged Brazil’s national Indigenous Games since 1996. The first edition of the Games will be held in Palmas, Brazil, in 2015.
The Games are expected to be held intermittently thereafter, and will feature competitive sports and non-competitive demonstration events.
First World Indigenous Games started in Brazil on 23 October 2015 in the northern Brazilian city of Palmas. The game will end on 31 October 2015.The games are a multi-sport event involving indigenous athletes has around 2000 athletes participating from many indigenous ethnic groups and 30 countries like Ethiopia, Mongolia, Brazil, Australia, Russia, the Philippines, Ethiopia and New Zealand.
The participants on 22 October 2015 took part in a traditional fire lighting ceremony in Palmas’s central square and danced at the ceremony in traditional outfits.
Sports included in the games are archery, spear tossing, canoeing and a race through the forest. Besides, there will be non-competitive events showcasing the many different traditions of indigenous ethnic groups involved, such as a football-style game called xikunahity in which the ball is controlled only with the head. It is played in the Matto Gross region of Brazil.
The scheme was introduced with the following objectives:
• To resolve complaints relating to banking services and to facilitate the satisfaction or settlement of such complaints.
• Resolve disputes between a bank and its constituents as well as amongst banks, through the process of conciliation, mediation and arbitration.
All banks are covered by the scheme, including Regional Rural Banks and scheduled primary co-operative banks.
The scheme provides for Reserve Bank to appoint one or more of its officers in the rank of Chief General Manager or General Manager to be known as the banking ombudsmen to carry out the functions entrusted to them within the identified territorial limits. As on date, fifteen Banking Ombudsmen have been appointed, with their offices located mostly in state
capitals.
The Banking Ombudsman may award compensation not exceeding Rs 1 lakhs to the complainant only in the case of complaints relating to credit card operations for mental agony and harassment.
Deposit Insurance: Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) was set up by RBI with the intention of insuring the deposits of individuals. The deposit insurance scheme covers:
• All commercial banks, including branches of foreign banks operating in India, and Regional Rural Banks
• Eligible co-operative banks. The insurance scheme covers savings account, current account, term deposits and 30 recurring accounts. However, the following deposits are not covered by the scheme:
• Deposit of Central / State Government
• Deposit of foreign governments
• Inter-bank deposits
• Deposits received outside India
In order for depositers in a bank to benefit from the insurance scheme, the bank should have paid DICGC the specified insurance premium (10 paise per annum per Rs. 100 of deposit).
Under the Scheme, in the event of liquidation, reconstruction or amalgamation of an insured bank, every depositor of that bank is entitled to repayment of the deposits held by him in the same right and same capacity in all branches of that bank upto an aggregate monetary ceiling of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh). Both principal and interest are covered, upto the prescribed ceiling.
Reserve Bank of India makes use of all those methods of credit control that are adopted by other Central Banks in the world.
These measures are as under RBI
Bank Rate: Rate of interest that the Reserve Bank charges from other scheduled bank on loans given to them is called bank rate.
Repo Rate: It was introduced in December, 1992 by RBI. It is the rate at which RBI lends short-term money to the bank against securities. It is currently is__
Reserve Repo Rate: It was introduced in November 1996. It is the rate at which bamk park short-term excess liquidity with on RBI. It is currently is___
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): It is the ratio of liquid asset, which all commercial Banks have to keep in the form of cash, gold an unencumbered approved securities equal to Net demand and time deposits liabilities.
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): It is the amount of funds that the banks have to keep with the RBI. If the RBI decides to increase this rate the available amount with the banks comes down. RBI uses this method (increase of CRR rate), to drain out the excessive money from the banks.
Open Market Operation: It means that the bank controls the flow of credit through the sale and purchase of government securities in the open market.
Important points to remember:
Bank Rate, Repo Rate, Reserve Repo Rate:Cash Reserve Ratio. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) , Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
At, On and In
The prepositions at, on and in can show place. At is used to talk about position at a point.
The boy stood at the gate.
Turn left at the next corner.
On is used to talk about position on a line.
London is on the river Thames.
In is used to talk about position inside large areas and three dimensional spaces.
She was born in Mexico.
Complete the following sentences using at, on or in.
1. I saw a beautiful girl ………………… the shop.
a) in
b) on
c) at
2. I met her ………………. a party.
a) at
b) on
c) in
3. There is a spelling mistake …………………. line nine.
a) in
b) on
c) at
4. He works ………………….. the US.
a) in
b) on
c) at
5. Grandmother is arriving ………………… the 8.30 train.
a) in
b) onc) at
6. She is a student …………………. Cambridge.
a) at
b) in
c) on
7. Who is that pretty girl …………………. the second row?
a) in
b) on
c) at
8. The cat is ………………. the piano.
a) in
b) on
c) at
9. Why do you wear that ring ………………… your index finger?
a) on
b) at
c) in
10. Eat ………………. the Modern Restaurant. They serve the best food in town.
a) in
b) at
c) on
Answers
1. I saw a beautiful girl in the shop.
2. I met her at a party.
3. There is a spelling mistake in line nine.
4. He works in the US.
5. Grandmother is arriving on the 8.30 train.
6. She is a student at Cambridge.
7. Who is that pretty girl in the second row?
8. The cat is on the piano.
9. Why do you wear that ring on your index finger?
10. Eat at the Modern Restaurant. They serve the best food in town.
Function Keys:
F1—— Get help or visit Microsoft office Online.
F2—— Move text or graphic.
F4—— Repeat the last action
F5—— Choose the Go To command (Home tab).
F6—— Go to the nest pane or frame.
F7—— Choose the spelling command (Review tab)
F8—— Extend a selection
F9—— Update the selected fields
F10—– Show key tips
F11—– Go to the nest field
F12—– Choose the Save As comman
4G is the fourth generation of cellular data standards. Like 3G, there is no single 4G technology. Instead, 4G an umbrella of technologies that conform to the requirements established by the International Telecommunications Union. All 4G devices must support a data transfer rate of at least 100 Mbps.
Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest, 2002 (SARFAESI Act, 2002) was enacted to provide banks and financial institutions with a more effective framework to enforce the security structure underlying loans and advances given by them, and recover their dues expeditiously.
Banks and Financial Institutions can benefit from SARFAESI. The term ‘bank’ includes all banking companies, including co-operative banks. However, regional rural banks have been kept out.
‘Financial institution’ means:
• A public financial institution within the meaning of the Companies Act, 1956
• Any institution specified by the Central Government under the Recovery of Debts due to
Bank and Financial Institutions Act, 1993
• The International Finance Corporation, established under the International Finance
Corporation (Status, Immunitis and Privileges) Act, 1958
• Any other institution or non-banking financial company as defined in the Reserve Bank of
India Act, 1934, which the Central Government may specify as a financial institution for
the purposes of the Act.
The bank or financial institution which has lent money to a borrower is also called originator in the context of securitization.
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 defines a banking company as a company which transacts the business of banking in India. Banking is defined as accepting, for the purpose of lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand or otherwise and withdrawable by cheque, draft, order or otherwise. Section 49A of the Act prohibits any institution other than a banking company to accept deposits from the public withdrawable by cheque. RBI is the apex regulater for banks.
Banks can be broadly categorized as Commercial Banks or Co-operative Banks.
Commercial Banks include:
• Public Sector Banks (SBI, SBI Associates and Nationalised Banks)
• Private Sector Banks (Old, New and Foreign)
• Regional Rural Banks
Co-operative Banks include:
• Urban co-operative banks
• Rural / Agricultural co-operative banks.
Banks which meet specific criteria are included in the second schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. These are called scheduled banks.Scheduled banks are considered to be safer, and are entitled to special facilities like re-finance from RBI. Inclusion in the schedule also comes with its responsibilities of reporting to RBI and maintaining a percentage of its demand and time liabilities as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with RBI.
Input Devices:n input device is a peripheral (piece of computer hardware equipment) used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system such as a computer or information appliance.
List of Input device:
Keyboard
Mouse
Joy Stick
Light pen
Track Ball
Touch Pad
Scanner
Touch Screen
Graphic Tablet
Microphone
Web Camera
Magnetic Ink Card Reader(MICR)
Optical Character Reader(OCR)
Bar Code Reader
Optical Mark Reader(OMR)
Stylus
Bio-metric
Digitizer
– Brazil First World Indigenous Games start.
– Carolina Marin Ace shuttler World No.1 ranking.
– Robert Mugabe won the 2015 Confucius Peace Prize given by China.
– Andhra Pradesh: Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of Shri Venkateswara Mobile and Electronics-Manufacturing Hub.
– Jacques Kallis was appointed as the Head Coach of Kolkata Knight Rider.
– The deposits outstanding under the Gold Deposit Scheme will be allowed to run till maturity unless the depositors prematurely withdraw regarding directions on implementation of Gold Monetisation Scheme 2015 that were issued by RBI.
– China & Britain signed Strategic Investment Agreements for building three nuclear plants.
– Russia declared that it will permanently station a military unit in the Arctic by 2018.
– Alok Rawat first male member of the National Commission for Women (NCW) who was appointed.
– Ashwini Kumar the honorary member of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in India died.
Former Water Resources Secretary Alok Rawat was appointed as the first male member of the National Commission for Women (NCW). His appointment filled the fourth seat in the five-member body.
Society for Worldwide Inter bank Financial Telecommunications (SWIFT) is solely a carrier of messages. It does not hold funds nor does it manage accounts on behalf of customers, nor does it store financial information on an on-going basis.
As a data carrier, SWIFT transports messages between two financial institutions. This activity involves the secure exchange of proprietary data while ensuring its confidentiality and integrity.
SWIFT, which has its headquarters in Belgium, has developed an 8-alphabet Bank Identifier Code (BIC). For instance HDFCINBB stands for:
• HDFC = HDFC Bank
• IN = India
• BB = Mumbai
Thus, the BIC helps identify the bank.
President Robert Mugabe was awarded with the 2015 Confucius Peace Prize by China for supposedly injecting fresh energy into the global quest for harmony. The Prize is dubbed as Chinese equivalent of the Nobel Peace Prize.
Directions (Q.1 to 6): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A+B means A is the daughter of B.
A-B means A is the husband of B.
A*B means A is the brother of B
Q.1) If P + Q – R, which of the following is true?
a) R is the mother of P
b) R is the sister in law of P.
c) R is the aunt of P
d) R is the mother in law of P
e) None of these
Q.2) If P*Q+R, which of the following is true?
a) P is the brother of R
b) P is the uncle of R
c) P is the son of R
d) P is the father of P
e) None of these
Q.3) If P+Q*R, which of the following is true?
a) P is the niece of R
b) P is daughter of P
c) P is the cousin of R
d) P is the daughter in law of R
e) None of these
Q.4) If A $ B means “A is father of B‘ , A # B means ‘A is daughter of B‘ , A @ B means ‘A
is sister of B‘ ,
then how is K related to M in H @ K $ L # M?
a) Husband
b) Uncle
c) Father
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Q.5) If A+B means A is the sister of B; A-B means A is the brother of B; A*B means A is
the daughter of B, which of the following shows the relation that E is the maternal
uncle of D?
a) D+F*E
b) D-F*E
c) D*F+E
d) D*F-E
e) None of these
Answer:
1.a) 2. c) 3. a) 4. a) 5.e)
IBPS P.O mains exam syllabus details:
Reasoning:
Syllogism
Course of Action
Assumption & Conclusion
Strong and Weak Argument
Cause and Effect
Statement and Conclusion
Data sufficiency
Passage Inference
All topics given above are most important for the highest score in IBPS P.O examination.
Scheduled Commercial Banks are required to maintain with RBI, an average cash balance, the amount of which shall not be less than 6% of the total of the Net Demand and Time Liabilities(NDTL) in India.
Demand Liabilities include all liabilities which are payable on demand and they include current deposits, demand liabilities portion of savings bank deposits, margins held against letters of credit/ guarantees, balances in overdue fixed deposits, cash certificates and cumulative/ recurring deposits, outstanding Telegraphic Transfers (TTs), Mail Transfer (MTs), Demand Drafts (DDs), unclaimed deposits, credit balances in the Cash Credit account and deposits held as security for advances which are payable on demand.
Time Liabilities are those which are payable otherwise than on demand and they include fixed deposits, cash certificates, cumulative and recurring deposits, time liabilities portion of savings bank deposits, staff security deposits, margin held against letters of credit if not payable on demand, deposits held as securities for advances which are not payable on demand, India Millennium Deposits and Gold Deposits.
The CRR is calculated on the basis of average of the daily balance maintained with RBI during the reporting fortnight. Scheduled Commercial Banks are required to maintain minimum CRR balances up to 70 per cent of the total CRR requirement on all days of the fortnight.
Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) transfers are instantaneous – unlike National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) where the transfers are batched together and effected at hourly intervals. As with NEFT, the transferor needs to know the IFSC Code and the beneficiary’s bank account no.
RBI allows the RTGS facility for transfers above Rs2 lakhs. The RBI window is open on weekdays from 9 am to 4.30 pm; on Saturdays from 9 am to 12.30 pm.
Banking System of India
A bank is a financial institution that provides banking and other financial services to their customers. A bank generally provides banking services such as accepting deposits and providing loans.
There are also non-banking institutions that provide certain banking services.
The following are functions of bank:
• To provide security to the savings of customers.
• To control the supply of money and credit.
• To encourage public confidence in the working of the financial system increase savings speedily and efficiently.
• To avoid focus of financial powers in the hands of a few individuals and institutions.
• To set equal norms and conditions (i.e.; rate interest, period of lending etc) to all types of customers.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Reserve Bank of India Bank of India is the Central Bank of our country. On the recommendation Hilton Young Commission, it was established on 1st April 1935 and in 1949 it was nationalized. Reserve Bank is the Central Bank of India. RBI (Reserve Bank of India) is constituted under RBI act 1934, and started functioning on 1st April 1949 with a capital of Rs.5 crore. Central Banking Functions are as under Issue of Paper Currency: The Reserve Bank is one nation’s sole note issuing authority. Indian Currency System: The Present Monetary system of India is based on inconvertible paper Currency and is managed by the Reserve Bank of India. The Present currency system is based on Minimum reserve system, of note issue. It was adopted in 1957 under the minimum reserve system, minimum of Gold and foreign securities to the extent of Rs.200 crore (of which Gold should be value Rs.115 crore) and the balance in rupees securities maintained.
Important Function of the Reserve Bank Of India
As Central Bank —————–Function————–As an ordinary Bank
Note issuing Authority —————————————Granting short-term loans
Banker of Government —————————————Recovering short-term loans
Banker’s Bank ————————————————–Buying/ Selling of bills
Collects and Publishes Banking Data ——————- Accepting Deposits
Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves———– Buying and selling of agricultural bills
Provision of Agricultural Credit ————————-Dealing with foreign Securities
Provision of industrial Credit—————————- Dealing with costly metals
Training Facilitation —————————————Dealing with banks of other countries
Controller of Credit
Clearing House Function
First Governor Of RBI:- Sir Osborne Smith
Current Governor Of RBI:- Dr. Raghuram Rajan.
Banker of the Government: The RBI deals as an agent of the Central and State Governments. It Performs various banking functions such as to accept deposits, taxes and make payments on Behalf of the government.
Banker of Bank and Lender of the Last Resort: RBI acts as a banker for all the commercial banks. All scheduled banks come under the direct control of RBI and follow the Rules and Regulation of RBI.
By performing the following functions, the RBI helps the member bank significantly.
• It acts as the lender of the last resort
• It is the custodian of cash reserves of commercial banks.
Q.1) 362 x 689 = ?
a) 723692
b)249418
c) 710308
d) 719868
e) None of these
Q.2) √(11881 ) x √? = 10137
a) 8649
b) 9216
c) 8281
d) 9409
e) None of these
Q.3) √4096 = ?
a) 64
b) 46
c) 62
d) 66
e) None of these
Q.4) √729 + √484 = ?
a) 27
b) 22
c) 49
d) 52
e) None of these
Q.5) √10.24 – √9.61 = ?
a) 32
b) 3.2
c) 3.1
d) 0.1
e) None of these
Q.6) 40 * 40 + 50 * 50 = ?
a) 3100
b) 3200
c) 4100
c) 5100
e) None of these
Q.7) √(?) + 17 = √961
a) 169
b) 196
c)188
d) 140
e) None of these
Q.8) √(? ) x √3136 = 2184
a) 1521
b) 1681
c) 1444
d) 1849
e) None of these
Q.9)(84)2 ÷ √(?) = 168
a) 1936
b) 1521
c) 1681
d) 1764
e) None of these
10) 1181 + 1520 = (26)²+ (?)²
a) 49
b) 43
c) 47
d) 45
e) None of these
Mandatory for All IPCI Students reply answer…………Thank you
Nobel Peace Prize winner Kailash Satyarthi has been conferred with Harvard University’s prestigious humanitarian award for this year, in recognition of his continuing contribution to the cause of child rights.
The annual award by the prestigious university is given to an individual whose works and deeds have served to improve the quality of lives and have inspired us to greater heights. Satyarthi is the first Indian to have been given this award.
The university said the ‘Harvard Humanitarian of the Year’ has been awarded to Satyarthi for his contributions in the field of child rights and abolition of child slavery.
Satyarthi recently succeeded in getting child protection and welfare-related clauses included in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of the United Nations, which aim to end slavery, trafficking, forced labour and violence.
“I humbly accept the award on behalf of millions of left out children, for whose rights we strive to work for. Let us all pledge together to eradicate child slavery from the world,” the social activist said in his acceptance speech yesterday.
“Even developed countries, including the Unites States, have hundreds of slaves who are forced into labour, pushed into sex trade or trafficked into domestic labour. Undocumented immigrants, people in the margins of the society are pulled into a circuit of slavery,” he said.
Each year the Harvard Foundation presents the Humanitarian Award to people whose work and deeds have served to improve the society and inspire people to achieve greater heights.
In past this award has been conferred upon luminaries such as Martin Luther King Sr, Secretaries-General of the United Nations: Kofi Annan, Boutros Boutros-Ghali, Javier Perez de Cuellar, and Ban Ki-moon; Nobel laureates: Jose Ramos-Horta, Bishop Desmond Tutu, John Hume, and Elie Wiesel; Ethel Kennedy, R C Gorman, artist and ThorbjornJagland, head of the Nobel Peace Prize committee, to name a few.
September to February marks the season of MBA Entrance Exams in Indian Education industry. This is the time where India’s top B-Schools try to pick the best candidates for their MBA programs via an extensive selection procedure, generally consisting of a written MCQ test followed by essay writing and a GD/PI session. With different institutes conducting their own tests, keeping track of all different MBA entrance exams has become quite a task. To help you and many other aspirants with preparation for their dream B school debut, we have compiled a comprehensive list of top 8 MBA Entrance Examinations in India.
CAT – Common Entrance Test
CAT is often considered the ‘holy grail’ of MBA entrance exams. Held annually in the month of October or November; the CAT enables aspirants to seek admission to all postgraduate management courses in all the Indian Institute of Management (IIMs). In addition to this, several other premium management institutes (165 to be exact), accept CAT scores for admission purposes, making it the most important MBA Entrance test in India. As per rough estimates, more than 2 Lakh aspirants appear for CAT annually every year.
Eligibility: Any graduate with minimum 50 percent or equivalent CGPA score can appear for CAT.
Application cost: The application form and information bulletin are available for Rs 1600.
Exam Pattern: CAT examination is conducted in two main phases, the first being a computerized written based test followed by a GD/PI round. The written examination covers Quantitative Ability, Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning as well as Verbal and Reading Comprehension. The total duration of written test of 180 minutes, i.e. 1 hour for each aforementioned sections. Another prominent change in the CAT test pattern has been introduction of non MCQ questions, which need to be typed in the space given as part of the digital test paper. Candidates will also be allowed to use ‘basic on-screen calculator’ for calculation purposes. Based upon the final score of written test, candidates are shortlisted for a Personal Interview round by respective IIM. Several other institutes have Group Discussions as part of their selection procedure as well.
For information visit their website: www.catiim.in
XAT – Xaviers Admission Test
Conducted by XLRI, XAT is one of the oldest management entrance tests in India. XLRI annually conducts XAT in January across 33 major cities in India. More than 70 odd B schools accept XAT scores as its primary admission criteria along with personalized GD/PI rounds.
Eligibility: Any person with Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline from a recognized university is eligible to appear for XAT.
Exam Pattern: XAT examination consists of an MCQ format covering four main sections i.e. ”Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VA)’, ”Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation (QA)’ and ”Analytical Reasoning and Decision Making Ability (AR)’ and ‘General Awareness’. Apart from this, candidate also has to take up essay writing test. On basis of the merit score of XAT candidates are called in for personal interview or group discussions.
For information visit their website: www.xlri.net.in
MAT – Management Aptitude Test
Conducted by AIMA (All India Management Association); MAT is a credible entrance examination, which can be taken up by candidates four times in one year. MAT scores are widely accepted by several business schools and associate universities across India for selection procedure, making it one of the most popular management entrance exams in the country.
Eligibility: Any person with Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline from a recognized university is eligible to appear for MAT.
Exam Pattern: One of the key reasons for the popularity of MAT is its exam pattern. It gives candidates the choice of either appearing for an offline test or an online one depending upon the feasibility. MAT tests b-school aspirants in five main subjects i.e. Language Comprehension, Mathematical Skills, Data Analysis, Intelligence & Critical Reasoning and Indian & Global Environment Section.
For information visit their website: www.aima-ind.org
SNAP – Symbiosis National Aptitude Test
Symbiosis International University is one of the most well recognized private B schools in India. Over the years, it has carved a niche for itself by offering unique and rare MBA specializations to aspirants. SNAP is the national level aptitude test conducted for admission to all Post Graduate Management Programs offered by Symbiosis.
Eligibility: Any graduate with minimum 50 percent or equivalent CGPA score can appear for CAT.
Exam Pattern: SNAP is an objective styled MCQ test conducted in December every year. The syllabus consists mostly from four major topics namely, General English, Quantative Aptitude, General Awareness, Logical & Analytical Reasoning. Written exam also attracts 25 percent negative marking for every wrong answer.
• Form Available from: August
• Last day to Submit form: November
• Exam Date: December
For information visit their website: www.snaptest.org
NMAT – Narsee Monjee Management Aptitude Test
NMAT is the MBA entrance exam for securing admission to NMIMS. NMIMS (Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies) is a Mumbai based deemed university, which offers various management courses in different specializations. Run by Narsee Monjee Educational Trust, NMIMS has acquired quite a cult status among aspirants looking for executive or part-time MBA programs.
Eligibility: Any graduate with minimum 50 percent or equivalent CGPA score can appear for NMAT.
Exam Pattern: NMAT is a MCQ based test which is conducted over the period of two hours. The test covers topics like Language Skills; Quantitative Skills, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency; and Logical Reasoning. A merit list is prepared on basis of the score of the written examination and candidates are shortlisted for the GD/PI round based upon that. Another significant factor that is considered in the selection of candidates is the work experience, in case of executive MBA programs.
• Form Available from: Jul 2, 2015 to Oct 5, 2015
• Last day to Submit form: Oct 19, 2015
• Exam Date: Oct 6 – Dec 19, 2015
For information visit their website: www.nmims.edu
CMAT – Common Management Admission Test
CMAT is a national level entrance examination conducted by the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) for admissions to post graduate management programs offered by institutes accredited by the council. Until last year, AICTE use to conduct CMAT twice a year, from Academic Year 2016-17, the test will be conducted only once, i.e. January of every year.
Eligibility: Any graduate with minimum 50 percent or equivalent CGPA score can appear for CMAT.
Exam Pattern: CMAT is an online test with 100 objective type questions, which are to be answered in total time duration of 180 minutes. CMAT exam paper includes 25 questions from four main sections i.e., Quantitative Techniques & Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning, Language Comprehension and General Awareness. With total 400 marks, each right answer earns candidate 4 marks, whereas 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.
• Form Available from: November
• Last day to Submit form: January
• Exam Date: Feb 19 – February
For information visit their website: http://www.aicte-cmat.in
IIFT – Indian Institute of Foreign Trade MBA Entrance Test
Indian Institute of Foreign Trade is one of the top B schools in India. IIFT offers MBA in International Business, which is one of the most sought after program as far as management aspirants in India is concerned. MBA-IB is aimed at developing capable cadre of business managers who can effectively handle multinational corporations in global setup. IIFT conducts its annual MBA entrance examination in November every year for admissions to IIFT Delhi and Kolkata campuses.
Eligibility: Any person with Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline from a recognized university is eligible to appear for IIFT MBA Test.
Application Cost: Application cost for IIFT MBA Entrance Test.
Test Pattern: IIFT conducts its own entrance examination for MBA International Business Program; it is covers a written test, essay writing test and a GD/PI round. The test paper covers diverse topics like English Comprehension, General Knowledge & Awareness, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Analysis.
For more information visit: www.iift.edu
MH-CET – Maharashtra Common Entrance Test
As the name suggest, MH-CET is the main management entrance test for admission to the Two-year Full Time Post Graduate Degree Courses in MBA/MMS and PGDBM/PGDM in Government, University Managed, University Departments and Unaided Institutes in the state of Maharashtra. Eligibility: Any graduate with minimum 50 percent or equivalent CGPA score can appear for MH-CET.
Exam Pattern: MH-CET is a computerized test objective test with multiple choice questions. The questions range from different subjects like Verbal ability, Reading comprehension, Quantitative analysis, Data interpretation, Data sufficiency, Analytical reasoning, Verbal reasoning and Non-verbal reasoning. Total number of questions in the test is 200, which are to be answered in 150 minutes. There is no negative marking in MH-CET.
For more information visit: http://www.dtemaharashtra.gov.in
Keyboard is the most common and very popular input device which helps in inputting data to the computer. The layout of the keyboard is like that of traditional typewriter, although there are some additional keys provided for performing additional functions.
Keyboards are of two sizes 84 keys or 101/102 keys, but now keyboards with 104 keys or 108 keys are also available for Windows and Internet.
The keys on the keyboard are as follows:
Typing Keys: These keys include the letter keys (A-Z) and digit keys (0-9) which generally give same layout as that of typewriters.
Numeric Keypad: It is used to enter numeric data or cursor movement. Generally, it consists of a set of 17 keys that are laid out in the same configuration used by most adding machines and calculators.
Function Keys: The twelve function keys are present on the keyboard which are arranged in a row at the top of the keyboard. Each function key has unique meaning and is used for some specific purpose.
Control keys: These keys provide cursor and screen control. It includes four directional arrow keys. Control keys also include Home, End, Insert, Delete, Page Up, Page Down, Control(Ctrl), Alternate(Alt), Escape(Esc).
Toggle Key: A toggle key is used to alternate the input mode of a group of keys on a keyboard. Some examples include Caps Lock, Insert, Num Lock, and Scroll Lock.
Modifier Key: a modifier key is a special key (or combination) on a computer keyboard that temporarily modifies the normal action of another key when pressed together. the Alt, Ctrl, and Shift keys are modifier keys
Special Purpose Keys: Keyboard also contains some special purpose keys such as Enter, Space bar, Tab, Multimedia and Print Screen.
Question Bank for Computer IBPS – P.O(Main) Exam
As IBPS PO Mains 2015 Exam is coming closer day by day, it is important to maintain your confidence level and focus on your goal. In Mains exam, Computer section contains total 40 questions and it is expected that 15 or 15 + questions attempt to right. IPCI provides Practice Book for Computer Awareness. Click here
Q.1) Which of the following is an Object Oriented Programming Language?
(1) C
(2) Java
(3) C++
(4) Both 2 and 1
(5) None of these
Q.2) MICR is exclusively used in ___________
(1) Libraries
(2) Super markets
(3) Stock markets
(4) Banking Industry
(5)None of these
Q.3) Which of the following is an audio input device?
(1) Microphone
(2) Webcam
(3) MIDI keyboard
(4) Only 1 & 3
(5) None of these
Q.4) Digital Camera is an?
(1) Input Device
(2) Output Device
(3) Storage Device
(4) Controller Device
(5) None of these
Q.5) The internet service that provides a multimedia interface to available resources is called __________
(1) FTP
(2) World Wide Web
(3) Telnet
(4) VPN
(5) None of these
Q.6) What is the short-cut key to display save -as dialog box in MS-Word?
(1) F1
(2) Alt + F1
(3) F12
(4) F5
(5) None of these
Q.7) Which of the following is not a web browser?
(1) Mozilla
(2) IE
(3) CE
(4) Opera
(5) Safari
Q.8) The backspace key is most often used to?
(1) Delete a character to the right of the cursor
(2) Delete a character to the left of the cursor
(3) Delete a character above the cursor
(4) Delete a character below the cursor
(5) None of these
Full Practice Book Download : Click here
One of India’s greatest opening batsmen Virender Sehwag announced on Tuesday that he will be retiring from all forms of international cricket and Indian Premier League (IPL). Sehwag, celebrating 37th birthday today, had already hinted about his imminent retirement at a function in Dubai yesterday and he took barely a few hours to make it official.
BRICS partners to invest in its flagship programmes including ‘Make in India’ and ‘Skill India’ while making a strong pitch for removal of structural impediments for increasing trade engagement amongst members of the group.
External affairs minister Sushma Swaraj, while speaking at a meeting of BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) ministers of industries, said the government has laid down a clear roadmap for lowering corporate taxes and that there is huge opportunities in India for trade and investment.
Shortcut Keys of MS-Excel:-
Key———————— Description
F2 ————————-Edit the selected cell
F5 ————————-Go to a specific cell
F7 ————————-Spell check selected text and/or document
F11————————Create chart
Ctrl + Shift + ;——–Enter the current time
Ctrl + ; ——————Enter the current date
Shift + F3 ————–Open the Excel formula window
Shift + F5 ————–Bring up search box.
Ctrl + A —————–Select all contents of the worksheet
Ctrl + B —————–Bold highlighted selection
Ctrl + I ——————Italic highlighted selection
Ctrl + U —————–Underline highlighted selection
Ctrl + P —————–Bring up the print dialog box to begin printing
Ctrl + Z —————–Undo last action
Ctrl + F9 —————Minimise current workbook
Ctrl + F10 ————-Maximise currently selected workbook
Ctrl + F6 ————–Switch between open workbooks/window
Ctrl + page up ——Move between Excel worksheet in the same Excel document.
Ctrl + Page Down–Move between Excel worksheets in the same Excel document
Ctrl + Tab ————Move between two or more opennExcel files
Alt + = —————–Create a formula to sum all of the above cells
Ctrl + ’——————Insert the value of the above cell into cell currently selected.
Ctrl + Arrow key–Move to next section to text
Ctrl + Space ———Select entire column
Shift + Space——–Select entire row
Fundamentals of the Computer :
1. Hardware and Software
2. Memory and Memory Units
3. Number System
2. Internet
3. Microsoft Office (MS-Office)
4. Networking
5. DBMS (Database Management System)
6. Programming Languages
7. Full Forms/Abbreviations and Important Terms
8. Shortcut Keys
9. Miscellaneous (Latest in Computers and Mobile Technology)
IDFC Bank Limited, which started its operations on 1 October 2015, is an Indian Banking company with headquarters in Mumbai that forms a part of IDFC, an integrated infrastructure finance company. IDFC Bank was granted a universal banking license in July 2015 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). IDFC was incorporated on 30 January 1997. It founded a non-operative financial holding company (NOFHC) in 2014 to manage its five subsidiaries IDFC Bank, IDFC MF, IDFC Alternatives, IDFC IDF & IDFC Securities to conform with RBI guidelines.
Directions (Q.1 to 5) In each of the following questions a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces.
Q.1) 4, 9, 13, 22, 35, ——
(1) 57
(2) 70
(3) 63
(4) 75
(5) None of these
Q.2) 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, ——
(1) 43
(2) 47
(3) 51
(4) 53
(5) None of these
Q.3) 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, ——
(1) 513
(2) 511
(3) 517
(4) 523
(5) None of these
Q.4) 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ——
(1) 49
(2) 51
(3) 52
(4) 53
(5) None of these
Q.5) 9, 12, 11, 14, 13, ——, 15
(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 10
(4) 17
(5) None of these
Directions: (Q.6 to 10) In each of the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find the wrong term.
Q.6) 125, 126, 124, 127, 123, 129
(1) 123
(2) 124
(3) 126
(4) 127
(5) 129
Q.7) 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834
(1) 26
(2) 74
(3) 218
(4) 654
(5) 1946
Q.8) 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91
(1) 31
(2) 15
(3) 56
(4) 91
(5) 2
Q.9) 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511
(1) 39
(2) 15
(3) 7
(4) 63
(5) 127
Q.10) 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150
(1) 72
(2) 90
(3) 110
(4) 132
(5) 150
Answer:
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (5)
Who’s who
Abdul Ghaffar Khan (1980- 1988) Also called “Frontier Gandhi” because he organized the people of the north-west Frontier Province(NWFP) of undivided India (now merged with Pakistan) on Gandhian principles. He was a staunch Congress man who called himself a solider of the freedom struggle. His admirers called him Badshah Khan. He was awarded as Bharat Ratna in 1987.
Arundhati Roy (b.1960) Noted Indian writer, environmentalist and social activist. She became first Indian to win Booker Prize for her book, The God of Small Things. She was awarded the Sydney Peace Prize in 2004.
Abdul Rehman Tunku (1903- 73) The Malaysian statesman, and the first prime minister, who negotiated with the British for the independence of Malaysia.
Abraham Lincoln (1809-65) The 16th president of USA, who succeeded in abolishing slavery. He was re-elected as president in 1864 and assassinated by John Wilkes Booth in 1865.
Abu-Bakr ( AD 573- 634) Abu-Bakr, a leading general of prophet Mohammed, was the first Caliph of the Muslim empire and ruled from AD 632. He made Islam a political and military force in Arabia.
Abul Fazal (1561- 1602) The author of Ain-i- Akbari and Akbarnama. He was the celebrated Mughal court poet, and prime minister during Akbar’s reign.
Adolf Hitler (1889- 1945) The Austria- Born German dictator who influenced the course of history in the 20th Century. He served in the German army in World War I. He later founded the Nazi party and become Chancellor in 1933.
In competitive exam English question contain two parts:
(I) General English Knowledge:
In examination general question based on understanding power of English Knowledge like as essay, paragraph, comprehension and fill in the blank. In this section has no any grammatical rule to apply to solve questions and most of examination half of question contain general English knowledge.
-Vocabulary means (Synonyms & antonyms)
-Sentence formation, rearrangements & completion
-Passage, Comprehension and Paragraph
-Close test & fill in the Blank
(II) English Grammar Knowledge
In this section grammatical question are asked, grammatical rule are used to solve the question. The topics covered in this section are:
-Article
-Noun
-Pronoun
-Verb
–Adjective
-Adverb
-Preposition
-Conjunction
-Interjection and
-Superfluous
The relationship with the bank gets defined by the nature of the product / service availed by the customer. Some of these are described below:
Bank as Debtor:
This is the normal relationship of a person who has an account with the bank. The moment he deposits money in the account, he becomes a creditor of the bank; the bank will be his debtor for the amount lying in his account.
Once the bank has the money, it can use the money the way it chooses. The depositor cannot direct the bank to use it in any specific manner. Similarly, the depositor cannot
ask for return of the same currency notes / coins that he deposited.
Bank as Creditor:
When a customer takes a loan from the bank, he becomes the borrower. The bank will be his creditor. The terms for the loan will be as incorporated in the loan agreement executed between the parties.
Various forms of creating the security.
Bank as Bailee:
When the customer deposits valuables or documents with the bank, the bank becomes a bailee of those items. The customer is the bailer. As provided in the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the bailer is responsible to the bailee for any losses that arise on account of the bailer’s negligence.
Bank as Agent:
When a customer deposits a cheque into his account, the bank will send it for clearing. The bank, in this role, is an agent of the customer. The customer is the principal. Similarly, the bank becomes an agent when the customer leaves various standing instructions for payments with the bank.
It is the duty of the agent to follow the instructions given by the principal. The relationship terminates either when the principal gives notice of such termination, or in the event of death, insolvency or lunacy of the principal.
Bank as Lessor:
When a customer opts for a safe deposit locker with a bank, he is effectively leasing the locker. He is a lessee, the bank is the lessor. The relationship lasts so long as the lessee keeps paying the prescribed charges. The lessor is responsible for ensuring minimum standards of security to ensure the safety of the items deposited in the locker. However, it will be liable for loss only if it is negligent in any manner. It can also insist on the procedures to be followed for using the locker.
Bank as Executor / Trustee:
Banks have their Executor and Trustee department, who can be appointed for handling the estate of the customer, after the customer’s death. The person, in his Will, would mention the bank as Executor of the Will. So long as the bank has accepted the prescribed charges from the customer, it cannot refuse to act as such. While performing this role, it has to act as a trustee of the customer’s affairs, and exercise reasonable diligence and care. Companies often appoint bankers as Trustees for their debenture-holders. In such situations, the bank has a role to protect the interest of the debenture-holders. This would normally take the form of ensuring that the security is created, payments are made as promised etc. The company may appoint different trustees for different series of debentures.
MCA Entrance Exam & Top college in India
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IPCI(Indian Public Career Institute) over the year has come to symbolize the true spirit of dedication to the task of maintaining a standard of education for MCA Entrance tests like NIMCET, TANCET, CUSAT, PONDI…MAH-CET, JNU, HCU etc. The Institute received the unstinted co-operation of our experienced faculty team and ground staff, in the arduous task and the results has been a consistent excellence shown by the IPCI’s student. more details: Click here
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National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide system that facilitates individuals, firms and corporate to electronically transfer funds from any bank branch to any individual, firm or corporate having an account with any other bank branch in the country.
In order to issue the instruction, the transfer or should know not only the beneficiary’s bank account no. but also the the IFSC (Indian Financial System Code) of the concerned bank. IFSC is an alpha-numeric code that uniquely identifies a bank-branch participating in the NEFT system. This is a 11 digit code with the first 4 alpha characters representing the bank, and the last 6 numeric characters representing the branch. The 5th character is 0 (zero). IFSC is used by the NEFT system to route the messages to the destination banks / branches.
Once the NEFT instruction has been issued, it will be effected between the concerned banks in the next settlement. During weekdays, between 9am and 7 pm, there are 11 settlements i.e. every hour. On Saturdays, there are 5 hourly settlements between 9am and 1 pm. The beneficiary can expect to get credit on the same day, for the first nine batches on week days (i.e., transactions from 9 am to 5 pm) and the first four batches on Saturdays (i.e., transactions from 9 am to 12 noon). For transactions settled in the last two batches on week days (i.e., transactions settled in the 6 and 7 pm batches) and the last batch on Saturdays(i.e., transactions handled in the 1 pm batch) beneficiaries can expect to get credit either on
the same day or on the next working day morning (depending on the type of facility enjoyed by the beneficiary with his bank).
ACD – Accredited Clients Program
ACTPN – advisory committee for trade policy and negotiations
AEO – Authorised Economic Operator
AFI – Athletics federation of India
AFSPA – Armed forces special powers act
AFSPA – Armed force special Power act
AIIB – Asia infrastructure investment Bank
AIM – Atal innovation mission
AOP – Air operator Permit
BDL – Bharat Dynamic Limited
BIFR – Bureau for industrial and financial reconstruction
BRC – Bank Realization Certificate
CAGR – compound annual growth rate
CARE – crew model atmospheric re-entry experiment
CCEA – cabinet committee on economic affairs
CCEA – cabinet committee on Economic Affairs
CCI – competitive commission of India
CCP – Custom Clearance Permit
CCTNS – Crime and criminal tracking network system
CEIB – Central economic Intelligence Bureau
CPCB – Central pollution Promotion Board
CPGRAMS – centralized public grievance and monitoring system
CRZ – Coastal regulatory zone
CSS – central sponsor schemes
DAC– Defence acquisition council
DAVP – directorate of audio visual publicity
DBT – Direct benefit transfer
DBTL – direct benefit transfer of LPG
DCCO – data of commencement of commercial operations
DGFT – Director General of Foreign Trade
DIAL – delhi international airport limited
DIPP – department of industrial policy & promotion
ECB – External commercial borrowings
ECIL – Electronic Corporation of India Limited
Eco Soc – Economic Social Council
EPIC – electro photo identity card
ETF – Exchange Traded Fund
EZs – Exclusion Zones
FFFAI – federation of freight forward association of India
FIBA – federation of international basket ball association
FIEO -federation of Indian exports Organisation
FIPB – Foreign investment promotion board
FIPB – Foreign Investment Promotion Board
FIU – Financial intelligence units
FMC – Forward Market Commission
FPIs – Foreign Portfolio Investors.
FPIs – Foreign portfolio investors
FRBM – Fiscal responsibility and budget management
FRP – Fair Price Remunerative
FTAAP – Free trade area for Asia-pacific
GAAR – General anti avoidance rule
GCTOC – Gujarat Control Of Terrorism and organised crime
GIFT – Gujarat international Finance tech-city
GIIC – Guizhou maritime silkroad international investment corporation
GMS – Gold monetized scheme
IAMAI – Internet and mobile assocaition of india
ICBM – Intercontinental ballistic missile
IEDs – improvised Explosive Devices
IFSC – international finance Service Centre
IGMDP – integrated Guided Missile Development Programme
IMEI – international mobile equipment identity
INDCs – Intended Nationally Determined Contribution
INSTC – International north south transport corridor
InvITs – Infrastructure Investment Trusts.
IPCC – International panel for climate changes
IREDA – Indian renewable energy development agency
IRNSS – Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
ISSF – international shooting sport federation
ITR – Income Tax Returns.
JAM – jandhan yojana aadhaar mobile number
LARR – land acquisition rehabilitation and resettlement
LCA – light combat aircraft
LEA – loss of ecology authority
MAI – Market Access Initiative
MAT – Minimum Alternate Tax
MEIS – Merchandise exports from India scheme
MEIS – Merchandise Export from India Scheme
MIAL – Mumbai international airport limited
MII – MAKE in INDIA
MPC – Monetary policy committee
MSP – Minimum support price
MUDRA – multi units development and refinance agency
NERPAP– National Electoral Roll Purification and Authentication Programme
NALSA – National Legal Services Authority
NASSCOM – National Association Of Software and Services Companies
NASSCOM – National Association of Software & Services companies
NBT – National Book Trust
NDB – new development bank
NDLM – National digital literacy mission
NDRF – National disaster response fund
NFC – near field communication
NFE – Net Foreign Exchange
NFTP – New Foreign trade policy
NGT– national green tribunal
NIIF – national investment infrastructure fund
NIIF – National Investment and Infrastructure fund
NJAC – national judicial appointment commission
NMDA – national disaster management act
NOFNP – National optic fiber network programme
NPCI – National payment commission of India
NRI – Nonresident Indian
NSFR – Net stable funding ration
NTCA – National tiger conservation authority
OCI – Overseas citizens of India
OMCs – Oil marketing companies
OPCW – Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
OROP – One Rank One Pension
PAT – Profit After Tax
PCI – Paraolympic committee of India
PDMA – public debt management act
PHWRs – Pressurised heavy water reactors
PIO – person of Indian origin
PIT – Prohibition of insider trading
PMG – project monitoring group
POTA – prevention of terrorism Act
PSKs – Pass port seva Kendra
PSLCs – Priority sector lending certificates
QIP – Qualified intuitional placement
REITs – Real Estate Investment Trusts
RFA – Red Flag Account
RNI – Registate of newspapers of India
RPA – Rupee payment Area
RRAI – railway regulatory authority of India
SaaS – Software as a Service
SAC – Space Application Centre
SAI – sports authority of India
SAT– Securities Appellate Tribunal
SDRF – state disaster response fund
SEIS – Services exports from India scheme
SEIS – Service export from India Scheme
SETU – self employment and talent utilization
SLACC – sustainable livelihoods and adaption to climate change
SPV – special purpose vehicles
STC – State Trading corporation
STPs – sewage treatment plants
SWFs – Sovereign Wealth Funds
TADA – Terrorist and disruptive activities act
TFA – Trade Facilitation Agreement
TPO – Trade Promotion Organization
TRAI – telecom regulatory authority of india
TRANSLOC – Transport logistic corporation of India
TReDS – Trade Receivables Discounting System
UAC – Unit Approval Committee
UCC– Union carbide corporation
ULFA – United liberation front of ASOM
UPSI – Unpublished price sensitive information
VSAT – very small aperture terminal
WCO – World Custom Organization
WGEEP – Western Ghats ecology expert
Banking Channels, all banking services were offered from the bank branches.
Automated Teller Machines:(ATMs) made it possible for customers to handle their transactions at multiple ATM locations across the country.
Tele-banking: supported by call centers and automated messaging made 37 it convenient for customers to handle many services from their home.
E-banking: (through the internet) Banking online or by phone allows you to make banking transactions such as transferring money, paying a bill, checking your balance or setting up a regular payment on your bank or building society’s secure website.
M-banking: (through mobile phones) have added another chapter of banking convenience.
Thus, with the aid of technology, the service offering of banks and convenience of customers.
I. Demand Deposit: – Customer can withdraw or deposit the amount as per requirement is known as demand deposit. For example: – Saving account & Saving Account
Saving Account: – Saving accounts are used for saving purpose by general people. Bank pay interest on the deposited amount, and limited transaction is allowed to the customer.
Current Account: – Current Account is used for business purpose; bank does not give any interest rate on the amount deposited in the current account. Unlimited transaction is allowed to the customer.
II. Time Deposit: – The amounts deposited for particular period of time are called time deposit. These deposits are repayable after the maturity of time. For example:-Recurring account, fixed deposit, Pension Deposit account and Cash Certificate.
Fixed Deposit Account: The amount is deposited for a certain period of time as per the bank. Generally the rate of interest is high and it cannot be matured before the maturity period.
Recurring account: – Recurring is opened by those customers who want to save regularly and for a certain period of time, minimum period of recurring account is 6months and maximum is 10years.
Minor Accounts: A minor is a person who has not attained legal age of 18 years. As per the contract Act, a minor cannot enter into a contract but as per negotiable instrument act, a minor can draw, negotiate endorse and receive payment on a negotiable instrument so as to bind all the persons expect him.
Top Colleges Under CAT
| Apart from the present 13 IIMs, the Government has decided to open six new IIMs, one each in Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Bihar, Odisha, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh. CAT will also include the Registration option for these new IIMs. Other prominent B- Schools (not in any particular order) that accept CAT scores are: |
Ministry of Urban Development approved the first batch of state level Action Plans under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT). In this context, consider the following statements:
I. The State Annual Action Plans were cleared for 89 cities in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan.
II. AMRUT aims at enabling water supply as per the norm and providing water supply and sewerage connections to all urban households.
The MBA colleges in Mumbai provide globally recognized MBA programs. With a great track record of many years, the quality of teaching as provided by the Mumbai MBA colleges is unmatched. Some of the excellent students with MBA degree are produced every year by the MBA institutes in Mumbai. Here is a list of various MBA programs offered by the MBA colleges in Mumbai. If you are looking forward to seek admission to the institutes, you can choose from the following list of programs:
List of Top MBA Colleges in Mumbai | |||
|---|---|---|---|
| College Name | Address | Contact Details | Website |
| S.P.Jain Institute of Management & Research | Munshi Nagar, Dadabhai Road, Andheri West Mumbai- 400058 | 91-22-2623 7454
spjicom@spjimr.org | www.spjimr.org |
| NMIMS University | V.L. Mehta Road , Vile Parle west mumbai-400056 | 91 – 22 – 2613 4577 / 2618 3688
enquiry@nmims.edu | www.nmims.edu |
| Jamna lal Bajaj Institue of Management Studies | Jamnalal Bajaj Institue of Management Studies Backbay Reclamation Mumbai India nil 400020 | 022-22024133/4118/ 5153
director@jbims.edu | www.jbims.edu |
| Welingkar Institute of Management Development and Research | L. Napoo Road Near Matunga (Central Rly.) Mumbai-400019 Fax-91-22-24097824 | 91-22-24178300 | www.welingker.org |
| KJ Somaiya Institute of Management Studies and Research | Vidyanagar Vidyavihar Mumbai -400077, Fax- 91-022-2515 721920 | 022- 6644 9304
ssharma@simsr.somaiya.edu/ info@simsr.somaiya.edu | www.simsr.somaiya.edu |
| Tata Institute of Social Science | Tata Institute Of Social Science Post Box No – 8313, Deonar Mumbai- 400088, Fax-91-22-25525070 | 91-22-25525000
acadsec@tiss.edu | www.tiss.edu |
| MET Asian Management Development Centre | MET Complex Bandra Reclamation, Bandra (West) Mumbai- 400050, Fax- 022 -26440155 | 022 – 2644 0446
communications@met.edu | www.met.edu |
| Garodia School of Professional Studies | 5th Floor Plot No. 153, Garodia Nagar, Ghatkopar East Mumbai-400077 | 022 -25065457, 25060777
gsps@garodia.com | www.gspsinfo.com |
| M.E.S. Humera Khan Institute of Management Studies & Research | H.K. Campus, Pratiksha Nagar, Adj. Municipal School Oshiwara, Jogeshwari (W) Mumbai- 400102, Fax- 022-26770095 | 022-26774639, 022-26774588
admin@hkcollege.ac.in | www.hkcollege.ac.in |
| Chetana s RK Institute Of Management and Research | Survey No. 341, Govt. Colony, Bandra – East, Mumbai -400051, Fax-91- 22- 26406172 | 91-22-26513346, 26516643
info@crkimr.in | www.crkimr.in |
| GNVS Institute of Management | GTB Nagar, Sion Koliwada (E), GTB Nagar Railway Stn.(E) , Mumbai – 400037, Fax- 91-022-24030054 | 91 81089 79137, 98201 02938
gnvsiom@gmail.com | www.gnvsiom.org |
| Guru Nanak Institute of Management Studies | G.N Khalsa College Campus, King’s Circle, Matunga Mumbai 400019, Fax- 022-24043933 | 022-24043928
gnimscom@gnims.com | www.gnims.com |
| Bushra International Institute of Graduate Studies | D.Y Patil Building, Opp MIG Colony, Adarsh Nagar, Worli, Mumbai-400025, Fax- 022-26939465 | 022-24305555
query@biigsindia.com | N.A. |
| Amity Global Business School | Infinity Towers, 4th Floor, Opp. Goregaon Sports Complex, Malda (W) Mind Space Mumbai- 400064 | 09819783213, 09819783214
admissions@amityvarsity.com | N.A. |
| AEFT Dadar College of Management | Dr.Antonio Da Silva College (New Building), Near Kabootar Khana, S.K. Bhole Road, Dadar (W) Mumbai-400 028 | 9224450573
dadsdadar@yahoo.co.in | www.aeftscollege.com |
| M Visvesvaraya Institute Of Management Studies and Research | Road No 7A, Sewree-Wadala Estate, Scheme No-57, Beside Indulal-D. Bhua Marg, Near UIT and VJTI, Wadala West, Mumbai – 400031 | 022 – 24180561, 24180562, 24180563
svims3@gmail.com | www.svims.com |
1. DESTITUTE:
a) Adrift
b) Civilized
c) Affected
d) Affected
e) Miserly
2. CAMARADERIE:
a) Sincerity
b) Retardation
c) Refutation
d) Animosity
e) Parody
3. DISSUADE:
a) Extort
b) Exhort
c) Extol
d) Assuage
e) Intensify
3. EGRESS:
a) Exit
b) Entrance
c) Acceptance
d) Rejection
e) Snake
4. GELID:
a) Hard
b) Warm
c) Soft
d) Cold
e) Medium
5. SUPERCILIOUS:
a) Excited
b) Humility
c) Haughty
d) Below
e) Standard Whimsical
Reply answer by comment…
RBI the apex banking institution, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has a basic function “…to regulate the issue of Bank Notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The RBI, which commenced operations on April 1, 1935, is at the centre of India’s financial system. Hence it is called the Central Bank. It has a fundamental commitment to maintaining the nation’s monetary and financial stability. It started as a private share-holders’ bank – but was nationalized in 1949, under the Reserve Bank (Transfer of Public Ownership) Act, 1948.
RBI is banker to the Central Government, State Governments and Banks. Key functions of RBI Include:
• Monetary policy
• Supervision of Banking companies, Non-banking Finance companies and Financial Sector, Primary Dealers and Credit Information Bureaus
• Regulation of money market, government securities market, foreign exchange market and derivatives linked to these markets.
• Management of foreign currency reserves of the country and its current and capital account.
• Issue and management of currency
• Oversight of payment and settlement systems
• Development of banking sector
• Research and statistics.
While RBI performs these functions, the actual banking needs of individuals, companies and other establishments are met by banking institutions (called commercial banks) and non banking
finance companies that are regulated by RBI.
RBI exercises its supervisory powers over banks under the Banking Companies Act, 1949, which later became Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Core Banking Solutions (CBS): Core Banking Solutions is a buzz word in Indian banking at present, where branches of the bank are connected to a central host and the customers of connected branches can do banking at any breach with core banking facility.
Debit Card: A plastic card issued by banks to customers to withdraw money electronically from their accounts. When you purchase things on the basis of Debit Card the amount due is debited immediately to the account. Many banks issue Debit-Cum-ATM Cards.
E-Banking: E-Banking or electronic banking is a form of banking where funds are transferred through exchange of electronic signals between banks and financial institution and customers ATMs, Credit Cards, Debit Cards, International Cards, Internet Banking and new fund transfer devices like SWIFT, RTGS belong to this category.
Foreign Banks: Banks incorporated outside India but operating in India and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI),. e..g., Barclays Bank, HSBC, Citibank, Standard Chartered Bank, etc.
Initial Public Offering (IPO): An event where a company sells its shares to the public for the first time. The company can be referred to as an IPO for a period of time after the event.
Money Laundering: When a customer uses banking channels to cover up his suspicious and unlawful financial activities, it is called money laundering.
Monetary policy: Monetary policy is usually defined as the central banks policy pertaining to the control of availability, cost and use of money and credit with the help of monetary measures in order to achieve specific goals,
Insider Trading: The illegal use of non-public information about a company to make profitable securities transactions.
JHF Account: Joint Hindu Family Account is account of a firm whose business is carried out by Karta of the Joint family, acting for all the family members.. The family members have common ancestor and generally maintain a common residence and are subject to common social, economic and religious regulations.
Joint Account: When two or more individuals jointly open an account with a bank.
Kiosk Banking: Doing banking from a cubicle from which food, newspapers, tickets etc. are also sold.
Letter of Credit: A document issued by importers bank to its branch or agent abroad authorizing the payment of a specified sum to a person named in Letter of Credit (usually exporter from abroad). Letters of Credit are covered by rules framed under Uniform Customs and Practices of Documentary Credits framed by International Chamber of Commerce in Paris.
Mortgage: Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of offering a security for taking a loan or advance from another. It may be existing or future debt or performance of an agreement which may create monetary obligation for the transferor (mortgagor).
LIBOR: The London Interbank Offered Rate (or LIBOR) is a daily reference rate based on the interest rates at which banks offer to lend unsecured funds to other banks in the London wholesale money market (or interbank market). The LIBOR rate is published daily by the British Banker’s Association and will be slightly higher than the London Interbank Bid Rate (LIBID), the rate at which banks are prepared to accept deposits,
Minor Accounts: A minor is a person who has not attained legal age of 18 years. As per Contract Act a minor cannot enter into a contract but as per Negotiable Instrument Act, a minor can draw, negotiate, endorse, receive payment on a Negotiable Instrument so as to bind all the persons, except himself. In order to boost their deposits many banks open minor accounts with some restrictions.
Abhishek Verma gave India a perfect Independence Day gift by clinching the gold medal in the compound men’s individual section to open their account in the Archery World Cup Stage 3 on Saturday. Having failed as a team in the bronze play-off earlier in the day, the world number 18 was at his best in the individual final as he held on to his lead to wrap up the issue 148-145 against Esmaeil Ebadi of Iran.
India’s recurve mixed pair of Deepika Kumari and Mangal Singh Champia will look to earn the country a second gold when they face their opponents from Mexico on Sunday.
Certificate of Deposit: Certificate of Deposits are negotiable receipts in bearer form which can be freely traded among investors. This is also a money market instrument, issued for a period ranging from 7 days to one year .The minimum deposit amount is Rs. 1 lakh and they are transferable by endorsement and delivery.
Adjustable-Rate Mortgages (ARMS): Also known as variable-rate mortgages. The initial interest rate is usually below that of conventional fixed-rate loans. The interest rate may change over the life of the loan as market conditions change. There is typically a maximum (or ceiling) and a minimum (or floor) defined in the loan agreement. If interest rates rise, so does the loan payment. If interest rates fall, the loan payment may as well.
Arbitrage: Buying a financial instrument in one market in order to sell the same instrument at a higher price in another market.
Bank Ombudsman: Bank Ombudsman is the authority to look into complaints against Banks in the main areas of collection of cheque / bills, issue of demand drafts, non-adherence to prescribed hours of working, failure to honour guarantee / letter of credit commitments, operations in deposit accounts and also in the areas of loans and advances where banks flout directions / instructions of RBI. This Scheme was announced in 1995 and is functioning with new guidelines from 2007. This scheme covers all scheduled banks, the RRBs and co-operative banks.
Bancassurance: Bancassurance refers to the distribution of insurance products and the insurance policies of insurance companies which may be life policies or non-life policies like home insurance – car insurance, medi-policies and others, by banks as corporate agents through their branches located in different parts of the country by charging a fee.
Anytime/Anywhere Banking: With introduction of ATMs, Tele-Banking and internet banking, customers can conduct their business anytime of the day and night. The ‘Banking Hours’ is not a constraint for transacting banking business.
Bank Ombudsman: Bank Ombudsman is the authority to look into complaints against Banks in the main areas of collection of cheque / bills, issue of demand drafts, non-adherence to prescribed hours of working, failure to honour guarantee / letter of credit commitments, operations in deposit accounts and also in the areas of loans and advances where banks flout directions / instructions of RBI. This Scheme was announced in 1995 and is functioning with new guidelines from 2007. This scheme covers all scheduled banks, the RRBs and co-operative banks.
ATM: ATMs are Automatic Teller Machines, which do the job of a teller in a bank through Computer Network. ATMs are located on the branch premises or off branch premises. ATMs are useful to dispense cash, receive cash, accept cheques, give balances in the accounts and also give mini-statements to the customers.
Basis Point: One hundredth of 1%. A measure normally used in the statement of interest rate e.g., a change from 5.75% to 5.81% is a change of 6 basis points. Bear Markets: Unfavorable markets associated with falling prices and investor pessimism.
Blue Chips: Blue chips are unsurpassed in quality and have a long and stable record of earnings and dividends. They are issued by large and well-established firms that have impeccable financial credentials.
Call Money: Call money is the borrowing or lending of funds for 1 day. Where money is borrowed or lend for period between 2 days and 14 days it is known as ‘Notice Money’.
Cheque Truncation: Cheque truncation truncates or stops the flow of cheques through the banking system. Generally truncation takes place at the collecting branch, which sends the electronic image of the cheques to the paying branch through the clearing house and stores the paper cheques with it.
Credit Rating: An assessment of the likelihood of an individual or business being able to meet its financial obligations. Credit ratings are provided by credit agencies or rating agencies to verify the financial strength of the issuer for investors. E.g. CRISIL, ICRA, S&P.
Gross Domestic product (GDP): The total of market value of the finished goods and services produced in a country in a given year. Comprising of three sectors: Agriculture, Industry and Services.
Gross National Product(GNP): The total market value of finished goods and services produced in the country in a given year, plus income of domestic residents from investments made abroad, minus income earned by foreigners abroad from the domestic market
Demat Account: Demat Account concept has revolutionized the capital market of India. When a depository company takes paper shares from an investor and converts them in electronic form through the concerned company, it is called Dematerialization of Shares. These converted Share Certificates in Electronic form are kept in a Demat Account by the Depository Company, like a bank keeps money in a deposit account. Investor can withdraw the shares or purchase more shares through this demat Account.
EFT – (Electronic Fund Transfer): EFT is a device to facilitate automatic transmission and processing of messages as well as funds from one bank branch to another bank branch and even from one branch of a bank to a branch of another bank. EFT allows transfer of funds electronically with debit and credit to relative accounts.
Electronic Commerce (E-Commerce): E-Commerce is the paperless commerce where the exchange of business takes place by Electronic means.
The “Combined Defence Services”Examination (CDS) is conducted twice a year by the Union Public Service Commission for recruitment into the Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Indian Air Force Academy. The Notification for the examination is usually released in the months of October and June, and the examinations are conducted in February and November respectively. Only unmarried graduates are eligible to sit for the exam. Successful candidates are admitted into the respective Academies after an interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB).
Click here to download: CDS Previous year English paper
Town Planning
The Harappan culture was distinguished by its system of townplanning on the lines of the grid system – that is streets and lanes cutting across one another almost at right angles thus dividing the city into several rectangular blocks. Harappa, Mohenjodaro and Kalibangan each had its own citadel built on a high podium of mud brick. Below the citadel in each city lay a lower town containing brick houses, which were inhabited by the common people. The large-scale use of burnt bricks in almost all kinds of constructions and the absence of stone buildings are the important characteristics of the Harappan culture. Another remarkable feature was the underground drainage system connecting all houses to the street drains which were covered by stone slabs or bricks.The most important public place of Mohenjodaro is the Great Bath measuring 39 feet length, 23 feet breadth and 8 feet depth. Flights of steps at either end lead to the surface. There are side rooms for changing clothes. The floor of the Bath was made of burnt bricks. Water was drawn from a large well in an adjacent room, and an outlet from one corner of the Bath led to a drain. It must have served as a ritual bathing site. The largest building in Mohenjodaro is a granary measuring 150 feet length and 50 feet breadth. But in the citadel of Harappa we find as many as six granaries.
Economic life
There was a great progress in all spheres of economic activity such as agriculture, industry and crafts and trade. Wheat and barley were the main crops grown besides sesame, mustard and cotton. Surplus grain is stored in granaries. Animals like sheep, goats and buffalo were domesticated. The use of horse is not yet firmly established. A number of other animals were hunted for food including deer. Specialized groups of artisans include goldsmiths, brick makers, stone cutters, weavers, boat-builders and terracotta manufacturers. Bronze and copper vessels are the outstanding examples of the Harappan metal craft. Gold and silver ornaments are found in many places. Pottery
remains plain and in some places red and black painted pottery is found. Beads were manufactured from a wide variety of semi-precious stones. Internal trade was extensive with other parts of India. Foreign trade was mainly conducted with Mesopotamia, Afghanistan and Iran Gold, copper, tin and several semi-precious stones were imported. Main exports were several agricultural products such as wheat, barely, peas, oil seeds and a variety of finished products including cotton goods, pottery, beads, terracotta figures and ivory products. There is much evidence to prove the trade links between the Indus and Sumerian people. Many seals of Indus valley have
been found in Mesopotamia. Trade was of the barter type. The seals and the terracotta models of the Indus valley reveal the use of bullock carts and oxen for land transport and boats and ships for river and sea transport.
Social Life
Much evidence is available to understand the social life of the Harappans. The dress of both men and women consisted of two pieces of cloth, one upper garment and the other lower garment. Beads were worn by men and women. Jewelleries such as bangles, bracelets, fillets, girdles, anklets, ear-rings and fingerrings were worn by women. These ornaments were made of gold, silver, copper, bronze and semi precious stones. The use of cosmetics was common. Various household articles made of pottery, stone, shells, ivory and metal have been found at Mohenjodaro. Spindles, needles, combs, fishhooks, knives are made of copper. Children’s toys include little clay carts. Marbles, balls and dice were used for games. Fishing was a regular occupation while hunting and bull fighting were other pastimes. There were numerous specimens of weapons of war such as axes, spearheads, daggers, bows, arrows made of copper and bronze.
Arts
The Harappan sculpture revealed a high degree of workmanship. Figures of men and women, animals and birds made of terracotta and the carvings on the seals show the degree of proficiency attained by the sculptor. The figure of a dancing girl from Mohenjodaro made of bronze is remarkable for its workmanship. Its right hand rests on the hip, while the left arm, covered with bangles, hangs loosely in a relaxed posture. Two stone statues from Harappa, one representing the back view of a man and the other of a dancer are also specimens of their sculpture. The pottery from Harappa is another specimen of the fine arts of the Indus people. The pots and jars were painted with various designs and colours. Painted pottery is of better quality. The pictorial motifs consisted of geometrical patterns like horizontal lines, circles, leaves, plants and trees. On some pottery pieces we find figures of fish or peacock.
Script
The Harappan script has still to be fully deciphered. The number of signs is between 400 and 600 of which 40 or 60 are basic and the rest are their variants. The script was mostly written from right to left. In a few long seals the boustrophedon method – writing in the reverse direction in alternative lines – was adopted. Parpola and his Scandinavian colleagues came to the conclusion that the language of the Harappans was Dravidian. Agroup of Soviet scholars accepts this view. Other scholars provide different view connecting the Harappan script with that of Brahmi. The mystery of the Harappan script still exists and there is no doubt that the decipherment of Harappan
script will throw much light on this culture.
Religion
From the seals, terracotta figurines and copper tablets we get an idea on the religious life of the Harappans. The chief male deity was Pasupati, (proto-Siva) represented in seals as sitting in a yogic posture with three faces and two horns. He is surrounded by four animals (elephant, tiger, rhino, and buffalo each facing a different direction). Two deer appear on his feet. The chief female deity was the Mother Goddess represented in terracotta figurines. In latter times, Linga worship was prevalent. Trees and animals were also worshipped by the Harappans. They believed in ghosts and evil forces and used amulets as protection against them.
Burial Methods
The cemeteries discovered around the cities like Mohenjodaro, Harappa, Kalibangan, Lothal and Rupar throw light on the burial practices of the Harappans. Complete burial and post-cremation burial were popular at Mohenjodaro. At Lothal the burial pit was lined with burnt bricks indicating the use of coffins. Wooden coffins were also found at Harappa. The practice of pot burials is found at Lothal sometimes with pairs of skeletons. However, there is no clear
evidence for the practice of Sati.
Decline of the Harappan Culture
There is no unanimous view pertaining to the cause for the decline of the Harappan culture. Various theories have been postulated. Natural calamities like recurring floods, drying up of rivers, decreasing fertility of the soil due to excessive exploitation and occasional earthquakes might have caused the decline of the Harappan cities. According to some scholars the final blow was delivered by the invasion of Aryans. The destruction of forts is mentioned in the Rig Veda. Also, the discovery of human skeletons huddled together at Mohenjodaro indicates that the city was invaded by foreigners. The Aryans had superior weapons as well as swift horses which might have enabled them to become masters of this region.
Communist leader Vidya Devi Bhandari was today elected as Nepal’s first woman President by the parliament, weeks after it adopted a new landmark Constitution that declared the country a secular state.
54-year-old Bhandari, the Vice-president of CPN-UML and widow of late general secretary of the party Madan Bhandari, secured 327 votes against 214 votes of her rival veteran Nepali Congress leader Kul Bahadur Gurung.
Directions (Q. 1-20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E), i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
Q.1 One of the problem (A)/ with you (B)/ is that you do not (C)/ come in time. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.2 All the girls students (A)/ of the college are advised (B)/ to sit in the(C)/ girls’ common room. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.3 The majority of the woman (A)/ teachers are persuading (B)/ the principal to consider (C)/ their demands. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.4 He said that (A)/ he always kept in his pocket (B)/ a bundle of one hundred (C)/ rupees notes. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.5 He gave me (A)/ two important informations (B)/ I had been waiting for (C)/ the previous two Month (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.6 The class teacher (A)/ gave him a home work (B)/ and instructed him to do it (C)/ at night. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.7 I saw only (A)/ five police who (B)/ were running after (C)/ the bank robbers. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.8 The wall of this magnificent (A)/ building is (B)/ fifty foot high and its paintings (C)/ are very striking (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.9 Wordsworth’s poetries (A)/ is characterized by his subtle description (B)/ of the beauty and liveliness (C)/ of nature. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.10 When you see his (A)/ offsprings, you can’t (B)/ believe that he is (C)/ above seventy.(D)/ No Error(E)
Q.11 When he returned (A)/ from America, informed me (B)/ that he had come here (C)/ to do an urgent work. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.12 The issues are (A)/ very complex and the problem (B)/ is that they are bound to be obscured (C)/ by these hypocritical politician. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.13 These type of books (A)/ are certainly helpful to the students (B)/ preparing for the banking service(C)/ Examinations. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.14 “I have never seen (A)/ such as lovely spectacles (B)/ in my life”, said (C)/ the passer-by.(D)/ No Error (E)
Q.15 Owing to his heavy engagement, (A)/ he could not write even the two-third (B)/ of the book which (C)/the publication was expected before January. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.16 It is harmful (A)/ to take cupful (B)/ of tea (C)/ five times a day. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.17 The brethrens (A)/ of this locality are always (B)/ at daggers dawn without any (C)/ apparent reason(D)/ No Error (E)
Q.18 The sceneries (A)/ of Kashmir is more beautiful (B)/ than that of (C)/ Darjeeling. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.19 He has ordered (A)/ bricks (B)/ for the proposed (C)/ hotel and bar. (D)/ No Error (E)
Q.20 He does not (A)/ cut paper with (B)/ blade, but (C)/ with scissor. (D)/ No Error (E)
Answer:
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. E 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. D
Explanations:
1. Substitute plural noun problems for problem.
2. Substitute Girl students for girls students.
3. Substitute Women for Woman.
4. Substitute rupee for rupees. (one hundred rupee notes)
5. Substitute information for informations (information is singular uncountable noun and a/an never used before singular uncountable noun).
6. Substitute homework for a home work.
7. Substitute policemen for police ( the police uncountable noun but police man countable noun)
8. Substitute feet for foot (foot of feet are plural).
9. Substitute pieces of poetry or poems for poetries.
10. Substitute offspring for offsprings.
11. Substitute urgent work for an urgent work
12. No error
13. Substitute types for type (these, those, certain etc are adjective its come after plural noun)
14. Substitute spectacle for spectacles (here spectacle means scenes which singular uncountable noun. e.g. what a beautiful spectacle! = what a beautiful sight)
15. Substitute two-thirds for two-third(one-third is singular but two thirds, three-fourths are plural).
16. Substitute cupfuls (plural form) for cupsful (meaning less)
17. Substitute brethren for brethrens (brethren are plural which means brothers)\
18. Substitute scenery for sceneries.
19. Substitute pieces of brick for bricks
20. Substitute scissors for scissor (two part of instruments are always plural)
Singular uncountable noun:- news, information, advice, work, scenery, pottery, imagery, Poetry, stationary etc with all nouns which never used to before a/an and after s/es.
The graph provided information gives the sales of books (in thousand numbers) from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001. Answer the questions based on this bar-graph:
Sales of books (in thousand numbers) from six branches-B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a publishing company in 2000 and 2001
Q.1) total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is:
(a) 250
(b) 310
(c) 435
(d)560
(e)585
Q.2) total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of branch B3 for both the years?
(a) 68.54%
(b)71.11%
(c) 73.17%
(d)75.55%
(e)77.26%
Q.3) what is the average sale of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000?
(a)73
(b)80
(c)83
(d)88
(e)96
Q.4) what is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch B4 for both years ?
(a)2:3
(b)3:5
(c)4:5
(d)5:7
(e)7:9
Q.5)what percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
(a)75%
(b)77.5%
(c)82.5%
(d)85%
(e)87.5%
Explanation:
1.(d) total sales of branches B1,B3 and B5 for both the years (in thousand numbers)=(80+105)+(95+110)+(75+95)=560
2(c) required percentage=[(70+80)/(95+110)*100]%=(150/205*100)%=73.17%
3(b)average sales of all the six branches (in thousand numbers ) for the year 2000=1/6*(80+75+95+85+75+70)=80
4(e) required ratio=(75+65)/(85+95)=140/180=7/9
5(e)average sales(in thousand numbers of branches B1,B3,and B6 in 2000= 1/3*(80+95+70)=245/3
average sales(in thousand numbers of branches B1,B2,and B3 in 2001=1/3*(105+65+110)=280/3
therefore required percentage=[((245/3)/(280/3))*100]%=(245/280*100)%=87.5%
The most frequently asked questions by an aspirant of MBA are about the syllabus for entrance exams. But, there is no set syllabus for MBA Entrance exams. A brief outline of the syllabus for CAT, the most popular MBA entrance exam, can be obtained from the pattern of previous year exams and from the topics included in those exams. CAT test structure includes Quantitative Ability, Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning and Verbal Ability. Similar sections, with some variations, occur in IIFT, NMAT, XAT, MAT, CMAT, CET, SNAP etc
Quantitative Math
Simplification (BODMAS)
Fraction
Approximate
Series
Averages
Ratio and Proportion Age, Partnership
Allegations and Mixtures
Percentages
CI and SI
Profit and Loss
Time and Distance
Boat and stream
Time and Work
Pipe and Cistern
Commercial Maths
DI and DS
Clocks and Calendars
Advance Section Math:
Introduction to Numbers
Number Theory I
Number Theory II
LCM and HCF
Elementary Algebra
Solving Polynomial Equations
Inequalities
Progressions
Functions
Geometry
Coordinate Geometry
Trigonometry
Mensuration
Height and Distance
Permutation and Combination
Probability
Set Theory
The Neolithic period is followed by Chalcolithic (copper-stone) period when copper and bronze came to be used. The new technology of smelting metal ore and crafting metal artifacts is an important development in human civilization. But the use of stone tools was not given up. Some of the micro-lithic tools continued to be essential items. People began to travel for a long distance to obtain metal ores. This led to a network of Chalcolithic cultures
and the Chalcolithic cultures were found in many parts of India Generally, Chalcolithic cultures had grown in river valleys. Most importantly, the Harappan culture is considered as a part of Chalcolithic culture. In South India the river valleys of the Godavari, Krishna, Tungabhadra, Pennar and Kaveri were settled by farming communities during this period. Although they were not using metals in the beginning of the Metal Age, there is evidence of copper and bronze artifacts by the end of second millennium B.C. Several bronze and copper objects, beads, terracotta figurines and pottery were found at Paiyampalli in Tamil Nadu. The Chalcolithic age is followed by Iron Age. Iron is frequently referred to in the Vedas. The Iron Age of the southern peninsula is often related to Megalithic Burials. Megalith means Large Stone. The burial pits were covered with these stones. Such graves are extensively found in South India. Some of the important megalithic sites are Hallur and Maski in Karnataka, Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh and Adichchanallur in Tamil Nadu. Black and red pottery, iron artifacts such as hoes and sickles and small weapons were found in the burial pits.
Balance: the difference between credits and debits in an account
Bank charges: money paid to a bank for the bank’s services etc
Branch: local office or bureau of a bank
Checkbook: book containing detachable checks; chequebook
Check: written order to a bank to pay the stated sum from one’s account; cheque
Credit: money in a bank a/c; sum added to a bank a/c; money lent by a bank
Credit card (plastic) card from a bank authorising the purchasing of goods on credit
Current account: bank a/c from which money may be drawn at any time; checking account
Debit: a sum deducted from a bank account, as for a cheque
Deposit account: bank a/c on which interest is paid; savings account
Fill in: to add written information to a document to make it complete; to fill out
Interest: money paid for the use of money lent – interest rate.
Loan: money lent by a bank etc and that must be repaid with interest.
Overdraft: deficit in a bank account caused by withdrawing more money than is paid in
Pay in: [paid, paid] to deposit or put money in to a bank account
Payee: person to whom money is paid
Paying-in slip small document recording money that you pay in to a bank account
Standing order: an instruction to a bank to make regular payments
Statement: a record of transactions in a bank account
Letter of credit: a letter from a bank authorising a person to draw money from another bank
Bill of lading: list of goods and shipping instructions; waybill
Point of sale. the place where a product is actually sold to the public
A.T.M. Automated Teller Machine; cash dispenser
Banknote: a piece of paper money; bill
Bill a banknote: a piece of paper money
Black market: illegal traffic in officially controlled commodities such as foreign currency
Bureau de change: establishment where currencies of different countries may be exchanged
Cash: coins or bank notes (not cheques); actual money paid as opposed to credit
Cash dispenser: automatic machine from which clients of a bank may withdraw money; ATM
cashier: person dealing with cash transactions in a bank, store etc
Currency: the money in general use or circulation in any country
Exchange rate: the rate at which one currency can be exchanged for another
Foreign exchange: the currency of other countries
Hard currency: currency that will probably not fall in value and is readily accepted
Invest: to put money for profit into business, land etc – investment
Legal tender: currency that cannot legally be refused in payment of a debt
Petty cash: a cash fund for small, everyday expenses
Soft currency: currency that will probably fall in value and is not readily accepted
Speculate: (risky) buying of foreign currency, land etc for rapid gain – speculation
Transaction: a (usually commercial) exchange; a deal – to transact
In IBPS Examination Logical Reasoning consists of question types which test both your mathematical and logical abilities. These questions are there is most of the examinations, and present an interesting challenge to students. In IBPS Examination a situation which question to skip and to solve question in examination.
Q.1) How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ’DEIV’ using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Q.2) If “Star is called Planet” “Planet is called Satellite”, “Satellite is called Earth”, “Earth is called Comet”, then ‘Earth’ is classified under which category?
(1) Galaxy
(2) Comet
(3) Planet
(4) Star
(5) Satellite
Q.3) In a certain code ROPE is written as %57$, DOUBT is written as 35#8* and LIVE is written as’@24$. How is TROUBLE written in that code?
(1) *%5#8@$
(2) *%#58@$
(3) *%5#8@4
(4) *%#58$@
(5) None of these
Q.4) If in the number 589463271 all the odd digits are firs arranged in ascending order and then all the even digit are arranged in ascending order, which digit will be sec and to the right of fifth digit from the right end?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 4
(5) None of these
Q.5) If the letters of the word VERTICAL are arranged alphabetically, how many letters will remain at the same position?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) None of these
Q.6) How many such pairs of letters are there in the won EXAMINATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Q.7) If it is possible to make a three-digit number from th third, the fifth and the sixth digits of the number 30651972 using each digit only once, which is the square of a odd number the last digit of that three-digit number 1 your answer. If no such number can be formed you answer is 4 and if more than one such number can be formed your answer is 8.
(1) 1
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 4
(5) 8
Q.8) If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the third, the sixth, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word PARENTHESIS, using each letter only once, letter of the word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) R
(2) T
(3) S
(4) X
(5) Y
Q.9) Four of the following two are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Iron
(2) Silver
(3) Copper
(4) Mercury
(5) Aluminum
Q.10) In a certain code HUMANITY is written as BNVIZUJO. How is EQUATION written that code?
(1) BVRFUJPQ
(2) BVRFOPJU
(3) BUVJPRFO
(4) BVJURFPO
(5) None of these
Direction (Q. 11-15): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.11) Statements:
Some pens are sticks.
Some sticks are canes.
All canes are scales.
No scale is weight.
Conclusions:
I. Some sticks are scales.
II. No stick is scale.
III. No cane is weight.
(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only either I or II and III follow
(4) All I, II & III follow
(5) None of these
Q.12) Statements:
Some folders are boxes.
Some boxes are bags.
All bags are containers.
Some bags are sacks.
Conclusions:
I. No folder is bag.
II. Some boxes are containers.
III. Some sacks are containers.
(1) Only I & II follow
(2) Only II & III follow
(3) Only I & III follow
(4) All follow
(5) None follows’
Q.13) Statements:
Some insects are pests.
All pests are birds.
No bird is amphibian.
All amphibians are animals.
Conclusions:
I. No animal is bird.
II. Some insects are birds.
III. No pests are amphibians.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II & III follow
(5) None of these
Q.14) Statements:
Some paints are colours.
All colours are solutions.
Some solutions are liquids.
All liquids are solids.
Conclusions:
I. Some paints are solutions.
II. Some colours are liquids.
III. Some solutions are solids.
(1) Only I & II follow
(2) Only II & III follow
(3) All I, II & III follow
(4) None follows
(5) None these
Q.15) Statements:
All locks are keys.
All keys are doors.
Some doors are windows.
Some windows are floors.
Conclusions:
I. Some keys are windows.
II. No floor is door.
III. No lock is window.
(1) None follow
(2) Only I follow
(3) Only I & II follow
(4) Only III follow
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): Below are given two arrangements I & II. The elements in the two arrangements written one below the other are corresponding elements. Study both the arrangements carefully to answer these questions.
I: T $ I E # D R H F @ % J M * D L
II: 5 8 Q 4 A K 3 U 6 W Y 1 7 V 2 9
Q.16) Four of the following are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) *2L
(2) I4#
(3) H6@
(4) EAD
(5) M1%
Q.17) If T8: 51, MV: 7A then FW : ?
(1) 6@
(2) 6%
(3) Y@
(4) YJ
(5) None of these
Q.18) If all the elements in the first half of the arrangement I are replaced by the corresponding elements in arrangement II, which element will be fourth to the left of eighth element from the right in arrangement I?
(1) #
(2) E
(3) 4
(4) A
(5) None of these
Q.19) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangements?
TI$ QA4 # R D ?
(1) H@F
(2) UW6
(3) 36U
(4) RFH
(5) None of these
Q.20) If in arrangement I the order of all the elements is reversed, which element will be third to the left of eleventh from the left end?
(1) F
(2) 6
(3) H
(4) U
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight friends P, R, T, V, W, J, F & K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the right of F and second to the left of W, P & R are not neighbours of W. R is third to the right of K. J is between W & K.
Q.21) Which of the following is the correct position of T with respect to K’s position?
(1) Second to the left
(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Second to the right
(5) None of these
Q.22) Which of the following pairs has the first person to the immediate left of the second person?
(1) RP
(2) FJ
(3) VT
(4) JW
(5) JK
Q.23) Who is to the immediate right of F?
(1) J
(2) P
(3) R
(4) V
(5) None of these
Q.24) Which of the following is the correct position of V?
(1) Second to the left of R
(2) Between T & P
(3) To the immediate right of W
(4) To the immediate left of W
(5) None of these
Q.25. Who is second to the right of J?
(1) F
(2) V
(3) W
(4) P
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 26-80): In these questions the symbols @, #, $,.and © are used with different meanings as follows:
‘A@B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A#B’ means ‘A is either smaller than, or equal to B’.
‘A$B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A*B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
‘A©B’ means ‘A is neither greater nor smaller than B’.
In each question, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two conclusions I & II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.
Give answer (1): if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2): if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) : if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II are true.
Q.26) Statements: H#Q, Q@F, L$F
Conclusions:
I. L$H
II. H#F
Q.27) Statements: J$T, T@V, V#M
Conclusions:
I. T#M
II. J©M
Q.28) Statements: U#D, D@R, R©T
Conclusions:
I. U@R
II. T$D
Q29) Statements: M*L, L$K, K@R
Conclusions:
I. I. M *R
II. M@R
Q.30) Statements: J@N, N©W, W$V
Conclusions:
I. J©V
II. J@W
Directions (Q. 31-35): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1): if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2): if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3): if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4): if the data in both the Statements I and lI are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (e): if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q.31) Who among five boys Abhishek, Rajesh, Karan, Nitin and Vikas, each having different height, is second to the tallest among them?
Statements:
Q.32) How many sons does Anita have?
Statements:
Q.33) What is the code for ‘where’ in the code language?
Statements:
Q.34) How many children are there in the row of children facing North?
Statements:
Q.35) How is Nandini related to Santosh?
Statements:
Directions (Q. 36-38): Use the following information to answer these questions.
‘A + B’ means ‘A is father of B’.
‘A x B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.
‘A *. B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.
‘A – B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.
Q.36) In ‘L-M + K ÷ F’ how is ‘Ferreted to ‘L’?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Nephew
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Q.37) Which of the following expressions means ‘J is son of D’?
(1) D + L × H ÷ J
(2) J ÷ P × D
(3) J ÷ P – D
(4) T – D + J
(5) None of these
Q.38) In ‘H + K × R’, how if ‘R’ related to ‘ H’?
(1) Husband
(2) Brother
(3) Wife
(4) Mother
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 39-40): These questions are based on the following set of numbers.
348 436 652 198 563
Q.39) If the first and the third digit in each number are interchanged, which number will be the smallest?
(1) 348
(2) 436
(3) 652
(4) 198
(5) 563
Q.40) If the first two digits in each number are interchanged and then the newly formed numbers are arranged in descending order, which number will be second?
(1) 348
(2) 436
(3) 652
(4) 198
(5) 563
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ANSWERS
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (5) 6. (2) 7. (5) 8.(1) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (5) 15.(5) 16.(5) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (5) 22. (5) 23.(2) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (2) 31.(4) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (5) 35. (4) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (5)
The World Bank has maintained its growth forecast for India in 2015-16 at 7.5 per cent, while lowering marginally the projection for 2016-17 to 7.8 per cent, and for 2017-18 to 7.9 per cent. The World Bank says India, now the world’s fastest growing economy, is relatively well-positioned to weather the global volatility and even set for a modest acceleration in growth in the years ahead.
The cities of the Harappan Culture had declined by 1500 B.C. Consequently, their economic and administrative system had slowly declined. Around this period, the speakers of Indo-Aryan language, Sanskrit, entered the north-west India from the Indo-Iranian region. Initially they would have come in small numbers through the passes
in the northwestern mountains. Their initial settlements were in the valleys of the north-west and the plains of the Punjab. Later, they moved into Indo-Gangetic plains. As they were mainly a cattlekeeping people, they were mainly in search of pastures. By 6th century B.C., they occupied the whole of North India, which was referred to as Aryavarta. This period between 1500 B.C and 600 B.C may be divided into the Early Vedic Period or Rig Vedic Period (1500 B.C -1000 B.C) and the Later Vedic Period (1000B.C – 600 B.C).
Original Home of the Aryans
The original home of the Aryans is a debatable question and there are several views. Different scholars have identified different regions as the original home of the Aryans. They include the Arctic region, Germany, Central Asia and southern Russia. Bala Gangadhara Tilak argues that the Aryans came from the Arctic region on astronomical calculations. However, the theory of southern Russia appears to be more probable and widely accepted by historians. From there, the Aryans moved to different parts of Asia and Europe. They entered India in about 1500 B.C. and came to be known as Indo-Aryans. They spoke the Indo-Aryan language, Sanskrit.
Vedic Literature
The word ‘Veda’ is derived from the root ‘vid’, which means to know. In other words, the term ‘Veda’ signifies ‘superior knowledge’. The Vedic literature consists of the four Vedas – Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva. The Rig Veda is the earliest of the four Vedas and it consists of 1028 hymns. The hymns were sung in praise of various gods. The Yajur Veda consists of various details of rules to be observed at the time of sacrifice. The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of chanting during sacrifice. It is called the book of chants and the origins of Indian music are traced in it. The Atharva Veda contains details of rituals. Besides the Vedas, there are other sacred works like the Brahmanas, the Upanishads, the Aranyakas and the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata. The Brahmanas are the treatises relating to prayer and sacrificial ceremony. The Upanishads are philosophical texts dealing with topic like the soul, the absolute, the origin of the world and the mysteries of nature. The Aranyakas are called forest books and they deal with mysticism, rites, rituals and sacrifices. The author of Ramayana was Valmiki and that of Mahabharata was Vedavyas.
UPSC Mains Exam related question:
1. The Vedic Literature such as the four Vedas and the Brahmanas and other later Vedic literature.
2. The Rig Vedic polity, society and economy.
3. Religious life of the Rig Vedic people.
4. The changes during the Later Vedic period in the sphere of polity and society.
5. The increasing rites and rituals in the religious life of the Later Vedic people.
Rig Vedic Age or Early Vedic Period (1500 – 1000 B.C.)During the Rig Vedic period, the Aryans were mostly confined to the Indus region. The Rig Veda refers to Saptasindhu or the land of seven rivers. This includes the five rivers of Punjab, namely Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej along with the Indus and Saraswathi. The political, social and cultural life of the Rig Vedic people can be traced from the hymns of the Rig Veda. Political Organization The basic unit of political organization was kula or family. Several families joined together on the basis of their kinship to form a village or grama. The leader of grama was known as gramani. A group of villages constituted a larger unit called visu. It was headed by vishayapati. The highest political unit was called jana or tribe. There were several tribal kingdoms during the Rig Vedic period such as Bharatas, Matsyas, Yadus and Purus. The head of the kingdom was called as rajan or king. The Rig Vedic polity was normally monarchical and the succession was hereditary. The king was assisted by purohita or priest and senani or commander of the army in his administration. There were two popular bodies called the Sabha and Samiti. The former seems to have been a council of elders and the latter, a general assembly of the entire people.
Social Life
The Rig Vedic society was patriarchal. The basic unit of society was family or graham. The head of the family was known as grahapathi. Monogamy was generally practiced while polygamy was prevalent among the royal and noble families. The wife took care of the household and participated in all the major ceremonies. Women were given equal opportunities as men for their spiritual and intellectual development. There were women poets like Apala, Viswavara, Ghosa and Lopamudra during the Rig Vedic period. Women could even attend the popular assemblies. There was no child marriage and the practice of sati was absent. Both men and women wore upper and lower garments made of cotton and wool. A variety of ornaments were used by both men and women. Wheat and barley, milk and its products like curd and ghee, vegetables and fruits were the chief articles of food. The eating of cow’s meat was prohibited since it was a sacred animal. Chariot racing, horse racing, dicing, music and dance were the favorite pastimes. The social divisions were not rigid during the Rig Vedic period as it was in the later Vedic period.
Economic Condition
The Rig Vedic Aryans were pastoral people and their main occupation was cattle rearing. Their wealth was estimated in terms of their cattle. When they permanently settled in North India they began to practice agriculture. With the knowledge and use of iron they were able to clean forests and bring more lands under cultivation. Carpentry was another important profession and the availability of wood from the forests cleared made the profession profitable. Carpenters produced chariots and ploughs. Workers in metal made a variety of articles with copper, bronze and iron. Spinning was another important occupation and cotton and woolen fabrics were made. Goldsmiths were active in making ornaments. The potters made various kinds of vessels for domestic use. Trade was another important economic activity and rivers served as important means of transport. Trade was conducted on barter system. In the later times, gold coins called nishka were used as media of exchange in large transactions.
Religion
The Rig Vedic Aryans worshiped the natural forces like earth, fire, wind, rain and thunder. They personified these natural forces into many gods and worshipped them. The important Rig Vedic gods were Prithvi (Earth), Agni (Fire), Vayu (Wind), Varuna (Rain) and Indra (Thunder). Indra was the most popular among them during the early Vedic period. Next in importance to Indra was Agni who was regarded as an intermediary between the gods and people. Varuna was supposed to be the upholder of the natural order. There were also female gods like Aditi and Ushas. There were no temples and no idol worship during the early Vedic period. Prayers were offered to the gods in the expectation of rewards. Ghee, milk and grain were given as offerings. Elaborate rituals were followed during the worship.
Study the following line-graph and answer the question based on it.
Number of vehicle Manufactured by Two Companies over the Years (Numbers in thousands)
Q.1) What is the difference between the total productions of the two Companies in the given years?
a) 19000
b) 22000
c) 26000
d) 28000
e) 29000
Q.2) What is the difference between the numbers of vehicles manufactured by Company Y in 2000 and 2001?
a) 50000
b) 42000
c) 33000
d) 21000
e) 13000
Q.3) What is the average number of vehicles manufactured by Company X over the given period? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
a) 119333
b) 113666
c) 112778
d) 111223
e) None of these
Q.4) In which of the following years, the difference between the productions of Companies X and Y was the maximum among the given years?
a) 1997
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 2000
e) 2001
Q.5) The production of Company Y in 2000 was approximately what percent of the production of Company X in the same year?
a) 173%
b) 164%
c) 132%
d) 97%
e) 61%
Explanation:
1. (c) : Total production of Company X from 1997 to 2002
= 119000+99000+141000+78000+120000+159000 = 716000
and total production of Company Y from 1997 to 2002
=139000+120000+100000+128000+107000+148000=742000
Difference=742000-716000=26000.
2.(d) : Require difference = 128000-107000 = 21000.
3.(a) : Average number of vehicles manufactured by Company X
= (91/6)* (119000 + 99000 + 141000 + 78000 + 120000 + 159000) = 119333.
4.(d) : The difference between the production of Companies X and Y in various years are.
For 1997 = (139000 – 119000) = 20000;
For 1998 = (120000 – 99000) = 21000;
For 1999 = (141000 – 100000) = 41000;
For 2000 = (128000 – 78000) = 50000;
For 2001 = (120000 – 107000) = 13000;
For 2003 = (159000 – 148000) = 11000;
Clearly, maximum difference was in 2000.
5.(b) : Required percentage = [( 128000/78000)* 100] % = 164 %.
The navies of Sri Lanka and India conducted a joint naval exercise in the sea off Trincomalee in Sri Lanka’s Eastern Province. The joint naval exercise between the two nations was conducted after a gap of 6 years. The exercise was named “Operation Slinex II” and was aimed to develop greater interoperability and rekindle close cooperation between the two navies. It is hoped that Slinex II” will pave way for both navies to rehearse the concept of joint naval operations and enhance skills by gaining expertise through each other’s experience. Since the last joint naval exercise with Sri Lanka was held in 2005, the current operation is a huge step in bridging the gap between the two navies who maintained a close affinity during Sri Lanka’s battle against the extremist outfit LTTE in the north and north eastern waters. It should be here noted that in the recent past, India has been instrumental in maintaining military ties with Sri Lanka by providing various incentives in terms of specialized training. India has trained thousands of Sri Lankan personnel at its military institutions ranging from Counter-insurgency and Jungle Warfare School at Vairengte (Mizoram) to School of Artillery at Devlali (Maharashtra). India has also imparted training to Sri Lankan personnel’s by providing specialized naval courses in gunnery, navigation, communication and anti-submarine warfare. The premier Indian Military Academy at Dehradun has even run special courses to train hundreds of gentlemen cadets from Sri Lanka
John Magufuli of the Chama Cha Mapinduzi (CCM) defeated his closest opponent Edward Lowassa in the Tanzania presidential elections, extending the party’s rule for another five years. The country’s electoral commission announced the results of the polls on Thursday (29 October).
The National Unity Day was observed across India on 31 October 2015 to commemorate the birthday of Sardar Vallabhai Patel. On this occasion of 140th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, PM Narendra Modi flagged off Run for Unity at Rajpath in New Delhi
Q1. The ratio of monthly salaries of two persons, A and B is 8:7. If the salary of A is increased by 20% and that of B by 11%, the new ratio becomes 96 : 77. What is A’s Salary?
a)Rs.800
b)Rs.700
c)Rs.750
d)Cant be determined
e)None of these
Q2.Three persons A, B and C start a business with Rs.12800, Rs.16800 and Rs.9600 respectively. At the end of the year, B received Rs.13,125 as share in total profit. What is the share of Mr. C in the profit?
a)Rs.7850
b)Rs.7550
c)Rs.7500
d)Rs.8500
e)None of these
Q3. The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in a school is 9:7. If the number of boys increases by 40% and that of girls by 20%, what will be the new ratio of boys to girls?
a)3:2
b)2:3
c)4:3
d)3:4
e) None of these
Q4. The ratio of the present ages of A to B is 2:3. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 5:7. What is the present age of A?
a)24 years
b)20 years
c)21 years
d)16 years
e)None of these.
Q5. The total number of Students in a college is 3906. The number of girls is 1638. What is the ratio of boys to girls in the college?
a)18:13
b) 13:18
c)13:19
d)19:13
e)None of these.
Q6. The Total number of students in a school is 31700. If the ratio of boys to the girls in the school is 743:842 respectively, what is the total number of girls in the school?
a)14860
b)16480
c)15340
d)Can’t be determined
e)None of these
Q7. The ratio between Gloria’s and Sara’s present ages is 4:7 respectively, Two years ago the ratio between their ages was 1:2 respectively. What will be the Sara’s age three years hence?
a)17 years
b)14 years
c)11 years
d) 8 years
e) None of these
Q8. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their ages is 16:3. What is the age of the daughter?
a)9 years
b)3 years
c)12 years
d)6 years
e)None of these.
Q9. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 847 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
a)1450
b)1640
c)1500
d)Can’t be determined
e)None of these
Q10. Amits present age is three times Pratibha’s present age and nine-thirteenths of his fathers present age. The sum of the present age of all them is 150 years. What is the difference between Pratibha’s present age and Amit’s Father’s present age?
a)56 years
b)64 years
c)60 years
d)Can’t be determined
e)None of these
Q11. Varun got a monthly increment of 12 percent of Puja’s monthly salary. Puja’s monthly salary is Rs.7800. Varun’s monthly salary before increment was Rs.6400. What amount will he earn in four months after his increment?
a)29344
b)29434
c)28434
d)28344
e)None of these
Q12. The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. The ratio of their ages four years ago was 10:3 respectively. What is the difference between the present age of the man and his son?
a)28 years
b)16 years
c)26 years
d)44 years
e)None of these.
Q13. A particular sum was divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 2:6:7. If the amount received by A was Rs.4908, what was the difference between the amounts received by B and C?
a) Rs.24547
b)Rs.34947
c)Rs.21357
d)Rs.24817
e) None of these
Q14.The ratio of Sita’s, Riya’s and Kunal’s monthly income is 84:76:89. If Riya’s annual income is Rs.4,56,000, what is the sum of Sita’s and Kunal’s annual incomes?(in some cases monthly income is used while in others annual income is used)
a)Rs.1,95,000
b)Rs.9,83,500
c)Rs.11,30,000
d)Rs.10,38,000
e)None of these
Q15. At present Anil’s age is 1.5 times the age of Purvi. Eight years hence, the ratio of the ages of Anil and Purvi will be 25:18. What is Purvi’s present age?
a)50 year
b)28 year
c)42 year
d)36 year
e)None of these
Q16. At present Kavita is twice Sarita’s age. Eight years hence, the respective ratio between Kavita’s and Sarita’s ages then will be 22:13. What is Kavita’s present age?
a)26 years
b)18 years
c)42 years
d)36 years
e)None of these
Q17.The ratio of the monthly income of Trupti, Pallavi and Komar is 141: 172: 123. If Trupti’s annual income is Rs.3,38,400, what is Komal’s annual income?(in some cases, monthly income is used, while in others, annual income is used)
a)Rs.4,12,800
b)Rs.3,63,500
c)Rs.3,17,600
d)Rs.2,95,200
e)None of these
Q18.The ratio of the monthly incomes of Sneha, Tina and Akruti is 95:110:116. If Sneha annual income is Rs.3,42,000, what is Akruti annual income?
a)Rs.3,96,900
b)Rs.5,63,500
c)Rs.4,17,600
d)Rs.3,88,000
e) None of these.
Q19.In an examination, it is required to get 55% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 520 marks and is declared failed by 5% marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
a)960
b)1250
c)1040
d)Can’t be determined
e)None of these
Q20. At present Sheetal is three times Surabhi’s age. After seven years Sheetal will be twice Surabhi’s age then. How many times Sheetal’s age be in another fourteen years time with respect to Surabhi’s age then?
a)1
b)3
c)2
c)1.5
d) None of these.
Answer:
11. PERENNIAL(चिरस्थायी):
a) Gregariousness
b) Illegality
c) Commonplace
d) Inherited trait
e) Evanescent
12. SOPORIFIC(ऊंघता हुआ):
a) Parasite
b) Energizer
c) Supervisor
d) Cleanser
e) Itinerant
13. ENSUE (पीछा करना):
a) Litigate
b) Precede
c) Fortify
d) Accent
e) Delay
14. INDIGENOUS(स्वदेशी):
a) National
b) Exciting
c) Alien
d) Intelligent
e) Inimical
15. REFRACTORY(आग रोक):
a) Renewing
b) Obedient
c) Unsatisfactory
c) Blasphemous
e) Chilly
16. MITIGATE(कम करना):
a) Adore
b) Saturate
c) Proclaim
d) Aggravate
e) Chilly
17. TRACTABLE(विनयशील):
a) Inadmissible
b) Unquestionable
c) Unsystematic
d) Froward
e) Submissive
18. REVILE (गाली देना):
a) Slander
b) Awake
c) Deaden
d) praise
e) Secrete
19. TURBI:
a) Limpid
b) Activated
c) Turgid
d) Viscous
e) Hungry
20. ECLECTIC(उदार):
a) Agnostic
b) Dogmatic
c) Habitual
d) Incisive
e) Impulsive
The next stage of human life is called Mesolithic or Middle Stone Age which falls roughly from 10000 B.C. to 6000 B.C. It was the transitional phase between the Paleolithic Age and Neolithic Age. Mesolithic remains are found in Langhanj in Gujarat, Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh and also in some places of Rajasthan, Utter Pradesh and Bihar. The paintings and engravings found at the rock shelters give an idea about the social life and economic activities of
Mesolithic people. In the sites of Mesolithic Age, a different type of stone tools is found. These are tiny stone artifacts, often not more than five centimeters in size, and therefore called microliths. The hunting-gathering pattern of life continued during this period. However, there seems to have been a shift from big animal hunting
to small animal hunting and fishing. The use of bow and arrow also began during this period. Also, there began a tendency to settle for longer periods in an area. Therefore, domestication of animals, horticulture and primitive cultivation started. Animal bones are found in these sites and these include dog, deer, boar and ostrich. Occasionally, burials of the dead along with some microliths and shells seem to have been practiced.
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First international film festival for the persons with disabilities (IFFPD) will be held in Delhi from 1st to 3rd December 2015. Announcing this here today Secretary, Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Shri Lov Verma said the festival organized to recognise the spirit of the persons with disabilities and will show case cinemas that open our world to their mind space, and sensitise on issue relating to disabilities.
Staff Selection Commission:
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) (Hindi: कर्मचारी चयन आयोग) is an Indian organization to recruit staff for various posts in the various Ministries and Departments of the Government of India and in Subordinate Offices.
more details: www.ssc.nic.in
The annual Legatum Prosperity Index ranks 142 countries across eight categories: the Economy, Entrepreneurship & Opportunity; Governance; Education; Health; Safety & Security; Personal Freedom; and Social Capital.
Overall prosperity ranking: Norway (1), Switzerland (2), Denmark (3), New Zealand (4) and Sweden (5) topped the table, while Burundi (138), Chad (139), Haiti (140), Afghanistan (141) and Central African Republic (142) were at the bottom.
ndia ranked 99 overall in terms of prosperity out of the 142 countries surveyed. India continued to improve prosperity that is evident from its ranking of 106 and 102 in 2013 and 2014 respectively.
1.)362 × 689= ?
a) 723692
b) 249418
c) 710308
d) 719868
e) None of these
2.)√(11881 ) × √(?) = 10137
a) 8649
b) 9216
c) 8281
d) 9409
e) None of these
3) ∛804357 = ?
a) 98
b) 89
c) 96
d) 93
e) None of these
4) 64% of ? -96% of 1120 = 499.2
a) 2600
b) 2540
c) 2460
d) 2280
e) None of these
5) (64)² ÷ ∛32768 = ?
a) 128
b) 132
c ) 142
d) 104
e) None of these
6) 0.09 × 6.8 × ? = 2.142
a) 2.5
b) 4.4
c) 3.5
d) 2.4
e) None of these
7) (19)¹² × (19)² ÷ (19)³ = (19)?
a) 24
b) 8
c) 11
d) 12
e) None of these
8) 680% of ? = 290360
a) 43800
b) 42700
c) 41900
d) 42500
e) None of these
9) √(?) + 17 = √961
a) 169
b) 256
c) 225
d) 196
e) None of these
10) 123 ÷ 6 ÷ 0.8 = ?
a) 25.625
b) 23.545
c) 27.455
d) 21.365
e) None of these
11) 4.65 × ? – 25.18 =31.271
a) 9.84
b) 12.14
c) 14.16
d) 9.96
e) None of these
12) √(? ) × √3136 = 2184
a) 1521
b) 1681
c) 1444
d) 1849
e) None of these
13) (0.98 × 6.3) + (? ÷ 12) = 58.174
a) 648
b) 624
c) 576
d) 636
e) None of these
14) (25% of 120) + (40% of 220) = ?
a) 115
b)122
c) 120
d) 112
e) None of these
15) (9.3 × 7.5) ÷ (2.5 × 3.6) = ?
a) 7.75
b) 8.95
c) 6.75
d) 7.95
e) None of these
Answer Key
1. d) 2. a) 3.d) 4.c) 5.a) 6.c) 7. c) 8.b) 9.d) 10. a) 11. b) 12. a) 13. b) 14. e) 15. a)
Senior IRS officer Najib Shah was appointed as Chairman of Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC), apex body on Indirect Taxes. His appointment was approved by the Appointments Committee of Cabinet (ACC)
The Aryans further moved towards east in the Later Vedic Period. The Satapatha Brahmana refers to the expansion of Aryans to the eastern Gangetic plains. Several tribal groups and kingdoms are mentioned in the later Vedic literature. One important development during this period is the growth of large kingdoms. Kuru and Panchala kingdoms flourished in the beginning. Parikshat and Janamejaya were the famous rulers of Kuru kingdom. Pravahana Jaivali was a popular king of the Panchalas. He was a patron of learning. After the fall of Kurus and Panchalas, other kingdoms like Kosala, Kasi and Videha came into prominence. The famous ruler of Kasi was Ajatasatru. Janaka was the king of Videha with its capital at Mithila. His court was adorned by scholar Yajnavalkya. Magadha, Anga and Vanga seem to be the easternmost tribal kingdoms. The later Vedic texts also refer to the three divisions of India – Aryavarta (northern India), Madhyadesa (central India) and Dakshinapatha (southern India).
Political Organization
Larger kingdoms were formed during the later Vedic period. Many jana or tribes were amalgamated to form janapadas or rashtras in the later Vedic period. Hence the royal power had increased along with the increase in the size of kingdom. The king performed various rituals and sacrifices to strengthen his position. They include Rajasuya (consecration ceremony), Asvamedha (horse sacrifice) and Vajpeya (chariot race). The kings also assumed titles like Rajavisvajanan, Ahilabhuvanapathi, (lord of all earth), Ekrat and Samrat (sole ruler). In the later Vedic period, a large number of new officials were involved in the administration in addition to the existing purohita, senani and gramani. They include the treasury officer, tax collector and royal messenger. At the lower levels, the administration was carried on by the village assemblies. The importance of the Samiti and the Sabha had diminished during the later Vedic period.
Economic Condition
Iron was used extensively in this period and this enabled the people to clear forests and to bring more land under cultivation. Agriculture became the chief occupation. Improved types of implements were used for cultivation. Besides barley, rice and wheat were grown. Knowledge of manure was another improvement. Industrial activity became more varied and there was greater specialization. Metal work, leather work, carpentry and pottery made great progress. In addition to internal trade, foreign trade became extensive. The Later Vedic people were familiar with the sea and they traded with countries like Babylon. A class of hereditarymerchants (vaniya) came into existence. Vaisyas also carried on trade and commerce. They organized themselves into guilds known as ganas. Besides nishka of the Rig Vedic period, gold and silver coins like satamana and krishnala were used as media of exchange.
Social Life
The four divisions of society (Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaisyas and Sudras) or the Varna system was thoroughly established during the Later Vedic period. The two higher classes – Brahmana, and Kshatriya enjoyed privileges that were denied to the Vaisya and Sudra. A Brahmin occupied a higher position than a Kshatriya but sometimes Kshatriyas claimed a higher status over the Brahmins.Many sub-castes on the basis of their occupation appeared in this period. In the family, the power of the father increased during the Later Vedic period. There was no improvement in the status of women. They were still considered inferior and subordinate to men. Women also lost their political rights of attending assemblies. Child marriages had become common. According the Aitreya Brahmana a daughter has been described as a source of misery. However, the women in the royal household enjoyed certain privileges.
Religion
Gods of the Early Vedic period like Indra and Agni lost their importance. Prajapathi (the creator), Vishnu (the protector) and Rudra (the destroyer) became prominent during the Later Vedic period. Sacrifices were still important and the rituals connected with them became more elaborate. The importance of prayers declined and that of sacrifices increased. Priesthood became a profession and a hereditary one. The formulae for sacrifices were invented and elaborated by the priestly class. Therefore, towards the end of this period there was a strong reaction against priestly domination and against sacrifices and rituals. The rise of Buddhism and Jainism was the direct result of these elaborate sacrifices. Also, the authors of the Upanishads, which is the essence of Hindu philosophy, turned away from the useless rituals and insisted on true knowledge (jnana) for peace and salvation.
In India, the prehistoric period is divided into the Paleolithic (Old Stone Age), Mesolithic (Middle Stone Age), Neolithic (New Stone Age) and the Metal Age. However, these periods were not uniform throughout the Indian subcontinent. The dating of the prehistoric period is done scientifically. The technique of radio-carbon dating is commonly used for this purpose. It is based on measuring the loss of carbon in organic materials over a period of time. Another dating method is known as dendro-chronology. It refers to the number of tree rings in wood. By counting the number of tree rings in the wood, the date of the wood is arrived at.
Paleolithic or Old Stone Age
The Old Stone Age sites are widely found in various parts of the Indian subcontinent. These sites are generally located near water sources. Several rock shelters and caves used by the Paleolithic people are scattered across the subcontinent. They also lived rarely in huts made of leaves. Some of the famous sites of Old Stone Agein India are:
a. The Soan valley and Potwar Plateau on the northwest India.
b. The Siwalik hills on the north India.
c. Bhimpetka in Madhya Pradesh.
d. Adamgarh hill in Narmada valley.
e. Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh and
f. Attirampakkam near Chennai.
In the Old Stone Age, food was obtained by hunting animalsand gathering edible plants and tubers. Therefore, these people are called as hunter-gatherers. They used stone tools, hand-sized and flaked-off large pebbles for hunting
animals. Stone implements are made of a hard rock known as quartzite. Large pebbles are often found in river terraces. The hunting of large animals would have required the combined effort of a group of people with large stone axes. We have little knowledge about their language and communication. Their way of life became modified with the passage of time since they made attempts to domesticate animals, make crude pots and grow some plants. A few Old Stone Age paintings have also been found on rocks at Bhimbetka and other places. The period
before 10000 B.C. is assigned to the Old Stone Age.
The government has appointed Balasubrahmanyam Kamarsu on the board of the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) as an industry representative. Balasubrahmanyam Kamarsu, the national co convenor of Bharatiya Janta Party’s (BJP) legal cell and the secretary of the BJP parliamentary party.
India regained its top position replacing China as the biggest overall consumer of gold in the first nine months of year 2015. India consumed a total of 642 tonnes of gold in this period and china is lagging behind by just 63 tonnes with total consumption of 642 tonnes in first nine month of the year. GFSM survey was released on 17th October 2015.
A remarkable progress is noticed in human civilization in the Neolithic Age. It is approximately dated from 6000 B.C to 4000 B.C. Neolithic remains are found in various parts of India. These include the Kashmir valley, Chirand in Bihar, Belan
valley in Uttar Pradesh and in several places of the Deccan. The important Neolithic sites excavated in south India are Maski, Brahmagiri, Hallur and Kodekal in Karnataka, Paiyampalli in Tamil Nadu and Utnur in Andhra Pradesh. The chief characteristic features of the Neolithic culture are the practice of agriculture, domestication of animals, polishing of stone tools and the manufacture of pottery. In fact, the cultivation of plants and domestication of animals led to the emergence of village communities based on sedentary life. There was a great improvement in technology of making tools and other equipments used by man. Stone tools were now polished. The polished axes were found to be more effective tools for hunting and cutting trees. Mud brick houses were built instead of grass huts. Wheels were used to make pottery. Pottery was used for cooking as well as storage of food grains. Large urns were used as coffins for the burial of the dead. There was also improvement in agriculture. Wheat, barely, rice, millet were cultivated in different areas at different points of time. Rice cultivation was extensive in eastern India. Domestication of sheep, goats and cattle was widely prevalent. Cattle were used for cultivation and for transport. The people of Neolithic Age used clothes made of cotton and wool.
Mercedes driver Lewis Hamilton on won the 2015 Formula 1 United States Grand Prix title. It was the third title for Hamilton at the Circuit of the Americas in Elroy, Texas of the USA where championship is being held annually.
In the final race, while his team-mate Nico Rosberg of Germany stood at the second position, Ferrari driver Sebastian Vettel (Germany) was at the third.
The history of India includes prehistoric archaeological evidence from Anatomically modern humans on Indian subcontinent, advances of civilisation to the Vedic period of the Indo-Aryan cultures, the founding of Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism, a number of ruling dynasties throughout various geographic areas of the … Some useful MCQ for UPSC, SSC CGL-Examination..
Practice Set-1
1. Which one of the following Governor Generals was impeached by the British Parliament?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Canning
(d) William Bentick
2. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
(a) Foundation of Indian National Congress.
(b) Simon Commission
(c) Home Rule Movement
(d) Cabinet Mission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,3,2,4
(b) 3,1,4,2
(c) 1,2,4,3
(d) 1,4,3,2
3. Which of the following posts during the Delhi Sultanate was related to the Provincial Services?
(a) Qazi -ul Quzat
(b) Ariz –i Mumalik
(c) Wali
(d) Barid – i Muamlik
4. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List – I List – II
(a) Doctrine of Lapse 1. Lord Curzon
(b) Partitions of Bengal 2. Warren Hastings
(c) Rohilla war 3. Lord Dalhousie
(d) Subsidiary Alliance 4. Lord Wellesley.
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 2 1 4
5. Fatehpur Sikri symbolises
(a) Mohgul architecture
(b) Hindu and Muslim architecture
(c) Muslim and Christan architecture
(d) Hindu, Muslim and christen architectures
6. Raja Rammohan Roy was responsible for which of the following reforms?
1. Abolition of Sati
2. Abolition of child marriage
3. widow remarriage
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
7. ‘Direct Actions’ was the brain child of
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Mohamed Ali Jauhar
(d) Mohamed Ali Jinnah
8. Who among the following was the ‘political guru’ of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) B.G Tilak
(b) G.K Gokhale
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) S.N. Banerjee
9. Assertion (A) : In greenhouse effect, the thick carbon dioxide layer allows sunlight to filter through but prevents heat from being re-radiated in outer space.
Reason (R) : The thick carbon dioxide layer functions like glass panels of a greenhouse or glass win-dows of a motor car
10. Assertion (A) : Salt Satyagraha was an outcome of the Nonco-operation Movement.
Reason (R) : Rajaji started the Vedaranyam March.
11. Who among the following was associated with the Hindustan Republican Associa-tion?
(a) Jogesh Chandra Chatterji
(b) Rasbehari Bose
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Bhagwati Charan vohra
download to full practice set with Answer Click here
The earliest excavations in the Indus valley were done at Harappa in the West Punjab and Mohenjodaro in Sind. Both places are now in Pakistan. The findings in these two cities brought to light a civilization. It was first called the ‘The Indus Valley Civilization’. But this civilization was later named as the ‘Indus Civilization’ due to the discovery of more and more sites far
away from the Indus valley. Also, it has come to be called the ‘Harappan Civilization’ after the name of its first discovered site. Important Sites Among the many other sites excavated, the most important are Kot Diji in Sind, Kalibangan in Rajasthan, Rupar in the Punjab,Banawali in Haryana, Lothal, Surkotada and Dholavira, all the three in Gujarat. The larger cities are approximately a hundred hectares in size. Mohenjodara is the largest of all the Indus cities and it is estimated to have spread over an area of 200 hectares.
Origin and Evolution
The archaeological findings excavated for the last eightdecades reveal the gradual development of the Harappan culture. There are four important stages or phases of evolution and they are named as pre-Harappan, early-Harappan, mature-Harappan and late Harappan. The pre-Harappan stage is located in eastern Baluchistan. The excavations at Mehrgarh 150 miles to the northwest of Mohenjodaro reveal the existence of pre-Harappan culture. In this stage, the nomadic people began to lead a settled agricultural life. In the early-Harappan stage, the people lived in large villages in the plains. There was a gradual growth of towns in the Indus valley. Also, the transition from rural to urban life took place during this period. The sites of Amri and Kot Diji remain the evidence for early-Harappan stage. In the mature-Harappan stage, great cities emerged. The excavations at Kalibangan with its elaborate town planning and urban features prove this phase of evolution.
In the late-Harappan stage, the decline of the Indus culture started. The excavations at Lothal reveal this stage of evolution. Lothal with its port was founded much later. It was surrounded by a massive brick wall as flood protection. Lothal remained an emporium of trade between the Harappan civilization and the remaining part of India as well as Mesopotamia.
Date of the Harappan Culture
In 1931, Sir John Marshall estimated the duration of the occupation of Mohenjodaro between 3250 and 2750 B.C. Subsequently, as and when new sites were discovered, the dating of the Harappan culture is modified. The advent of the radiocarbon method paves way for fixing almost accurate dates. By 1956, Fairservis brought down the dating of the Harappan culture to between 2000 and 1500 B.C. on the basis of radiocarbon dates of his findings. In 1964, D.P. Agarwal came to the conclusion that the total span of this culture should be between 2300 and 1750 B.C.
Yet, there is further scope of modification of these dates.
Salient Features of the Harappan Culture
UPSC Mains examination related question:
Q.1. The findings of the Paleolithic, Neolithic and Metal Age and the socio-economic life of the people during these
periods.
Q.2. The origin and evolution of the Harappan culture and the important sites of excavations.
Q.3. The salient features of the Harappan civilization such as town planning, social life and economic condition of the
Harappans.
Q.4. The date of the Harappan culture as well as the religious beliefs and the art of the Harappans.
Q.5. Different views on the decline of the Harappan civilization.
The “Combined Defence Services”Examination (CDS) is conducted twice a year by the Union Public Service Commission for recruitment into the Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Indian Air Force Academy. The Notification for the examination is usually released in the months of October and June, and the examinations are conducted in February and November respectively. Only unmarried graduates are eligible to sit for the exam. Successful candidates are admitted into the respective Academies after an interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB).
CDS Previous year question paper Elementary Mathematics-2015
The Reserve Bank has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Bangladesh Bank for exchange of supervisory information. The MoU is on Supervisory Cooperation and Exchange of Supervisory Information with the Bangladesh Bank, Peoples Republic of Bangladesh.
IBPS provides its service to all Public Sector Banks, SBI, Associate Banks of SBI, RBI, NABARD, SIDBI, few Co.op.Banks, LIC & Insurance companies which are regular members of the IBPS society. In addition to that Regional Rural Banks, many Public Sector Undertakings of Nonfinancial sectors, Government Departments, State owned companies and Corporations also avail its services. Some major universities and reputed Management institutes engage IBPS regularly for conduct of their “Admission Tests”.
This indicates that more and more candidates are getting attracted towards job opportunities in Banking, Insurance and Financial sectors and directly/ indirectly, are showing their confidence in the system of the Online tests conducted by IBPS which are absolutely fair,transparent and test of job relevant skills, aptitudes and knowledge.
Online test syllabus for Quantitative Math:
Simplification
Fraction
Approximate
Series
Averages
Ratio and Proportion Age, Partnership
Allegations and Mixtures
Percentages
CI and SI
Profit and Loss
Time and Distance
Boat and stream
Time and Work
Pipe and Cistern
Commercial Maths
DI and DS
Area & Perimeter
Clocks and Calendars
Daily Important updates for General Awareness quiz to all competitive examinations (IBPS Clerk & P.O, Bank Exam, MAH-CET, SSC (Staff Selection Commission) NDA, CDS etc
1.The Union government has announced Rs 10,000-crore road and bridges development projects for which city in next five years?
a)Manipur
b)Meghalaya
c)Assam
d)Nagaland
e)None of these
Answer d)Nagaland
2.Who is Road and Highways Minister?
a)Jairam Ramesh
b)Nitin Gadkari
c)Dr Harsh Wardhan
d)Hamid Ansari
e)None of these
Answer b)Nitin Gadkari
3.Who has been appointed as Managing Director of Indian unit of Information Technology firm Unisys Corporation?
a)Ravikumar Sreedharan
b)Rajkumar Rao
c)Mahesh Kumar Jain
d)R R Reddy
e)None of these
Answer a)Ravikumar Sreedharan
4.Who has been appointed managing director of the Hyderabad-based Andhra Bank?
a)Suresh N Patel
b)Ramesh Mehta
c)K R Rao
d)P N Venkata
e)None of these
Answer a)Suresh N Patel
5.Who has been appointed as head of Kolkata-based UCO Bank and previously was executive director of Dena Bank?
a)R K Takkar
b)Anurag Kakkar
c)Suresh N Patel
d)Ramesh Garg
e)None of these
Answer a)Suresh N Patel
6.Who has been named as the Managing director of Corporation Bank?
a)J K Garg
b)Ramesh Shakil
c)R K Mathur
d)Kamlesh Jain
e)None of these
Answer a)J K Garg
7.All India Radios Programme has bagged the first prize under the Community Service Announcement category at the Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union (ABU) Prizes 2015 on which social issue?
a)Child labour
b)Dowry
c)Sexual Abuse
d)Drug Abuse
e)None of these
Answer a)Child Labour
8.Name the Malayamal programme, titled Which is part of an initiative taken up by Biju Mathew, Programme Executive at AIR Thiruvananthapuram on behalf of All India Radio?
a)Nilkkam Ivarkkoppam
b)Child on pyre
c)Water
d)Agony
e)None of these
Answer a)Nilkkam Ivarkkoppam
9.Oscar-winning writer and actor who won an Oscar in 1982 for best original screenplay for writing the film Chariots of Fire, about two athletes at the 1924 Olympic Games. died. Who was he?
a)Audrey Hepburn
b)Colin Welland
c)Ashton Kucher
d)Tim cook
e)None of these
Answer b)Colin Welland
10.Tata Motors on November 2 has signed-up football player as its brand ambassador. Name the football player?
a)Lionel Messi
b)David Beckham
c)Arild Stavrum
d)Reggie White
e)None of these
Answer a)Lionel Messi
11. Which country has rolled its first homegrown large passenger jet off the production line in Shanghai, vowing to challenge the dominance of Airbus and Boeing in the global commercial aviation market?
a)Japan
b)China
c)Germany
d)Korea
Answer a)China
12.Which Indian goalkeeper has added another feather to his cap by ensuring that he would be the first from his country to be part of a team scheduled to play in the Europa League next season?
a)Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
b)Vishal Kumar
c)Jaideep Sandhu
d)Sandeep Kumar
e)None of these
Answer a)Gurpreet singh sandhu
13.Former Janata Dal MLA ————–, who was on a fast unto death demanding liquor ban and strengthening of Lokayukta in Rajasthan, has died?
a)Gurcharan Chabbra
b)Rajendra Rathore
c)Ashok Gehlot
d)Gurpreet Singh
e)None of these
Answer a)Gurcharan chabbra
14. Who has been appointed as India’s Ambassador to strategically important Afghanistan, succeeding Amar Sinha. Nmae the senior diplomat?
a)Manpreet Vohra
b)Amar Kumar
c)Navtej Singh Sarna
d)Gurcharan Chabbra
e)None of these
Answer a)Manpreet Vohra
15. India and which country have signed two agreements on new and renewable sources of energy and cultural exchange. The agreements were signed in the presence of Vice President M. Hamid Ansari?
a)Indonesia
b)Japan
c)China
d)Riyaad
Answer a)Indonesia
Blue Revolution: Creating an enabling environment for integrated and holistic development of fisheries
The scheme will cover inland fisheries, aquaculture, marine fisheries including deep sea fishing, mari-culture and all activities undertaken by the National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) towards realizing Blue Revolution. This will ensure that a focused approach of this nature ushers in Blue Revolution through an integrated development and management of fisheries and aquaculture sector.
The Scheme Blue Revolution: Integrated Development and Management of Fisheries was in news as Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmer Welfare Radha Mohan Singh on the eve of World Fisheries Day 2015 on 21 November 2015 mentioned about it.
The scheme was conceptualized by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2014 and entails a total outlay of 3000 crore rupees.
The President of India Pranab Mukherjee on 18 November 2015 appointed Justice Tirath Singh Thakur as the Chief Justice of India. Justice Thakur will take over the office from 3 December 2015 as the 43rd Chief Justice of India. His tenure will be till 3 January 2017. Thakur will take over from incumbent Chief Justice H.L. Dattu on 3 December. He has been a judge of the apex court since November 2009.
Sunil Kanoria was appointed as the President of The Associated Chamber of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM). Kanoria has succeeded Rana Kapoor, Yes Bank Managing Director and CEO.
“Kanoria has been instrumental in bringing over Rs 34,000 crore (over USD 5 billion) of consolidated assets under SREI which became one of the first NBFCs to get listed on the London Stock Exchange,” Assocham said in a statement.
| DAM | RIVER | STATE | |
| 1 | BHAKRA NANGAL DAM (Biggest Dam) | SATLUZ | HIMANCHAL PRADESH |
| 2 | NATPA ZAKRI | SATLUZ | HIMANCHAL PRADESH |
| 3 | NAGARJUNA SAGAR DAM | KRISHNA | ANDRA PRADESH |
| 4 | SHRI ZELUM | KRISHNA | ANDRA PRADESH |
| 5 | SARDAR SAROVAR | NARMADA | MP |
| 6 | GANDHI/JAWAHAR SAGAR DAM | CHAMBAL | MP |
| 7 | TALAIYA DAM | BARAKAR | BIHAR |
| 8 | INDRA GANDHI DAM | MALAPRABHA | KARNATKA |
| 9 | IDUKKI | PERIYAR | KERLA |
| 10 | HIRAKUND DAM (Longest Dam) | MAHANADI | ODISHA |
| 11 | JAWAHAR SAGAR DAM | CHAMBAL | RAJSTHAN |
| 12 | BAGLIHAR | CHINAB | J & k |
| 13 | DAMODAR DAM | DAMODAR RIVER | WEST BENGAL |
| 14 | TIHRI DAM (Highest Dam) | ALAKNANDA/BHAGIRATHI | UTTRANCHAL |
| 15 | INDRA GANDHI DAM | SATLUZ & BEAS | PUNJAB |
| 16 | RIHAND | RIHAND RIVER | UP |
Suresh N Patel on 2 November 2015 in New Delhi took charge as new Managing Director & Chief Executive Officer (MD & CEO) of Andhra Bank. He succeeded CVR Rajendran who retired on 30 April, 2015 and became the CEO of Association of Mutual Funds in India.
Navtej Singh Sarna was on 31 October 2015 appointed as Indian High Commissioner to United Kingdom (UK). Sarna is a 1980 batch Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer.
The eighth edition of India-Russia joint naval exercise, ‘INDRA NAVY-15’, has begun in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. It is being conducted in the Bay of Bengal from December 7 – 12.
The bilateral maritime joint naval exercise between the navies of India and Russia is aimed to epitomise the strategic relationship between the two countries.
Here are some important facts about the ongoing INDRA NAVY-15:The primary aim of INDRA NAVY-15 is to increase interoperability between the navies of two countries
It is likely to develop a common understanding of procedures for maritime security operations between the two navies
The exercise is being progressed in two phases, i.e., the Harbour Phase (December 7 – 9) at Visakhapatnam and the Sea Phase (December 10 -12). The Harbour Phase would encompass table-top exercises and planning conferences ashore, prior progressing to sea. The Sea Phase would include various facets of fleet operations
In the current exercise, Indian Navy is being represented by INS Sahyadri (an indigenous frigate), INS Ranvijay (a guided missile destroyer) and INS Shakti (a fleet support ship)
The Russian Federation Navy (RFN) ships, Varyag (cruiser), Bystry (destroyer), Alatau (rescue ocean going tug) and Boris Butoma (fleet tanker) are also taking part in the operation Initiated in 2003, INDRA NAVY-15 has matured over the years; increasing scope, complexity of operations and level of participation.
The sixth century B.C. is considered a wonderful century in history. Great thinkers like Buddha, Mahavira, Heraclitus, Zoroaster, Confucius and Lao Tse lived and preached their ideas in this century. In India, the republican institutions were strong in the 6th century B.C. This enabled rise of heterodox sects against the orthodox religion dominated by rites and rituals. Among them the most successful were Jainism and Buddhism whose impact on the Indian society was remarkable.
Causes for the Rise of Jainism and Buddhism
The primary cause for the rise of Jainism and Buddhism was the religious unrest in India in the 6th century B.C. The complex rituals and sacrifices advocated in the Later Vedic period were not acceptable to the common people. The sacrificial ceremonies were also found to be too expensive. The superstitious beliefs and mantras confused the people. The teachings of Upanishads, an alternative to the system of sacrifices, were highly philosophical in nature and therefore not easily understood by all. Therefore, what was needed in the larger interests of the people was a simple, short and intelligible way to salvation for all people. Such religious teaching should also be in a language known to them. This need was fulfilled by the teachings of Buddha and Mahavira.
Other than the religious factor, social and economic factors also contributed to the rise of these two religions. The rigid caste system prevalent in India generated tensions in the society. Higher classes enjoyed certain privileges which were denied to the lower classes. Also, the Kshatriyas had resented the domination of the priestly class. It should also to be noted that both Buddha and Mahavira belonged to Kshatriya origin. The growth of trade led to the improvement in the economic conditions of the Vaisyas. As a result, they wanted to enhance their social status but the orthodox Varna system did not allow this. Therefore, they began to extend support to Buddhism and Jainism. It was this merchant class that extended the chief support to these new religions.
Jainism
Life of Vardhamana Mahavira (539- 467 B.C.)
Vardhamana Mahavira was the 24th Tirthankara of the Jain tradition. He was born at Kundagrama near Vaisali to Kshatriya parents Siddhartha and Trisala. He married Yasoda and gave birth to a daughter. At the age of thirty he became an ascetic and wandered for twelve years. In the 13th year of his penance, he attained the highest spiritual knowledge called Kevala Gnana. Thereafter, he was called Mahavira and Jina. His followers were called Jains and his religion Jainism. He preached his doctrines for 30 years and died at the age of 72 at Pava near Rajagriha.
Teachings of Mahavira
The three principles of Jainism, also known as Triratnas (three gems), are:
– right faith
– right knowledge
– right conduct.
Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira. Right Knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world has been existing without a creator and that all objects possess a soul. Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows:
– not to injure life
– not to lie
– not to steal
– not to acquire property
– not to lead immoral life.
Both the clergy and laymen had to strictly
follow the doctrine of ahimsa. Mahavira regarded all objects, both animate and inanimate, have souls and various degrees of consciousness. They possess life and feel pain when they are injured.
Mahavira rejected the authority of the Vedas and objected to the Vedic rituals. He advocated a very holy and ethical code of life. Even the practice of agriculture was considered sinful as it causes injury to the earth, worms and animals. Similarly the doctrine of asceticism and renunciation was also carried to extreme lengths by the practice of starvation, nudity and other forms of self-torture.
Spread of Jainism
Mahavira organised the Sangha to spread his teachings. He admitted both men and women in the Sangha, which consisted of both monks and lay followers. The rapid spread of Jainism was due to the dedicated work of the members of the Sangha. It spreadrapidly in Western India and Karnataka. Chandragupta Maurya,
Kharavela of Kalinga and the royal dynasties of south India such as the Gangas, the Kadambas, the Chalukyas and the Rashtrakutas patronized Jainism. By the end of the fourth century B.C., there was a serious famine in the Ganges valley. Many Jain monks led by Bhadrabagu and Chandragupta Maurya came to Sravana Belgola in Karnataka.
Those who stayed back in north India were led by a monk named Sthulabahu who changed the code of conduct for the monks. This led to the division of Jainism into two sects Svetambaras (whiteclad) and Digambaras (Sky-clad or Naked).
The first Jain Council was convened at Pataliputra by Sthulabahu, the leader of the Digambaras, in the beginning of the 3rd century B.C. The second Jain Council was held at Valabhi in 5th century A.D. The final compilation of Jain literature called Twelve Angas was completed in this council.
Directions (Q. 1): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Q1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for further 5 km. The driver finally takes a left turn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?
1) 3km towards North
2) 7 km towards East
3)6 km towards South
4) 6 km towards West
5) 5 km towards North
Directions (Q.2-3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it is numbered two, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6).
A lives on an even-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on the floor numbered two. B does not live on an odd-numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.
Q2. Who among the following live on the floors exactly between D and F?
1) E, B
2)C,B
3) E,C
4)A,E
5)B,A
Q3. On which of the following floors does B live?
1) Sixth
2) Fourth
3) Second
4) F
5) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. 4-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a five-letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.
Q4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?
1) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
2) P is not placed immediately next to A.
3) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
4) P is placed second to the right of E.
5) None is correct
Q5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?
1) SPAEL
2) PEALS
3) LEAPS
4) SEPAL
5) LAPSE
Directions (Q. 6-10): In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer.
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
(Q. 6-7):
Statements: All gliders are parachutes.
No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.
Q6. Conclusions:
I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.
Q7. Conclusions:
I. No glider is an airplane.
II. All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.
Q8. Statements: Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions:
I All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.
(Q. 9-10):
Statements: No stone is metal.
Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.
Q9. Conclusions:
I. No glass is metal.
II. At least some glasses are metals.
Q10. Conclusions:
I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is paper.
Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input: sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26
Step I. cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88
Step II. delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71
Step III. gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56
Step IV. sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26
StepV. theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input for the questions:
Input: for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two-digit numbers.)
Q11. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in step IV?
1) 15
2) road
3) hut
4) jam
5) stop
Q12. Which step number would be the following output? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73
1)There will be no such step.
2) III
3) II
4) V
5) VI
Q13. Which of the following would be step VII?
1).stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
2) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
3) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 5246 38 25 15
4). jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
5) There will be no such step.
Q14. Which word/number would be at 6th position from the left in step V?
1)25 2) stop 3) jam 4) all 5) road
15. Which of the following would be step III?
1) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
2) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
3) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
4) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
5) None of these
Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Representatives of eight different banks, viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different bank, viz UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank.
F sits second to the right of the representative of Canara Bank. The representative of Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative of Canara Bank. Two person sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are immediate neighbours. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative of Canara Bank. The representative of Bank of Maharashtra sits second to the right of D. D is the representative of neither Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative of UCO Bank are immediate neighbours. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative of Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to the left of the representative of Dena Bank. The representative of Punjab National Bank sits second to the left of the representative of Syndicate Bank.
Q16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) H-UCO Bank
2) A-Canara Bank
3) D – Bank of Maharashtra
4) E – Syndicate Bank
5) F – Punjab National Bank
Q17. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
1) B is the representative of Bank of Maharashtra.
2) C sits second to the right of H.
3) The representative of Dena Bank sits on2 the immediate left of the representative of UCO Bank.
4) A sits second to the right of the representative of Bank of India.
5) The representatives of Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours.
Q18. Who among the following sit exactly between B and the representative of Bank of India?
1) A and the representative of UCO Bank
2) F and G
3) H and the representative of Bank of Maharashtra
4) H and G
5) Representatives of Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce
Q19. Who among the following is the representative of Oriental Bank of Commerce?
1) A
2) C
3) H
4) G
5) D
Q20. Who amongst the following sits second to the left of B?
1) C
2) H
3) The representative of Canara Bank
4) The representative of Punjab National Bank
5) G
Directions (Q. 21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Q21. How many daughters does W have?
I. B and D are the sisters of M.
II. M’s father T is the husband of W.
III. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.
1) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
3) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
5) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
Q22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F, each having a different height, is the tallest?
I. .B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III.. D is taller than only F.
1) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
5) All I, II and III even together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q23. Towards which direction is Village J from Village W?
I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III. Village M is to the north-east of Village J and to the north of Village Z.
1) Only III is sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only II and III sufficient to answer the question.
3) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
5) None of these
Q24. On which day of the week did Suresh visit Chennai? (Assume that the week starts from Monday.)
I. Suresh took a leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother’s visit to his house. DL Suresh’s mother visited
III. Suresh’s house on neither Monday nor Thursday.
1) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and HI are required to answer the question.
5) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
Q25. How is ‘go’ written in a code language?
I. ‘now or never again’ is written as ‘torn ka na sa’ in that code language.
II.’you come again now’ is written as ‘ja ka ta sa’ in thatcode language.
III. ‘again go now or never’ is written as ‘na ha ka sa torn’ in that code language.
1) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are going to three destinations Delhi, Chennai and Hyderabad in three different vehicles – Honda City, Swift D’Zire and Ford Ikon. There are three females among them-one in each car. There are at least two persons in each car.
R is not travelling with Q and W. T, a male, is travelling with only Z and they are not going to Chennai. P is travelling in Honda City and is going to Hyderabad. S is the sister of P and is travelling by Ford Ikon. V and R are travelling together. W is not going to Chennai.
Q26. Members of which of the following cars are going to Chennai?
1) Honda City
2) Swift D’ Zire
3) Ford Ikon
4)Either Swift D’Zire or Ford Ikon
5) None of these
Q27. In which car are four members travelling?
1) None
2) Honda City
3) SwiftD’Zire
4) Ford Ikon
5) Either Honda City or Ford Ikon
Q28. Which of the following combinations represents the three female members?
1) QSZ
2) WSZ
3) PSZ
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
Q29. Who is travelling with W?
l) Only Q
2) Only P
3) Both P and Q
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
Q30. Members of which of the following combinations are travelling in Honda City?
1)PRS
2) PQW
3) PWS
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Q31. It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in engineering colleges in the country remain vacant at the end of the admission session. Which of the following may be the probable cause of the above effect?
1) There has-been a considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to economic slowdown in the recent years.
2) Students have always preferred to complete graduation in three years, time instead of four years for engineering.
3) The Govt. has recently decided to provide post- qualification professional training to all engineering graduates at its own cost.
4) There has always been a very poor success rate among the engineering students.
5) None of these
Q32. The condition of the roads in the city has deteriorated considerably during the first two months of monsoon and most of the roads have developed big potholes. Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause?
1) The municipal corporation had repaired all the roads in the city before the onset of monsoon with good quality material.
2) A large number of people have developed spine- related injuries after regularly commuting long distances by road within the city.
3) The municipal corporation has been careful in choosing the contractors for repairing roads in the past.
4) People always complain about potholed roads during the monsoon months.
5) None of these
Q33. Majority of the students who appeared in the final examination of postgraduate course in management in the local college have secured first class, which is comparatively higher than the performance of students of other management colleges in the state. .
Which of the following may indicate that the results are not in line with the general trend?
1) The students of the local college are qualitatively better than those of other colleges.
2) The authorities of the other management colleges in the state are stricter in their standard of evaluation.
3) The students of other management colleges in the state performed better than the students of the local college in all the previous examinations.
4) The local management college recently retrenched many of its regular faculty members.
5) None of these
Q34. It has been reported in many leading newspapers that the current year’s monsoon may be below the expected level as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate rainfall.
Which of the following can be a possible fallout of the above situation?
1) People from those affected areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas.
2) Govt.. may announce exgratia payment to all the farmers affected in these areas.
3) Govt. may declare these areas as drought-affected.
4) People may blame the govt. and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation.
5) None of these
Q35. There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in the recent months killing large numbers of passengers and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts on the railway’s capability of providing safety to travellers. Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Indian Railways is known for providing best comfort to its passenger.
2) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances.
3) The railway tracks at many places have been found to be stressed due to wear and tear in the recent times.
4) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such disasters.
5) None of these
Q36. A few travellers were severely beaten up by villagers recently in a remote rural part of the state as the villagers found the movement of the travellers suspicious. The district authority has sent a police team to nab the culprits. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statement? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
1) The villagers dislike the presence of strangers in their vicinity.
2) Villagers are generally suspicious in nature.
3) Travellers prefer to visit countryside.
4) The govt. generally provides protection to travellers across the country.
5) None of these
Q37. There has been a considerable drop in sales of four- wheelers during the past six months when compared to the number of four-wheelers sold during this period last year.
Which of the following can the probable cause(s) of the above phenomenon?
(A) The govt. imposed higher excise duty on four- wheelers at the beginning of this year.
(B) The petrol prices have risen considerably during the past eight months.
(C) The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months.
1) All (A), (B) and (C)
2) Only (A) and (C)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) (B) Only
5) (A) Only
Q38. There is an alarming trend of skewed sex ratio against women in India during the past decade and the situation may go out of hand if adequate steps are not taken to stop female foeticide.
Which of the following can be an effective step to reverse the trend?
(A)The govt. should immediately completely ban the use of scanners/sonography on expecting mothers at all health centres.
(B) The govt. should announce a substantial incentive scheme for couples who have at least one girl child.
(C) The govt.should launches a nationwide campaign to create awareness against female foeticide.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) None of these
Q39. A very large number of technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges every year though there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employment.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like B A/ B Sc / B Com etc.
2) The govt. has not done effective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel while authorizing the setting up of technical colleges.
3) huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified graduates and requirements of the industry.
4) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from India to developed countries for better opportunities.
5) None of these
Q40. The govt. appealed to all cititzens to use potable water judiciously as there is an acute shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity incoming months. Which of the following assumption is implicit in the above statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.)
1) People may igonore the appeal and continue using water as per their consideration.
2) Govt. may be able to tap those who do not resopond to the appeal.
3) Govt. may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event of crisis.
3) A large number of people may positively respond to the govt’s appeal and help tide over the crisis.
4) Only the poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply.
Answer Key
1.5) 2. 4) 3. 1) 4. 4) 5. 3) 6. 2) 7. 5) 8. 1) 9. 2) 10. 1) 11. 2) 12. 3) 13. 3) 14. 1) 15. 4) 16. 2) 17. 5) 18. 3) 19. 5) 20. 4) 21. 3) 22. 4) 23. 5) 24. 5) 25. 1) 26. 3) 27. 1) 28. 4) 29. 3) 30. 2) 31. 1) 32. 2) 33. 3) 34. 3) 35. 3) 36. 4) 37. 3) 38. 3) 39. 4) 40. 4)
Kuldip Nayar, a veteran journalist, columnist and author was honoured with Ramnath Goenka Lifetime Achievement Award 2015. He was awarded for his contribution to journalism. He was conferred with the award at the eighth edition of the prestigious Ramnath Goenka Excellence awards ceremony held in Delhi.
Complete previous paper for RBI assistant exam held online July -2013 which is help to analyse about exam question are given…
Download Full question paper Click here
India has announced $2.5 million in aid for the small states in the Commonwealth to help them combat climate change in the 24th Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting or CHOGM. Leaders from 53 Commonwealth countries, including India, are meeting in Malta for the biennial summit of the bloc amid unprecedented security to explore concerted global efforts to deal with terrorism and climate change.
CHOGM is held after every two years and the theme for this year’s meeting is ‘Adding Global Value’. India has announced $ 2.5 million in aid for the small states in the Commonwealth to help them combat climate change.
External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj, Pakistan Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif, Australian Prime Minister Malcolm Turnbull, Sri Lankan President Maithripala Sirisena, British Prime Minister David Cameron are among the leaders attending the three-day Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting.
Points To Note
Commonwealth has decided to set up the trade finance facility to help the poor nations introduce clean energy and bring down green-house gas emissions.
Canada has pledged $2 billion assistance to help poor countries in their quest for limiting green-house gas emissions.
Maltese Prime Minister Joseph Muscat on Friday unveiled a $1 billion Commonwealth Green Finance Facility to support environmental projects in poor member countries of the bloc.
Separately, the UK has committed 21 million pounds for disaster management and 5.5 million pounds for the ocean-based economy. Australia has committed $1 million for a new Commonwealth idea — a Climate Finance Access Hub.
| MINISTER | COUNCIL | |
| 1 | NARENDRA MODI | PM |
| Ministry of Personnel , Public Grievances & Pensions | ||
| Dept of Atomic Energy | ||
| Dept of Space | ||
| 2 | RAJ NATH SINGH | HOME MINISTER |
| 3 | SUSHMA SWARAJ | EXTERNAL AFFAIRS MINISTER |
| 4 | ARUN JAITLEY | FINANCE MINISTER |
| CORP AFFAIRS & INFO OF BROADCASTING/INFO | ||
| 5 | M VENKAIAH NAIDU | URBAN DEVLOPMENT, HOUSING & POVERTY OR PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS. |
| 6 | NITIN GADKARI | ROAD & TRANSPORT & HIGHWAY/SHIPING MINSTER |
| 7 | MANOHAR PARRIKAR | DEFENCE MINISTER |
| 8 | SURESH PRABHU | RAILWAY MINSTER |
| 9 | D V SADANANDA GOWDA | LAW & JUSTICE MINISTER |
| 10 | UMA BHARTI | WATER RESOURCE MINISTER |
| 11 | NAJMA HEPTULLA | MINORITY AFFAIRS |
| 12 | RAMVILAS PASWAN | CONSUMAR AFFAIRS |
| 13 | MANEKA GANDHI | WOMEN & CHILD DEV MINISTER |
| 14 | ANANT KUMAR | CHEMICAL & FERTILIZER |
| 15 | RAVI SHANKAR PD | COMMUNICATION MINISTER |
| 16 | J P NADDA | HEALTH & FAMILY WELFARE |
| 17 | A G R PUSAPATI | CIVIL AVIATION |
| 18 | ANANT GEETE | HEAVY INDUSTRIES & PUBLIC ENTP |
| 19 | NARENDRA SINGH TOMAR | MINES AND STEEL MINISTER |
| 20 | JUAL ORAM | TRIBAL AFFAIRS MINISTER |
| 21 | RADHA MOHAR SINGH | AGRICULTURE MINISTER |
| 22 | SMRITI IRANI | HRD MINISTER |
| 23 | HARSH VARDHAN | SCIENCE & TECH MINISTER |
“Justice Tirath Singh Thakur was sworn in as the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India in a ceremony held today at Rashtrapati Bhavan. He made and subscribed to the oath of office before the President,” a statement from Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Great Britain have won the Davis Cup for the first time since 1936 after Andy Murray beat Belgium’s David Goffin to clinch the decisive point in Ghent. Murray won 6-3 7-5 6-3 to give the visitors an unassailable 3-1 lead in the best-of-five tie. Britain have now won the team title 10 times, while Murray adds the Davis Cup to his other major titles at Wimbledon, the US Open and the Olympic Games. Captain Leon Smith guided Britain from the third tier to glory in five years.
| CITY | RIVER | |
| 1 | AGRA | YAMUNA |
| 2 | AHMEDABAD | SABARMATI |
| 3 | ALLAHABAD | GANGA |
| 4 | BADRINATH | GANGA |
| 5 | HARIDWAR | GANGA |
| 6 | KANPUR | GANGA |
| 7 | PATNA | GANGA |
| 8 | VARANASI | GANGA |
| 9 | JABALPUR | NARMADA |
| 10 | UJJAIN | CHIPRA |
| 11 | AYODHYA | SARYU |
| 12 | KOLKATA | HOOGHLY |
| 13 | CUTTACK | MAHANADI |
| 14 | NEW DELHI | YAMUNA |
| 15 | GUWAHATI | BRAHMAPUTRA |
| 16 | HYDERABAD | MUSI |
| 17 | SRINAGAR | JHELUM |
| 18 | SURAT | TAPTI |
| 19 | MATHURA | YAMUNA |
| 20 | GWALIOR | CHAMBAL |
| 21 | LUCKNOW | GOMTI |
| 22 | PUNE | MUTHA |
| 23 | NASHIK | GODAVARI |
Life of Gautama Buddha (567- 487 B.C.)
Gautama or Siddhartha, the founder of Buddhism, was born in 567 B.C. in Lumbini Garden near Kapilavastu. His father was Suddodhana of the Sakya clan and mother Mayadevi. As his mother died at child birth, he was brought up by his aunt Prajapati Gautami. At the age of sixteen he married Yasodhara and gave birth to a son, Rahula. The sight of an old man, a diseased man, a corpse and an ascetic turned him away from worldly life. He left home at the age of twenty nine in search of Truth. He wandered for seven years and met several teachers but could not get enlightenment. At last, he sat under a bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya and did intense penance, after which he got Enlightenment (Nirvana) at the age of thirty five. Since then he became known as the Buddha or ‘the Enlightened One’. He delivered his first sermon at Sarnath near Benares and for the next forty five years he led the life of a preacher. He died at the age of eighty at Kusinagara.
The most important disciples of Buddha were Sariputta, Moggallanna, Ananda, Kassapa and Upali. Kings like Prasenajit of Kosala and Bimbisara and Ajatasatru of Magadha accepted his doctrines and became his disciples. Buddha in his lifetime spread his message far and wide in north India and visited places like Benares, Rajagriha, Sravasti, Vaisali, Nalanda and Pataligrama. It should be noted that he did not involve himself in fruitless controversies regarding metaphysical questions like god, soul, karma, rebirth, etc., and concerned himself with the practical problems confronting man.
Teachings of Buddha
The Four Noble Truths of Buddha are:
– The world is full of suffering.
– The cause of suffering is desire.
– If desires are get rid off, suffering can be removed.
– This can be done by following the Eightfold Path.
The Eightfold Path consists of right view, right resolve, right speech, right conduct, right livelihood, right effort, right mindfulness and right concentration. Buddha neither accepts god nor rejects the existence of god. He laid great emphasis on the law of karma. He argued that the condition of man in this life depends upon his own deeds. He taught that the soul does not exist. However, he emphasized Ahimsa. By his love for human beings and all living creatures, he endeared himself to all. Even under the gravest provocation he did not show the least anger or hatred and instead conquered everyone by his love and compassion. His religion was identical with morality and it emphasized purity of thought, word and deed. He was a rationalist who tried to explain things in the light of reason and not on the basis of blind faith. Though he did not make a direct attack on the caste system, he was against any social distinctions and threw open his order to all. Therefore, Buddhism was more a social than religious revolution. It taught the code of practical ethics and laid down the principle of social equality.
Spread of Buddhism
Buddha had two kinds of disciples – monks (bhikshus) and lay worshippers (upasikas). The monks were organized into the Sangha for the purpose of spreading his teachings. The membership was open to all persons, male or female and without any caste restrictions. There was a special code for nuns restricting their residence and movement. Sariputta, Moggallana and Ananda were some of the famous monks. The Sangha was governed on democratic lines and was empowered to enforce discipline among its members. Owing to the organised efforts made by the Sangha, Buddhism made rapid progress in North India even during Buddha’s life time. Magadha, Kosala, Kausambi and several republican states of North India embraced this religion. About two hundred years after the death of Buddha, the famous Mauryan Emperor Asoka embraced Buddhism. Through his missionary effort Asoka spread Buddhism into West Asia and Ceylon. Thus a local religious sect was transformed into a world religion.
Buddhist Councils
The first Buddhist Council was held at Rajagraha under the chairmanship of Mahakasapa immediately after the death of Buddha. Its purpose was to maintain the purity of the teachings of the Buddha. The second Buddhist Council was convened at Vaisali around 383 B.C. The third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under the patronage of Asoka. Moggaliputta Tissa presided over it. The final version of Tripitakas was completed in this council. The fourth Buddhist Council was convened in Kashmir by Kanishka under the chairmanship of Vasumitra. Asvagosha participated in this council. The new school of Buddhism called Mahayana Buddhism came into existence during this council. The Buddhism preached by the Buddha and propagated by Asoka was known as Hinayana. The Buddhist texts were collected and compiled some five hundred years after the death of the Buddha. They are known as the Tripitakas, namely the Sutta, the Vinaya and the Abhidhamma Pitakas. They are written in the Pali language.
Causes for the Decline of Buddhism in India
The revival of Brahmanism and the rise of Bhagavatism led to the fall of popularity of Buddhism. The use of Pali, the language of the masses as the language of Buddhism was given up from the 1st century A.D. The Buddhists began to adopt Sanskrit, the language of the elite. After the birth of Mahayana Buddhism, the practice of idol worship and making offerings led to the deterioration of moral standards. Moreover, the attack of the Huns in 5th and 6th centuries and the Turkish invaders in 12th century destroyed the monasteries. All these factors contributed to the decline of Buddhism in India.
Contribution of Buddhism to Indian Culture
Buddhism has made a remarkable contribution to the development of Indian culture.
– The concept of ahimsa was its chief contribution. Later, it became one of the cherished values of our nation.
– Its contribution to the art and architecture of India was notable. The stupas at Sanchi, Bharhut and Gaya are wonderful pieces of architecture. Buddhism takes the credit for the chaityas and viharas in different parts of India.
– It promoted education through residential universities like
those at Taxila, Nalanda and Vikramasila.
– The language of Pali and other local languages developed through the teachings of Buddhism.
– It had also promoted the spread of Indian culture to other parts of Asia.
UPSC exam related question:
1. The religious and other causes for the rise of Buddhism and Jainism.
2. Early life of Mahavira and his principles of Triratna.
3. Early life of Gautama Buddha and his important principles like the four truths and eightfold path.
4. The patrons of Buddhism and the formation of the Sangha as well as the spread of Buddhism.
5. Causes for the decline of Buddhism in India and its contribution to Indian culture.
12 November: World Pneumonia Day was observed on 12 November 2015 across the world with the theme Every Breath Counts: Stop Pneumonia Now.
To mark the occasion, special programmes were held to raise awareness of pneumonia, promote prevention and treatment and generate action to fight the illness.
NATIONAL PARK | STATE |
| GIR | GUJRAT |
| KAZIRANGA | AASAM |
| MANAS | AASAM |
| CHANDRAPRABHA | UP |
| DUDHWA | UP |
| JIM CORBETT | UTTRAKHAND |
| GANDHI SAGAR | MP |
| PERIYAR | KERALA |
| EDDUKI | KERALA |
| SARISKA | RAJASTHAN |
| RANTHAMBHOR | RAJASTHAN |
| GHANA | RAJASTHAN |
| MARU | RAJASTHAN |
| KEVLADEV | RAJASTHAN |
| RANGANTHITTO | KARNATAKA |
| NANDAN KANHA | ODISHA |
| CHILKA | ODISHA |
| SUNDER VAN | WEST BENGAL |
| KAWAR LAKE | BIHAR |
| VALMIKI | BIHAR |
| SALIM ALI | J & K |
| Silent Valley National Park | Palakkad, (Kerala) |
| Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park | Andaman & Nicobar Islands |
| Mudumalai Sanctuary | Nilgiris (Tamilnadu) |
| Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary | Ahmedabad (Gujarat) |
| Chandraprabha Sanctuary | Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh) |
| Kanha National Park | Mandla (Madhya Pradesh) |
| Dachigam National Park | Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir) |
| Rajaji National Park | Dehradun, (Uttarakhand) |
| Dudwa National Park | Lakhimpur Kheri (Uttar Pradesh) |
| Bandipur National Park | Mysore (Karnataka) |
| Ghatprabha Bird Sanctuary | Belgaum (Karnataka) |
| ORGANIZATION | HEAD QUARTER | MEMBER | HEAD |
| Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank | Beijing, China | ||
| New Development Bank (BRICS Development Bank) | Shanghai, China | ||
| UNO (United Nation Organization) | NEWYORK | 193 | BAN KIM MOON |
| United Nations Populations Fund (UNFPA) | – | ||
| UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) | PARIS | 195 | Irina Bokova |
| WORLD BANK | WASHINGTON DC | 188 | JIM YONG KIM |
| IMF (International Monetary Fund) | WASHINGTON DC | 188 | CHRISTINE LAGARDE |
| WTO (World Trade Organization) | GENEVA | 161 | ROBERTO AZEVEDA |
| ILO (International Labor Organization) | GENEVA | — | Guy Ryder |
| UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development) | GENEVA | – | – |
| WHO (World Health Organization) | GENEVA | — | Margaret Chan |
| World Intellectual Property Organisation | – | ||
| International Committee of the Red Cross | |||
| World Economic Forum | – | ||
| UNICEF (United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund) | NEWYORK | — | Anthony Lake |
| FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization) | ROME | — | José Graziano da Silva |
| OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) | VIENNA (Austria) | 12 | Edmund Daukoru, |
| International Atomic Agency | |||
| United Nations Industrial Development Organisation (UNIDO) | – | ||
| OCED (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development ) | PARIS | — | José Ángel Gurría |
| CSTO (Collective Security Treaty Organisation) | MOSCO | – | |
| SAARC (South Asian Association of Regional corporation) | KATHMANDU | 8 | Ahmed Saleem, |
| BRICS | BRAZIL | 5 | |
| ADB ((Asian Development Bank) | MANILA | 67 | TAKEHIKO NAKAO |
| Amnesty International | London, UK | ||
| International Maritime Organisation | London, UK | ||
| Commonwealth of Nations | London, UK | ||
| NATO | BRUSSELS | 28 | – |
| EU | BRUSSELS | 28 (Croatia) | Herman Van Rompuy |
| SWIFT | BRUSSELS | ||
| APEC (Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation) | SINGAPORE | – | Muhamad Noor |
| ASEAN | JAKARTA | 10 | |
| UNHC (United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights) | – | Navanethem Pillay | |
| UNHCR (United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees) | GENEVA | – | – |
| G-8 | (NO HQ) | – | David Cameron |
| International Court of Justice | The Hague, The Netherland | ||
| World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) | Gland, Vaud, Switzerland |
| COUNTRY | BETWEEN LINE/PLACE/ISLAND | COUNTRY |
| · *INDIA | · RADCLIFFE LINE | · PAKISTAN |
| · *INDIA | · McMAHON LINE | · CHINA |
| · *PAKISTAN | · DURAND LINE | · AFGHANISTAN |
| · INDIA | · NEW MOORE ISLAND | · BANGLA DESH |
| · INDIA | · MANNAR ISLAND/PALKSTRAIT | · SRILANKA |
| · INDIA | · IRAWATI KRAVE | · MYANMARIT |
| · INDIA | · 8* CHANNAL | · MALDIVES |
| · INDIA | · GREAT CHANNAL | · INDONESIA |
| IMPORTANT OTHERS COUNTRY | ||
| GERMANY | MAGINOT | FRANCE |
| NATHULA PASS | SIKKIM | INDIA |
| NORTH KOREA | 38TH PARALLER LINE | SOUTH KOREA |
| USA | 49TH PARALLER LINE | CANADA |
| COUNTRY | RIVER | |
| 1 | EGYPT | NILE (Longest river of the world) |
| 2 | IRAQ | TIGRIS |
| 3 | GERMANY (BERLIN) | SPREE |
| 4 | GERMANY (BONN) | RHINE |
| 5 | AUSTRIA | DANUBE |
| 6 | CHINA | HUANGPU |
| 7 | AUSTRALIA (PERTH) | SWAN |
| 8 | AUSTRALIA (SIDNEY) | DARLING |
| 9 | PAKISTAN | INDUS, RAVI |
| 10 | LONDON | THAMES |
| 11 | USA (NEW YORK) | HUDSON |
| 12 | USA ( W DC) | POTOMAC |
| 13 | USA | MISSISSIPI |
| 14 | RUSSIA | VOLGA |
| 15 | MYANMAR | IRRAWADDY |
| 16 | ROME | TIBER |
| 17 | PARIS | SEINE |
| 18 | MOSCOW | MOSKVA |
| 19 | LAHORE | RAVI |
| 20 | BONN | RHINE |
| 21 | Yangtze | ASIA LARGEST RIVER |
Two-time defending champion PV Sindhu completed a hat-trick of women’s singles title at the USD 120,000 Macau Open Grand Prix Gold after defeating Japan’s Minatsu Mitani in the finals here on Sunday. Sindhu produced a dominating game to notch up a 21-9 21-23 21-14 win against sixth seed Mitani in a women’s singles match that lasted an hour and six minutes here.

Swati Dandekar, a former Iowa state legislator and member of the Iowa Utilities Board, has been named the U.S. director of the Asian Development Bank by President Barack Obama.
The Asian Development Bank is an international organization that provides loans, grants, policy aid, technical assistance and equity investments to countries in Asia and the Pacific.

The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) was on 19 November 2015 chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2015. A decision in this regard was taken by the international jury of the prize, headed by Vice President of India Mohammad Hamid Ansari on the occasion of birth annniversary of Indira Gandhi.
Nitish Kumar will be Bihar chief minister for a third straight term, with the state handing the Grand Alliance that he leads a big win in the assembly elections. It is now leading in 178 seats, with the BJP camp trailing at only 58.
World Economic Forum (WEF) on November 2015 released the Global Gender Gap Report 2015. It ranked 145 economies according to how well they are leveraging their female talent pool, based on economic, educational, health-based and political indicators.
As per the report, the global gender gap across health, education, economic opportunity and politics has closed by only 4 percent in the past 10 years suggesting it will take another 118 years to close this gap completely. And, out of the 145 countries surveyed, while Iceland topped the Gender Gap Index for the seventh year in a row, India stood at the 108th position.
Main Highlights of the Global Gender Gap Report 2015
• Top 5 countries with high gender equality are Iceland (1), Norway (2), Finland (3), Sweden (4) and Ireland (5).
• Five countries with least gender equality are Iran (141), Chad (142), Syria (143), Pakistan (144) and Yemen (145).
• The Nordic countries still dominate the Global Gender Gap Index. Ireland is the highest placed non-Nordic country, ranking 5th. Rwanda (6), Philippines (7) and New Zealand (10) are the only non-European countries in the top 10; and the United States falls eight places to 28th.
• As compared to 2006, an extra quarter of a billion women have entered the labor force in 2015 that is pegged at 1.75 billion.
On 2 November, 2015 RBI appointed Deepak Singhal as the Executive Director (ED). Deepak Singhal replaced K K Vohra.
Harjit Sajjan an Indo-Canadian Sikh sworn – in as Defence Minister of Canada on 4 November, 2015. Harjit Sajjan is one of the Prime Minister Justin Trudeau’s 30 members Cabinet. Ceremony held at Rideau Hall in Ottawa, Canada.
| REPORT/PUBLICATION | ORGANIZATION |
| HUMAN DEVLOPMENT INDEX | UNDP/PLANNING COMISSION |
| WORLD INVESTMENT REPORT | UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Developmen |
| BUSINESS INDEX | WORLD BANK |
| INCLUSIVE WELTH REPORT | UNO |
| World Urbanization Prospects Report | UNO |
| WORLD DEV REPORT | IBRD (WORLD BANK) |
| GLOBAL COMPETITIVENESS REPORT | WORLD ECONOMIC FORUM |
| WORLD ECONOMIC OUTLOOK | IMF |
| GLOBAL FINANCIAL STABILITY REPORT | IMF |
| REVIEW OF MACROECONOMIC & MONETARY DEV | RBI |
| FINANCIAL STABILITY REPORT | RBI |
| OUTLOOK SUPLEMENT REPORT | ADB |
| Economic Survey | NSSO |
| Financial Data of India | NSSO |
| REGULATOR | SECTOR | ESTABLISHMENT | HQ | CHIEF |
| RBI | MONEY MKTG | 1935 | MUMBAI | RAGHURAM GOVIND RAJAN |
| SEBI | CAPITAL, MUTUAL FUND, STOCK, MERCHANT, 1988 | MUMBAI | U K SINGHA | |
| IRDA | INSURANCE | 1999 | HYDRABAD | T S VIJYAN |
| TRAI | TELECOM | 1997 | NEW DEL | RAM SEVAK SHARMA |
| FMC | COMMODITY MKTG | 1953 | MUMBAI | RAMESH ABISHEK |
| PFRDA | PENSION SECTOR | 2003 | NEW DELHI | HEMENT CONTRACTOR |
| CBDT | DIRECT TAX | 1944 | NEW DELHI | ANITA KAPOOR |
| CBEC | INDIRECT TAX | 1944 | NEW DELHI | Kaushal Srivastava |
| NPCI | RUPAY CARD | 2008 | MUMBAI | A P HOTA |
Justice Teerth Singh Thakur would be the next Chief Justice of India recommended by Chief Justice H L Dattu on 4 November, 2015. T S Thakur will take over as the 43rd Chief Justice of India.
| Pradhan Mantri Krishi Seenchai Yojana (PMKSHY) |
|
| INDRADHANUS |
|
| Pradhana Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) |
|
| Make In India |
|
| Swachh Bharat Mission |
|
| Saansad Adhrash Gram Yojana (SAGY) |
|
| Vana bandhu Kalyan Yojana |
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| Kishaan Vikas PatraInvestmentScheme |
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| National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY) |
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| Beti Bachao,Beti Padhao (Save Girl child, Educate Girl child) |
|
| Sukanya Samridhi Yojana (SSY) |
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| MUDRA(Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency) Bank |
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| Pradhana Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) |
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| Pradhana Mantri Jeevana Jyoti Bima Yojana(PMJJBY) |
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| Atal Pension Yojana (APY) |
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| Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan(RAA) |
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| Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana |
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| Housing for All |
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| Digital India |
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| Skill India Mission |
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| Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana(DDUGJY) |
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| Sahaj Scheme |
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| Pahal Scheme |
|
| National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) |
|
| HRIDAY – Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana |
|
| Smart Cities Mission |
|
The 2015 G20 Summit was held for two days on 15 November and 16 November 2015 at Regnum Carya Hotel Convention Centre in Antalya, Turkey.
It was the tenth summit since the inception of G20 in 1999 and held under the Turkish leadership.
The focus of the summit was to evolve strategies to ensure inclusive and robust growth through collective action. For this to achieve, Turkey has proposed three I’s-Inclusiveness,Implementation and Investment for growth.
The summit was attended by all the leaders of the G20 including Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
However, France President Francois Hollande couldn’t attend the summit as Paris came under a coordinated terrorist attack on 13 November 2015 that killed around 130 civilians.
Besides urging for strong and coordinated actions against climate change and terrorism, the G-20 has reaffirmed its earlier goal of achieving two percent additional GDP growth by 2018.
On the sidelines of the summit, meetings of G7 and BRICS leaders took place.
At the end of the summit, Turkey handed over the presidency of the Grouping to China for 2016. The 2014 Summit was held at Brisbane in Australia.
G20 Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States of America and European Union.
Nitish Kumar was sworn in Bihar Chief Minister for a fifth time on Friday at a grand event attended mostly by non-BJP leaders. The two sons of RJD chief Lalu Prasad — Tejaswi and Tej Pratap —and 26 others were also sworn in.
In the late-evening allocation of portfolios, Tejaswi Yadav, the younger son of Mr. Lalu Prasad, became Deputy Chief Minister. The elder son, Tej Pratap, was given charge of three important Ministries.
Apart from Nitish Kumar, 12 members each from the Janata Dal (United) and the Rashtriya Janata Dal and four from the Congress were administered the oath of office.
After Mr. Kumar, Tejaswi Yadav and Tej Pratap took the oath. All the family members of Mr. Lalu Prasad were present at the glittering ceremony on Patna’s historic Gandhi Maidan.
The JD(U) members who took the oath are: Rajiv Ranjan Singh Lallan, Bijendra Prasad Yadav, Shrawan Kumar, Jay Kumar Singh, Maheshwar Hazari, Krishnandan Prasad Verma, Santosh Nirala, Khurshid alias Firoz Ahmad, Shailesh Kumar, Kumari Manju Varma, Madan Sahni and Kapildeo Kamat.
| STATE | CAPITAL | |
| Andra Pradesh | Hyderabad | |
| Arunachal Pradesh | Itangar | |
| Assam | Dispur | |
| Bihar | Patna | |
| Chhattisgarh | Raipur | |
| Goa | Panaji | |
| Gujarat | Gandhinagar | |
| Haryana | Chandigarh | |
| Himachal Pradesh | Shimla | |
| Jammu and Kashmir | Srinagar and Jammu | |
| Jharkhand | Ranchi | |
| Karnataka | Bangalore | |
| Kerala | Thiruvananthapuram | |
| Madya Pradesh | Bhopal | |
| Maharashtra | Mumbai | |
| Manipur | Imphal | |
| Meghalaya | Shillong | |
| Mizoram | Aizaol | |
| Nagaland | Kohima | |
| Orissa | Bhubaneshwar | |
| Punjab | Chandigarh | |
| Rajasthan | Jaipur | |
| Sikkim | Gangtok | |
| Tamil Nadu | Chennai | |
| Tripura | Agartala | |
| Uttaranchal | Dehradun | |
| Uttar Pradesh | Lucknow | |
| West Bengal | Kolkata | |
| Telangana | Hyderabad | |
| UNION TERRITORIES | CAPITAL | |
| 1 | Andaman and Nicobar Islands | Port Blair |
| 2 | Chandigarh | Chandigarh |
| 3 | Dadar and Nagar Haveli | Silvassa |
| 4 | Daman and Diu | Daman |
| 5 | Delhi | Delhi |
| 6 | Lakshadeep | Kavaratti |
| 7 | Pondicherry | Pondicherry |
| PORTS | STATES |
| KANDLA | GUJRAT |
| MUNDRA (BIGGEST PORT OF INDIA) | GUJRAT |
| JAWAHAR LAL NAHRU | MUMBAI |
| MARGUGAO | GOA |
| NEW MANGLORE | KARNATKA |
| COCHIN (MODERN PORT OF INDIA) | KERLA |
| ENNORE (CORPORATE Port) | TAMIL NADU |
| VISHAKHAPATNAM (DEEPIST PORT OF INDIA) | ANDRAPRADESH |
| Gangavaram | VISHAKHAPATNAM |
| PARADIP | ODISHA |
| HALDIA | WEST BENGAL |
| TUTICORN | TAMIL NADU |
TAG LINE | TRICK | BANK OF INDIA | HQ |
| Banker to every indian/with you all the way/Pure banking nothing else/The nations Bank on US | I | STATE BANK OF INDIA | M |
| Relationship Beyond Banking | N | BANK OF INDIA | U |
| Central to you since 1911 | D | CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA | M |
| Good People to Bank With | I | UNION BANK OF INDIA | BA |
| A | RESERVE BANK OF INDIA | I | |
| Banking for all/AAo sochen BADA | IDBI | Mumbai | |
| Trusted Family Bank | Dena Bank | Mumbai | |
| The Bank That Begins with “U” | EXCEPT- UNITED BANK OF INDIA | KOLKATTA | |
| The Name you can Bank Upon | PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK | D | |
| Where Service is a way of Life | PUNJAB & SIND BANK | E | |
| – | ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE | L | |
| Empowering Women | BHARTIYE MAHILA BANK | HI | |
| Your Tech Family Bank | INDIAN | INDIAN BANK | CHE |
| Good Poople to Grow with | INDIAN OVERSEAS BANK | NNAI | |
| – | U | UCO BANK | KOLKATTA |
| The Bank That Begins with “U” | U | UNITED BANK OF INDIA | |
| A Tradition of Trush | EXCEPT- ALLAHABAD BANK | KOLKATTA | |
| Together we can | SOUTH NAME | CANARA BANK | BANGLORE |
| A friend that you can bank on | VIJAYA BANK | ||
| India’s International Bank | BANK OF BARODA | BARODA | |
| One family one Bank mahabank | BANK OF MAHARASHTRA | PUNE | |
| Where India Bank | ANDRA BANK | HYDRABAD | |
| – | SYNDICATE BANK | MANIPAL (SMU) | |
| A premier Public Sec Bank/prosperity for all | CORPORATION BANK | MANGLORE | |
| BADHTI KA NAAM ZINDAGI | AXIS BANK | ||
| HUM HAI NA, KHYAL APKA | ICICI BANK | ||
| WE UNDERSTAND YOUR WORLD INDEED | HDFC BANK | ||
| THE WORLD’S LOCAL BANK | HSBC | ||
| THE PERFECT BANKING PARTNER | Federal bank | ||
| AAPKA BHALA SABKI BHALAI | Bandhan Bank | ||
| YOGAKSHEMAM VAHAMYAHAM/ ZINDIGI KE SATH VE ZINDIGI KE BAD VE | LIC | MUMBAI |
| ORGANISATION | HEADQUARTER (Nationalization Year) |
| RBI | MUMBAI(01/04/1935) |
| SEBI | MUMBAI(1988/1992) |
| NABARD | MUMBAI(12/07/1982) |
| CRISIL | MUMBAI |
| IRDA | HYDRABAD |
| TRAI | NEW DELHI |
| GIC | MUMBAI(1972) |
| LIC | MUMBAI(1956) |
| SIDBI | LUCKNOW (02/04/1990) |
| NHB | NEW DELHI (1988) |
Harshavardhan Neotia, Chairman of Ambuja Neotia group, has been elected president of industry body Ficci for 2016. Harshavardhan Neotia, Chairman of Ambuja Neotia group, has been elected president of industry bodyFicci for 2016. Neotia, a ‘Padma Shri’ awardee, is also a member of the Rajasthan Chief Minister’s Advisory Council and West Bengal Chief Minister’s Core Committee on Industry.
1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA)
2. Multi Sectoral Development Programme for Minorities (MSDP)
3. Pre-Matric Scholarship for children of those engaged in unclean occupation
4. Scholarship schemes (Post and Pre Matric) for SC, ST and OBCs
5. Support for Machinery for implementation
of Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and Prevention of Atrocities Act 1989
6. National Programme for persons with Disabilities
7. Scheme for providing Education to Minorities
8. Umbrella scheme for education of ST Children
9. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojna (IGMSY)
10. Integrated Child Protection Scheme (ICPS)
11. Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls (RGSEAG)- SABLA
12. National Nutrition Mission (NNM)
13. Scheme for protection and development of women
14. Assistance for schemes under proviso(i) to
Article 275(1) of the Constitution
15. Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Plan
16. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan (Financed from Education Cess)
17. Mid Day Meal
18. Schemes of North Eastern Council
19. Special Package for Bodoland Territorial Council
20. National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) including Annapurna
21. Grants from Central Pool of Resources for North Eastern Region and Sikkim
22. Social Security for Unorganized Workers Scheme
23. Support to Educational Development including Teacher Training and Adult Education
24. Border Area Development Programme
25. Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)
26. Cess backed allocation for Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY)
27. Roads and Bridges financed from Central Road Fund
28. Project Tiger
29. Project Elephant
30. Additional Central Assistance for Externally Aided Projects (Loan Portion)
31. Additional Central Assistance for Externally Aided Projects (Grant Portion)
23rd Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Economic Leaders Summit was held at Manila, Philippines from 18 November to 19 November 2015. The summit was chaired by Philippines President Benigno S. Aquino III.
The theme of the Summit was Building Inclusive Economies, Building a Better World. After the conclusion of the summit, the leaders from 21 member-countries issued the 2015 Leaders Declaration titled Building Inclusive Economies, Building a Better World: A Vision for an Asia-Pacific Community Peru will chair APEC throughout 2016 and host the 24th APEC Economic Leaders’ Meeting.
Modi Congratulates Malaysia For Outstanding ASEAN, East Asia Summit
|
PUTRAJAYA, Nov 23 (Bernama) — Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi applauded Malaysia for hosting the outstanding 27th ASEAN Summit and East Asia Summit (EAS) as well as the establishment of the ASEAN Community.
He said Malaysia’s review of the 10th anniversary of AES had set an excellent course for the most important forum in the Southeast Asian region.
Modi also commended Prime Minister Datuk Seri Najib Tun Razak’s leadership as well as the Malaysian people for their resolve and resilience in the aftermath of the Malaysia Airlines (MAS) flight MH370 and MH17 tragedies last year.
“The two back-to-back airline tragedies could sap the morale of any nation. I commend your leadership and the resolve and resilience of the Malaysian people,” he said in his joint press conference with Najib at Perdana Putra, here Monday.
Modi, who is here for a maiden official visit after assuming his post in 2014, arrived in Kuala Lumpur on Saturday to attend the 27th ASEAN Summit and Related Summits.
Meanwhile, Najib said Malaysia was delighted to receive Modi’s inaugural visit as both countries had very close and substantive relations based on common heritage and strong people-to-people ties.
He said he was very satisfied with the productive and constructive bilateral meetings held earlier this morning.
“There is a great desire between our two governments to strengthen and bring our bilateral ties to greater heights.
Najib also applauded Modi’s leadership, saying that he was a man of action, who wanted things implemented expeditiously.
Thus, he said both governments had agreed to appoint persons on both sides for immediate follow through of all plans.
“He has a proven track record as a Chief Minister and now as Prime Minister. He tells me the construction of roads had been implemented in much faster way from 2km a day to 18km a day,” Najib said, adding that he was excited about the new possibilities that both countries could do together.
Earlier, both leaders had witnessed the signing of three memorandums of understanding (MoUs) involving Malaysia and India.
The MoUs were in the area of performance management, project delivery and monitoring related to government programmes and delivery as well as cultural exchange programme agreement for the period of 2012 to 2020.
Also signed was the MoU between the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) Department of Electronics and Information Technology of India and CyberSecurity Malaysia on cooperation in the area of Cyber SecurityStatements
Speeches
Agreements and Declarations
Press Releases
In the IBPS interview board, generally there are Four/five members with the chairperson seated at the centre along with panel of senior officers/educationists, psychologists, eminent personalities etc. Basics :
– The interview nowadays is known as a Personality Test. The reason being that it is not a test of knowledge, but of the overall personality of the candidate/ aspirant.
– Interview is more of a psychological test than just contentbased. Along with good communicative skills and selfconfidence, good knowledge base no doubt gives you an upper hand. However, it has to be borne in mind that nearly all the aspirants/candidates in the Personality Test start more or less as equals in the sphere of knowledge base.
– One is not expected to know everything under the sun. If you do not know the answer to a particular question, do not hesitate to say I don’t know, Sir/Ma’m. However, even “I don’t know Sir/Ma’m” should be said confidently and with a reasonable amount of cheerfulness. Remember your knowledge levels have been thoroughly checked during the earlier stages of the CSE viz Prelims and Mains.
– Always remember that the interview is not a cross examination, but a natural, purposeful conversation.
– Keep a photocopy of the form filled for the Mains examination handy. Most of the initial questions viz the meaning of your name, educational background, professional experience, hobbies etc. will be based on this form only. Try to prepare on your biodata; roughly 30% questions are based on biodata, 40% questions are based on banking awareness and 30% are based on current affairs.
DRESSING MANNERS :
Types of questions asked at the IBPS interview During Interview :
About yourself :
About your College :
About Banking Knowledge & Terms:
Current Affairs and General Knowledge:
Q.1 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Q.2 D is sister of F. M is brother of F. K is brother of D and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?
1) Son
2) Daughter
3) Son or daughter
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Q.3 The positions of how many digits in the number 8359614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Q.4 In a certain code ‘STAGE’ is written as ‘4@59’ and ‘EARN’ is written as 987′. How is ‘NEST’ written in that code?
1) 497@
2) 794@
3) @79
4) 79@
5) None of these
Q.5 In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code?
1) DQBERSH
2) FSDCTUJ
3) DQBETUJ
4) FSDCRSH
5) None of these
Direction (6 – 10) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
H 3 $ E K 5 @ M % I 8 2 T A F 6 W I N V ★ P 4 Q δ R D Z
Q.6 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) FAW
2) N★
3) 4Pδ
4) MI
5) SEH
Q.7 How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Q.8 Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
1) 2
2)
3) 8
4) 6
5) None of these
Q.9 If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the fourteenth from the right end?
1) T
2) K
3) N
4) P
5) None of these
Q.10 How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (11 – 15): In these questions, certain symbols have been used to indicate relationships between elements as follows:
‘P Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.
‘P % Q means P is not greater than Q.
‘P ★ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely true?
Q.11 Statement:
R % T, T K, K $ M, M @ V
Conclusions:
I. M T
II. R K
III. K $ V
1) None is true
2) Only I and II are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) Only I and III are true
5) All I, II and III are true
Q.12 Statements:
W $ N N R, R @ K, K % F
Conclusions:
I. F ★ R
II. R $ W
III. N K
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only II and III are true
Q.13 Statements:
F @ M, M % W, W $ R, R V
Conclusions:
I. V $ M
II. F $ W
III. R F
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and III are true
Q.14 Statements:
B $ D, D @ M, M % K, K R
Conclusions:
I. R $ M
II. K@D
III. B $ M
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Q.15 Statements:
N@W, W★K, KV, V$F
Conclusions:
I. K★N
II. K@N
III. FW
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) Only either I or II is true
5) None of these
Directions (16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P,Q,R,S,T,V,W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. S is second to the right of V who is third to the right of T.Q. is second to the left of T and fourth to the right of Z, W is third to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of T.
Q.16 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions is the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) ZRV
2) SPQ
3) VZP
4) TWR
5) QWT
Q.17 Who is to the immediate left of W?
1) Q
2) T
3) S
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Q.18 Who is second to the left of R?
1) T
2) Q
3) W
4) Data Inadequate
5) None of these
Q.19 Who is fourth to the left of P?
1) R
2) Z
3) W
4) T
5) Data inadequate
Q.20 In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right. of the second person?
1) SQ
2) TW
3) ZV
4) PS
5) QW
Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Manager- Accounts in an organisation.
The Candidate must:
i. be at least 28 years and not more than 33 years as on 01.06.2010.
ii. be agraduate with at least 55 percent marks. iii. be a post graduate dergee/ diploma holder in financial management with atleast 60 percent marks.
iv. have post qualification work experience of atleast seven years in the Finance department of an organisation.
v. have secured 40 percent marks in the personal interview.
In the case of a candidates who satisfies all the conditions
EXCEPT:
A) at (iii) above but has completed CA/ICWA/CFA after his/ her graduation, the case is to be referred to executive Director- Finance.
B) at (v) above but has secured atleast 35 percent marks in the personal interview and at least 65 percent marks in graduation. The case is to be referred to General Manager – Finance. In each question below are given details of one candidate.
You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action your answer. You are not to assume anything other that the information provided in each question.
Mark Answer
(1) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director – Finance. Mark answer
(2) if the case is to be referred to General Manager- Finance. Mark answer
(3) if the candidate is to be selected. Mark answer
(4) if the candidate is not to be selected. Mark answer
(5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision
Q.21 Subodh Saha has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his post Graduate degree in Financial Management with 60 percent marks. He has secured 53 percent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th may 1984.
Q.22 Abhiram Gupta was born on 8th July 1980. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past nine years after completing his post graduation degree in Financial Management with 68 percent marks. He has secured 37 percent marks in personal interview and 70 percent marks in graduation.
Q.23 Suchitra Kulkarni has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past eight years. She was born on 12th April 1979. She has secured 65 percent marks in both graduation and post graduate diploma in financial management. She has also secured 50 percent marks personal interview.
Q.24 Atul Sangma was born on 24th March 1980. He has secured 45 percent marks in the personal interview and 60 percent marks in graduation. He has been working organisation for th past seven yeas after completing his post graduate degree in Financial Management with 65 percent marks.
Q.25 Neha Juneja was born on 4th September 1981. She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her ICWA after obtaining 58 percent marks in graduation. she has secured 48 percent marks in the personal Interview.
Answer Key
1-4; 2-3; 3-1; 4-2; 5-1; 6-5; 7-4; 8-3; 9-2; 10-5; 11-3; 12-1; 13-1; 14-2; 15-4; 16-5; 17-1; 18-3; 19-4; 20-2; 21-4; 22-2; 23-3; 24-3; 25-1;
Public sector banks(PSU) in India recruits candidates into various banking jobs for their branches spread across the India. Probationary Officer (PO) post is one of the many posts available in the banks, for which IBPS, SBI and other private banks recruit candidates every year. The aspiring candidates who are willing to join the banking industry prepare whole year for the written examination associated with bank PO recruitment. The increasing number of candidates every year has obligated the recruitment authorities to divide the written test into two: Prelims and Mains. This has resulted in tougher competition to get the job, which is followed by a personal interview round. Hence, it is not an easy task to crack the examination in the very first attempt. Many candidates try for three to four years to succeed in the examination and get the PO job. But there are few tips, following which the candidates can actually score quite well in the written examination and perform well in the personal interview round.
Tips to crack bank P.O (Probationary Officer) examination
Examination Training and Online Test is the most Important part to Qualify Bank P.O Examination
For more detail Call:9869139632
September 2 – World Coconut Day
September 5 – National Teacher’s Day or Dr. Radhakrishanan’s Birth Day, Sanskrit Day
September 7 – World Forgiveness Day
September 8 – World Literacy Day
September 10 – World Anti-Suicide Day
September 14 – Hindi Diwas or HindiDay, World First Aid Day
September 15 – International Day of Democracy, International Engineer’s Day
September 16 – World Ozone Day
September 20 – RPF Foundation day
September 21 – World Peace Day orInternational day
September 22 – World Cancer FreeDay or Rose Day
September 23 – International Day ofthe Deaf
September 25 – Antyodya Diwas
September 26 – World ContraceptionDay, European day of languages
September 27 – World Tourism Day
September 28 – World Rabies Day
September 29 – World Heart Day
1st Monday of October – World HabitatDay
October 1 – World Vegetarian Day, International Day of the older/Elderly
October 2 – Gandhi Jayanti, International Day of Non-Violence,Birth of lal bahudar shastri.
October 3 – World Nature Day
October 4 – World Animal Day
October 5 – World Teacher’s Day
October 6 – World Wildlife Day
October 8 – Indian Air Force Day
October 9 – World Postal or Post-officeDay
October 10 – World Mental HealthDay, National Post-office Day
October 11 – International Day of theGirl Child
2nd Thursday of October – World SightDay
October 12 – World Arthritis Day
October 13 – International Day forNatural Disaster Reduction
October 14 – World Standards Day
October 16 – World Food Day
October 17 – International Poverty Dayfor its Eradication
October 20 – World OsteoporosisDay,World Statistics Day,
October 24 – UN Day, WorldDevelopment Information Day, World Polio Day
October 27 – World day for AudioVisual Heritage
October 28 – International AnimationDay
October 30 – World thrift day
October 31 – World Savings Day orHalloween Day
November 1 – World Vegan Day
November 6 – International Day forPreventing the Exploitation of the Environment in War and ArmedConflict
November 7 – Infant Protection Day,World Cancer Awareness Day
November 8 – World Radiology Day
November 9 – World Legal ServiceDay
November 10 – World Science day forPeace and Development,
November 11 – National EducationDay
November 12 – World PneumoniaDay, Public Service Broadcasting Day
November 13 – World Kindness Day
November 14 – Children’s Day(India),World Diabetes Day
November 16 – International Day forEndurance or Tolerance
November 17 – International StudentsDay, Gurunanak Dev’s Birth Anniversary,
November 19 – World Toilet Day,International Men’s Day, NationalIntegration
November 20 – Universal Children’sDay
3rd Sunday of November – World Dayof Remembrance for Road TrafficVictims
3rd Thursday of November – WorldPhilosophy Day
November 21 – World Fisheries Day,World Hello Day, World TelevisionDay
November 25 – International Day
November 26 – National Law Day orNational constitution Day
November 30 – National Flag Day
December 1 – World AIDS Day
December 2 – World ComputerLiteracy Day
December 3 – International Day ofPeople with Disability or WorldDisability D
December 4 – Indian Navy Day
December 5 – International VolunteerDay for Economic and SocialDevelopment
December 7 – International CivilAviation Day, Indian Armed ForceFlag Day
December 9 – The International Anti-Corruption Day, Girl child day (INDIA)
December 10 – World Human Rights Day,International Children’s Day
December 11 – International MountainDay, UNICEF Day
December 14 – National EnergyConservation Day (India)
December 17 – International dayagainst violence against sex workers
December 16 – Vijay Diwas
ANALOGIES EXERCISES
1. APOSTATE : RELIGION ::
a.Offender : Order
b.Atheist : faith
c.Deserter : duty
d.Adherent : rule
e.Differ : hero
2. BIRD : AVIARY ::
a.Lion : Circus
b.Bear : Cave
c.Pig : sty
d.Hare : Burrow
e.Rodent : silo
3. JEER : DERISION ::
a.Worry : Check
b.Tremble : Menace
c.Slouch : Alertness
d.Reprimand : Censure
e.Glower : Agony
4. SWARM : INSECT ::
a.Match : Player
b.Picnic : forest
c.Throng : Person
d.Dog : Puppy
e.Vase : Bloom
5. IRASCIBLE : PROVOKED ::
a.Credulous : Convinced
b.Reliable : Disproved
c.Immoral : Suppressed
d.Impersonal : Described
e.Taunting : Amused
6. EXPEL : SCHOOL ::
a.Export : Factory
b.Exile : Nation
c.Escape : penitentiary
d.Vacate : Building
e.Dodge : Taxes
7. COLD : FORSTBILE ::
a.River bed : Sand
b.Star : Twinkling
c.Laceration : Wound
d.Heat : sunburn
e.Rain : Overcoat
8. BACTERIA : DECOMPOSITION ::
a.Volcano : Eruption
b.Antibiotic : Injection
c.Yeast : Fermentation
d.Oxygen : treatment
e.Trees : Deforestation
9. GRADUATE : DIPLOMA ::
a.Aggressor : Compromise
b.Property owner : Deed
c.Editor : Byline
d.Elector : Vote
e.Librarian : volume
10. COLOR : WAVELENGTH ::
a.Pitch : Frequency
b.Diameter : Circumference
c.Angle : Acuteness
d.Power : Generation
e.String : Vibration
Answer:
1.C 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.A
(DEFINITION ) An apostate is one who has abandoned his faith; a deserter is one who has abandoned his duty. (C)
(HABITAT ) An aviary is where one grows birds; a sty is where one grows pigs. (C)
(SYNONYM VARIANT ) (From a reference to the first words in the choices, we can infer that jeer is used as a verb in this question.) When one jeers ( meaning mocks or abuses) criticizes) another person, he shows his censure ( meaning disapproval ) (D)
(COLLECTIVE NOUN) A swarm means a large number of insects; a throng means a large number of persons. (C)
(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC ) An irascible (meaning easily angered ) person can be easily provoked; a credulous (meaning disposed to believe readily ) person can be easily convinced. (A)
(CAUSE AND EFFECT ) A person expelled from school cannot reenter ti; a person exiled (meaning banished legally) from a country cannot reenter it. (B)
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) Severity of cold causes frostbite: severity of heat causes sunburn. (D)
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) Bacteria are minute organisms which cause decomposition: yeasts are minute organisms which cause fermentation (meaning chemical reaction induced by living organisms). (C)
(SYMBOL AND MEANING) The word deed’ means ‘title deed’ to a property) The diploma forms proof that one is a graduate; the deed forms proof that one is a property owner. (B)
(UNIT OF MEASUREMENT ) The color of light is measured by its wave length: the pitch of sound is measured by its frequency. (A)
(DEGREE OF INTENSITY) Being austere (meaning bare) is a heightened form of being plain: being sterile (meaning free from bacteria or other micro-organisms) is a heightened form of being clean. The pairs (neutral, detached); (deserted, barren) and (eloquent, talkative) are mere synonyms.) (B)
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) When discomposed (meaning disturbed in composure) one loses one’s equanimity (meaning calmness); when unbalanced, one loses one’s equilibrium (meaning mental or emotional peace). (D)
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) A surface that is riddled ( meaning pierced or perforated) develops holes; a surface that is pitted (meaning marked with depressions) develops indentations (meaning depressions). (D)
(THING AND PURPOSED) A bastion (meaning the projecting part of a fortification) is a structure used for defense; an arsenal (meaning a place used for storing arms and ammunitions) is a building used for storage. (A) Choice (E) is given to trip you because you may think that there is some connection between ‘defense’ and ‘fortification’ and wrongly choose it as the answer)
(DEFINITION) A relapse (meaning getting back an illness) is a setback on convalescence (meaning the process of returning to health and strength); a recidivism (meaning returning to criminal habits) is a setback on rehabilitation. (D)
(THING AND PURPOSE) The purpose of a vault (meaning a steel structure where valuables are kept) is to protect from theft; the purpose of a fort is to protect from aggression. (A)
(DEGREEE OF INTENSITY ) Coma is an intensified state of unconsciousness; delirium (meaning state of uncontrolled excitement or emotion) is an intensified state of confusion. (B)
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) A speckled surface has a number of spots; a striated surface has a number grooves. (E)
(DESIRABLE AND UNESIRABLE FORMS OF A QUALITY) Being a lackey (meaning a servile follower ) is an undesirable form of a being a dependent; being a groveler (meaning a person who abases himself for a favour ) is an undesirable form of being a petitioner. (B)
(THING AND PURPOSE ) A sedative act as an aid to sleep; a mnemonic (such as VIBGYOR, a a word made of the first letters of the sequential colors of the rainbow) acts as an aid to memory. (B)
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Prime Minister Narendra Modi had announced Start up India and Stand up India initiatives in his Independence Day speech last year. Under Stand up India the government aims to achieve the target of at least 2.5 lakh approvals in three years from the launch of the scheme.
the Union cabinet on Wednesday approved ‘Stand Up India’ scheme and creation of a credit guarantee fund to back the Mudra Yojana. The cabinet also approved conversion of MUDRA Ltd, a non-banking financial company, into MUDRA Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Bank, a wholly-owned subsidiary of SIDBI. “There is a need to support SC/ST and women entrepreneurs…Under Stand up India scheme, Rs 10 lakh to Rs 1 crore will be provided as loan to them for new ventures,” finance minister Arun Jaitley said. Every bank branch will fund at least one SC/SCT and one women entrepreneur, he said.
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Former Chief Justice of India (CJI) Sarosh Homi Kapadia passed away in Mumbai, Maharashtra. He was 68 years. His funeral was held as per Parsi tradition at Tower of Silence at Kemps Corner, South Mumbai. Kapadia was born on 29 September 1947. He had graduated from Government Law College, Mumbai.

British writer Kate Atkinson on 4 January 2016 won the novel-of-the-year prize at Britain’s Costa Book Awards 2015 for the second time in three years. She fetched the award for A God in Ruins, a story of war and its aftermath. With this, Atkinson became the first author to receive the Costa novel prize three times: for A God in Ruins in 2016, Life After Life in 2013 and Behind the Scenes at the Museum in 1995. Her first novel, Behind the Scenes at the Museum, won the 1995 Whitbread Book of the Year ahead of Salman Rushdie’s The Moor’s Last Sigh. Since then, she has published another eight novels, one play, and one collection of short stories.
Jetha Bharwad appointed as 1st Vice-Chairman of Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF). GCMMF is a largest food products marketing organization of India.

The Union Ministry of Information & Broadcasting has constituted a committee headed by noted film-maker Shyam Benegal to look into revamp the film certification nuances by Central Board of Film Censors (CBFC). The committee is tasked to suggest recommendations provide a holistic framework and interpretation of provisions of Cinematograph Act, 1952 and Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983. Other Members of the Committee: Rakeysh Omprakash Mehra, Bhawana Somaaya, Piyush Pandey, Nina Lath Gupta and Joint Secretary (Films) as Member Convenor.
A permanent memorial of India’s first aircraft carrier INS Vikrant has been unveiled in Mumbai by Vice Admiral S.P.S. Cheema, Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Western Naval Command, and Municipal Commissioner Ajoy Mehta. The memorial stands at a traffic island opposite the Lion Gate near the Naval Dockyard in south Mumbai. The sculpture of INS Vikrant was designed by great metal sculptor Arzan Khambatta. The sculpture was made by using the pieces of metal recovered from the breaking up of INS Vikrant.
World Economic Forum meeting in Davos, Switzerland The annual World Economic Forum (WEF) meeting has started in Swiss resort of Davos, Switzerland with participation of political leaders and business from around the world. In this edition of WEF meeting, the agenda includes the outlook of the global economy and measures to fight terrorism. The 4-day conference will cover the discussions on tumbling oil prices and China’s uncertain economic prospects. It will be also discussing the issue of growing terror threats in the wake of the November 2015 terrorist attacks in Paris (France) and influx of migrants and refugees in Europe. Participants will also discuss environmental issues such as greenhouse gas emissions. They will also review the latest efforts to improve industrial production with robotics, artificial intelligence and information technology.
January 1 – Global Family Day, Army Medical Corps Establishment Day
January 5 – Louis Braille Day
January 6 – World War Orphans Day
January 9 – NRI Day or Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas
January 10 – World Laughter Day
January 11 – Death anniversary of Lal Bahadur Shastri
January 12 – National Youth Day or Birthday of Swami Vivekananda
January 15 – National Army Day
January 23 – Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose’s Birth Anniversary
January 24 – National Girl Child Day of India
January 25 – National Tourism Day, National Voters Day
January 26 – Republic Day of India, International Customs duty day
January 27 – International Holocaust Remembrance Day
January 28 – Data Protection Day,Birth Anniversary of Lala Lajpat Rai
January 30 – National Martyr’s Day or Sarvodaya Day,World Leprosy Eradication Day
February 2 – World Wetlands Day
February 4 – World Cancer Day, National Day of Srilanka, Facebook day
2nd Sunday of February – World Marriage Day
February 6 – International Day against Female Genital Mutilation
February 10 – National Deworming Day
February 11 – World Day of the Sick
February 12 – Darwin Day
February 13 – World Radio Day, National Women’s day February 14 – Valentine’s Day
February 20 – World Day of Social Justice
February 21 – International Mother Language Day
February 22 – World Scout Day, World Thinking day
February 23 – World Peace and Understanding Day
February 24 – Central Excise Day
February 28 – National Science Day
March 3 – National Defence Day
March 4 – National Safety Day, World Day of the Fight Against Sexual Exploitation, National Security Day
March 8 – International Womens’ Day
March 13 – World Rotaract Day
March 14 – World Pie day
2nd Monday of March – Commonwealth Day
2nd Thursday of March – World Kidney Day
March 15 – World Consumer Rights Day, World Disabled Day, March 16 – National Vaccination Day
March 18 – National Ordinance Factories Day
March 20 – International Day of Happiness, World sparrow day
March 21 – World Forestry Day, International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination,
3rd Friday of March – World Sleep Day
March 22 – World Water Day
March 23 – World Meteorological Day, Pakistan Day(Youm-e-pakistan)
March 24 – World TB Day, International Day for Achievers,
March 25 – International Day of Remembrance – Victims of Slavery and
March 26 – World Purple day(epilepsy awareness day)
March 27 – World Drama Day or World Theater Day
April 1 – Orissa Day, April fool’s day
April 2 – World Autism Awareness Day
April 4 – International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action
April 5 – National Maritime Day
April 7 – World Health Day, Special protection Group foundation day
April 8 – World Romani Day
April 12 – World Aviation & Cosmonauts Day
April 13 – Jallianwallah Bagh Massacre Day
April 14 – B.R.Ambedkar Remembrance Day,
April 15 – World day of Silence, Day of Dialogue
April 17 – World Haemophilia Day
April 18 – World Heritage Day
April 21 – World Creativity and Innovation Day,
April 22 – World Earth Day
April 23 – World Book and Copyright Day, World English Language Day
April 24 – World Lab Animals Day , Panchayat diwas day
April 25 – World Malaria Day, Italy Liberation Day
April 26 – World Intellectual Property Day
April 28 – International Worker’s Memorial Day,
April 30 – International Jazz Day
Alexander’s Invasion of India (327-325 B.C.)
Political Condition on the eve of Alexander’s Invasion After two centuries of the Persian invasion, Alexander from
Macedonia invaded India. On the eve of his invasion, there were a number of small kingdoms in northwestern India. The leading kings were Ambhi of Taxila, the ruler of Abhisara and Porus who ruled the region between the rivers of Jhelum and Chenab. There were many republican states like Nysa. In short, the northwestern India remained the most disunited part of India and the rulers were fighting with one another. They never come together against common enemy. Yet, it was not easy for Alexander to overcome so many sources of opposition.
Causes of the Invasion
Alexander ascended the throne of Macedonia after the death of his father Philip in 334 B.C. He conquered the whole of Persia by defeating Darius III in the battle of Arbela in 330 B.C. He also aimed at further conquest eastwards and wanted to recover the lost Persian Satrapy of India. The writings of Greek authors like Herodotus about the fabulous wealth of India attracted Alexander. Moreover, his interest in geographical enquiry and love of natural history urged him to undertake an invasion of India. He believed that on the eastern side of India there was the continuation of the sea, according the geographical knowledge of his period. So, he thought that by conquering India, he would also conquer the eastern boundary of the world.
Battle of Hydaspes
In 327 B.C. Alexander crossed the Hindukush Mountains and spent nearly ten months in fighting with the tribes. He crossed the Indus in February 326 B.C. with the help of the bridge of boats. He was warmly received by Ambhi, the ruler of Taxila. From there Alexander sent a message to Porus to submit. But Porus refused and decided to fight against Alexander. Then Alexander marched from Taxila to the banks of the river Hydaspes (Jhelum). On the other side of the river he saw the vast army of Porus. As there were heavy floods in the river, Alexander was not able to cross it. After a few days, he crossed the river and the famous battle of Hydaspes was fought on the plains of Karri. It was a well-contested battle. Although Porus had a strong army, he lost the battle. Alexander was impressed by the courage and heroism of this Indian prince, treated him generously and reinstated him on his throne. Alexander continued his march as far as the river Beas encountering opposition from the local tribes. He wanted to proceed still further eastwards towards the Gangetic valley. But he could not do so because his soldiers refused to fight. Hardships of prolonged warfare made them tired and they wanted to return home. Alexander could not persuade them and therefore decided to return. He made arrangements to look after his conquered territories in India. He divided the whole territory from the Indus to the Beas into three provinces and put them under his governors. His retreat began in October 326 B.C. and the return journey was not free from ordeals. Many republican tribes attacked his army. Anyhow he managed to reach beyond the Indus. On his way he reached Babylon where he fell seriously ill and died in 323 B.C.
Effects of Alexander’s invasion
The immediate effect of Alexander’s invasion was that it encouraged political unification of north India under the Mauryas. The system of small independent states came to an end. Alexander’s invasion had also paved the way for direct contact between India and Greece. The routes opened by him and his naval explorations increased the existing facilities for trade between India and West Asia. However, his aim of annexing the northwestern India to his empire was not fulfilled due his premature death. His authority in the Indus valley was a short-lived one because of the expansion of Mauryan Empire under Chandragupta Maurya.
1. Which one of the following Governor Generals was impeached by the British Parliament?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Canning (d) William Bentick
2. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
(a) Foundation of Indian National Congress.
(b) Simon Commission
(c) Home Rule Movement
(d) Cabinet Mission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,3,2,4 (b) 3,1,4,2
(c) 1,2,4,3 (d) 1,4,3,2
3. Which of the following posts during the Delhi Sultanate was
related to the Provincial Services?
(a) Qazi -ul Quzat (b) Ariz –i Mumalik
(c) Wali (d) Barid – i Muamlik
4. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists
List – I List – II
(a) Doctrine of Lapse 1. Lord Curzon
(b) Partitions of Bengal 2. Warren Hastings
(c) Rohilla war 3. Lord Dalhousie
(d) Subsidiary Alliance 4. Lord Wellesley.
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 2 1 4
5. Fatehpur Sikri symbolises
(a) Mohgul architecture
(b) Hindu and Muslim architecture
(c) Muslim and Christan architecture
(d) Hindu, Muslim and christen architectures
6. Raja Rammohan Roy was responsible for which of the following reforms?
1. Abolition of Sati
2. Abolition of child marriage
3. widow remarriage
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 alone (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
7. ‘Direct Actions’ was the brain child of
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Mohamed Ali Jauhar
(d) Mohamed Ali Jinnah
8. Who among the following was the ‘political guru’ of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) B.G Tilak (b) G.K Gokhale
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) S.N. Banerjee
9. Assertion (A) : In greenhouse effect, the thick carbon dioxide layer allows sunlight to filter through but prevents heat from being re-radiated in outer space.
Reason (R) : The thick carbon dioxide layer functions like glass panels of a greenhouse or glass win-dows of a motor car
10. Assertion (A) : Salt Satyagraha was an outcome of the Nonco-operation Movement.
Reason (R) : Rajaji started the Vedaranyam March.
11. Who among the following was associated with the Hindustan Republican Associa-tion?
(a) Jogesh Chandra Chatterji
(b) Rasbehari Bose
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Bhagwati Charan vohra
12. The first Indian elected to the Parliament of Great Britain was
(a) Pheroz Shah Mehta (b) Lal Mohan Ghosh
(c) Romesh Chandra Dutt (d) Dababhai Naoroji
13. Which one of the following rulers built the Bibi Ka Maqbara?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
14. Hunter Commission was appointed by the British Government to probe into
(a) Chauri Chaura incident
(b) Demolition of Kanpur Mosque
(c) Jalianwalla Bagh tragedy
(d) Kakori train dacoity incident
15. The correct chronological order in which the given parties were established in India is
(a) Indian National Congress, Swaraj party, justice party, Muslim League
(b) Indian National Congress, Muslim League, Swaraj Party, justice party.
(c) Swaraj Party, Indian National Congress, Muslim Leauge, Justice Party
(d) Swaraj Party,Indian National Congress, Justice Party, Muslim Leauge
16. Which one of the following national leaders was opposed to Mrs. Annie Besant’s idea of launching Home Rule Movement?
(a) G.K. Gokhale (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh (d) B.G. Tilak
17. What was the ultimate objective of Mahatma Gandhi’s Sault Satyagraha?
(a) Complete Independence for India
(b) Economic relief to the common people
(c) Repeal of salt laws
(d) Curtailment of the Government’s powers
18. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of the events in modern Indian history?
(a) Moreley-Minto Reforms, Gandhi-Irwin Pact, August Offer, Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(b) August Offer, Morley-Minto Reforms Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy, Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(c) Morley-Minto Reforms. Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy, Gandhi-Irwin Pact, August Offer
(d) Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy, Gandhi-Irwin Pact, August Offer, Morley-Minto Reforms
19. Who amongst the following named Jamshedpur after Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata?
(a) Lord Hardinge (b) Lord Chelmsford
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Ripon
20. Who was the viceroy of India when the British India’s Capital was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Full Question Paper Download: Modern History
In the beginning of the 6th century B.C., the northern India consisted of a large number of independent kingdoms. Some of them had monarchical forms of government, while some others were republics. While there was a concentration of monarchies on the Gangetic plain, the republics were scattered in the foothills of the Himalayas and in northwestern India. Some of the republics consisted of only one tribe like the Sakyas, Licchavis and Mallas. In the republics, the power of decision in all matters of state vested with the Public Assembly which was composed of the tribal representatives or heads of families. All decisions were by a majority vote.
The Buddhist literature Anguttara Nikaya gives a list of sixteen great kingdoms called ‘Sixteen Mahajanapadas’. They were Anga, Magadha, Kasi, Kosala, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Matsya, Surasena, Asmaka, Avanti, Gandhara and Kambhoja. The Jain texts also contain references to the existence of sixteen kingdoms. In course of time, the small and weak kingdoms either submitted to the stronger rulers or gradually got eliminated. Finally in the mid 6th century B.C., only four kingdoms – Vatsa, Avanti, Kosala and Magadha survived.
Vatsa
The Vatsa kingdom was situated on the banks of the river Yamuna. Its capital was Kausambi near modern Allahabad. Its most popular ruler was Udayana. He strengthened his position by entering into matrimonial alliances with Avanti, Anga and Magadha. After his death, Vatsa was annexed to the Avanti kingdom.
Avanti
The capital of Avanti was Ujjain. The most important ruler of this kingdom was Pradyota. He became powerful by marrying Vasavadatta, the daughter of Udayana. He patronized Buddhism. The successors of Pradyota were weak and later this kingdom was taken over by the rulers of Magadha.
Kosala
Ayodhya was the capital of Kosala. King Prasenajit was its famous ruler. He was highly educated. His position was further strengthened by the matrimonial alliance with Magadha. His sister was married to Bimbisara and Kasi was given to her as dowry. Subsequently there was a dispute with Ajatasatru. After the end of the conflict, Prasenajit married the daughter of Bimbisara. After the death of this powerful king, Kosala became part of the Magadha.
Magadha
Of all the kingdoms of north India, Magadha emerged powerful and prosperous. It became the nerve centre of political activity in north India. Magadha was endowed by nature with certain geographical and strategic advantages. These made her to rise to imperial greatness. Her strategic position between the upper and lower part of the Gangetic valley was a great advantage. It had a fertile soil. The iron ores in the hills near Rajgir and copper and iron deposits near Gaya added to its natural assets. Her location at the centre of the highways of trade of those days contributed to her wealth. Rajagriha was the capital of Magadha. During the reign of
Bimbisara and Ajatasatru, the prosperity of Magadha reached its zenith.
Bimbisara (546 – 494 B.C.)
Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty. He consolidated his position by matrimonial alliances. His first matrimonial alliance was with the ruling family of Kosala. He married Kosaladevi, sister of Prasenajit. He was given the Kasi region as dowry which yielded large revenue. Bimbisara married Chellana, a princess of the Licchavi family of Vaisali. This matrimonial alliance secured for him the safety of the northern frontier. Moreover, it facilitated the expansion of Magadha northwards to the borders of Nepal. He also married Khema of the royal house of Madra in central Punjab. Bimbisara also undertook many expeditions and added more territories to his empire. He defeated Brahmadatta of Anga and annexed that kingdom. He maintained friendly relations with Avanti. He had also efficiently reorganized the administration of his kingdom. Bimbisara was a contemporary of both Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautama Buddha. However, both religions claim him as their supporter and devotee. He seems to have made numerous gifts to the Buddhist Sangha.
Ajatasatru (494 – 462 B.C.)
The reign of Ajatasatru was remarkable for his military conquests. He fought against Kosala and Vaisali. His won a great success against a formidable confederacy led by the Lichchavis of Vaisali. This had increased his power and prestige. This war lasted for about sixteen years. It was at this time that Ajatasatru realised the strategic importance of the small village, Pataligrama (future Pataliputra). He fortified it to serve as a convenient base of operations against Vaisali. Buddhists and Jains both claim that Ajatasatru was a follower of their religion. But it is generally believed that in the beginning he was a follower of Jainism and subsequently embraced Buddhism. He is said to have met Gautama Buddha. This scene is also depicted in the sculptures of Barhut. According to the Mahavamsa, he constructed several chaityas and viharas. He was also instrumental in convening the First Buddhist Council at Rajagriha soon after the death of the Buddha. The immediate successor of Ajatasatru was Udayin. He laid the foundation of the new capital at Pataliputra situated at the confluence of the two rivers, the Ganges and the Son. Later it became famous as the imperial capital of the Mauryas. Udayin’s successors were weak rulers and hence Magadha was captured by Saisunaga. Thus the Haryanka dynasty came to an end and the Saisunagadynasty came to power. Saisunaga dynasty The genealogy and chronology of the Saisunagas are not clear. Saisunaga defeated the king of Avanti which was made part of the Magadhan Empire. After Saisunaga, the mighty empire began to collapse. His successor was Kakavarman or Kalasoka. During his reign the second Buddhist Council was held at Vaisali. Kalasoka was killed by the founder of the Nanda dynasty.
Nandas
The fame of Magadha scaled new heights under the Nanda dynasty. Their conquests went beyond the boundaries of the Gangetic basin and in North India they carved a well-knit and vast empire. Mahapadma Nanda was a powerful ruler of the Nanda dynasty. He uprooted the kshatriya dynasties in north India and assumed the title ekarat. The Puranas speak of the extensive conquests made by Mahapadma. The Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela of Kalinga refers to the conquest of Kalinga by the Nandas. Many historians believe that a considerable portion of the Deccan was also under the control of the Nandas. Therefore, Mahapadma Nanda may be regarded as a great empire builder. According to the Buddhist tradition, Mahapadma Nanda ruled about ten years. He was succeeded by his eight sons, who ruled successively. The last Nanda ruler was Dhana Nanda. He kept the Magadhan empire intact and possessed a powerful army and enormous wealth. The fabulous wealth of the Nandas is also mentioned by several sources. The enormous wealth of the Nandas is also referred to in the Tamil Sangam work Ahananuru by the poet Mamulanar. The flourishing state of agriculture in the Nanda dominions and the general prosperity of the country must have brought to the royal treasury enormous revenue. The oppressive way of tax collection by Dhana Nanda was resented by the people.
Taking advantage of this, Chandragupta Maurya and Kautilyainitiated a popular movement against the Nanda rule. It was during this time that Alexander invaded India.
Read About: Persian & Greek Invasions
Read About: Alexander’s Invasion of India
UPSC Exam related Question:
1. The rise of Magatha and the different dynasties ruled over it.
2. The achievements of Bimbisara, Mahapadma Nanda and other kings.
3. Persian invasions and their occupation of northwest India.
4. Effects of Persian invasion and occupation.
5. Causes and course of Alexander’s invasion of India.
6. Effects of Alexander’s invasion.

Govt. of India linked the LPG subsidy to income on 28th December 2015. The consumer or his/her spouse has taxable income of more than Rs.10 Lakh, he/she will not get the cylinder on subsidy rate.
Senior United Nations (UN) official Filippo Grandi from Italy has taken the charge as new UN High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR). He succeeds Antonio Guterres of Portugal who has retired after heading the Refugee Agency for one decade. He will have tenure of five years.
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is a United Nations agency mandated to protect and support refugees. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.
Established: December 14, 1950.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
Mission: Safeguard the political and human rights as well as well-being of refugees.
To Crack any of the competitive exam is the tough problem between the assume and reality of gaining life time success. Aspirants who are preparing for railway exam and looking for some helpful tips to crack the examination, here on this page, they can get the tricks about How To Prepare For Railway Online Examination are very helpful for you to crack Exam.
Know about how to crack any written exam becomes easy if you have capability to use or follow the tips on your habit specially in case of scheduling and the routine that you may or may not follow on daily basis. At present almost every government or private organization takes online entrance test / written test as well as interview to select candidates for any of the post. Those aspirants who are going for any of the competitive or interview examination they have to prepare well for it.
Online Written tests are based on knowledge, working skills, practice and abilities to learn that are required for a post. Candidates should make a proper study schedule that can boost their chance to get success and should keep themselves continuously motivated.
For Preparation of Examination You Should Follow some Points:
Give yourself enough time to study. Don’t leave it until the last minute.
Organize your study space. Make sure you have enough space to spread your textbooks and notes out
Use flow charts and diagrams
Practice on Previous Exam Pattern
Explain your answers to others
Organize study groups with friends
Take regular breaks
Countries | Capitals | Currencies |
| Australia | Canberra | Australian Dollar |
| Afghanistan | Kabul | Afghani |
| Algeria | Algiers | Dinar |
| Argentina | Buenos Aires | Peso |
| Austria | Vienna | Euro |
| Bangladesh | Dhaka | Taka |
| Belgium | City of Brussels | Euro |
| Brazil | Brasilia | Real |
| Canada | Ottawa | Canadian Dollar |
| China | Beijing | Yuan |
| Cuba | Havana | Cuban Peso |
| Cambodia | Phnom Penh | Cambodian Riel |
| Cyprus | Nicosia | Euro |
| Denmark | Copenhagen | Krone |
| Egypt | Cairo | Egyptian Pound |
| Ethiopia | Addis Ababa | Ethiopian Birr |
| Estonia | Tallinn | Kroon |
| Ecuador | Quito | United States Dollar |
| France, Finland | Paris, Helsinki | Euro |
| Fiji | Suva | Fijian Dollar |
| Germany, Greece | Berlin, Athens | Euro |
| Ghana | Accra | Ghana Cedi |
| Guernsey | Saint Peter Port | Guernsey Pound |
| Gambia | Banjul | Gambian dalasi |
| India | New Delhi | Indian Rupee |
| Indonesia | Jakarta | Indonesian Rupiah |
| Iran | Tehran | Rial |
| Iraq | Baghdad | Iraqi Diner |
| Ireland, Italy | Dublin, Rome | Euro |
| Israel | Jerusalem | Israeli new shekel |
| Iceland | Reykjavik | Icelandic Krona |
| Japan | Tokyo | Japanese Yen |
| Jamaica | Kingston | Jamaican Dollar |
| Jordan | Amman | Jordanian dinar |
| Kenya | Nairobi | Kenyan Shilling |
| Kuwait | Kuwait City | Kuwaiti Dinar |
| Korea | Seoul | South Korean Won |
| Malaysia | Kuala Lumpur | Malaysian Ringgit |
| Mexico | Mexico City | Mexican Peso |
| Malta | Valletta | Maltese lira |
| Nigeria | Abuja | Nigerian Naira |
| Netherlands | Amsterdam | Euro |
| Norway | Oslo | Norwegian Krone |
| New Zealand | Wellington | New Zealand Dollar |
| Nepal | Kathmandu | Nepalese Rupee |
| Namibia | Windhoek | Namibian Dollar |
| Pakistan | Islamabad | Pakistani Rupee |
| Peru | Lima | Peruvian Nuevo Sol |
| Portugal | Lisbon | Euro |
| Russia | Moscow | Russian Ruble |
| Romania | Bucharest | Romanian Leu |
| Sweden | Stockholm | Swedish Krona |
| Switzerland | Bern | Swiss Franc |
| Sri Lanka | Sri Jayewardenepura Kotte | Sri Lankan Rupee |
| Spain | Madrid | Euro |
| Thailand | Bangkok | Thai baht |
| Taiwan | Taipei | New Taiwan Dollar |
| Turkey | Ankara | Turkish Lira |
| United Kingdom | London | Pound |
| United States | Washington, D.C. | United States Dollar |
| Uruguay | Montevideo | Uruguayan Dollar |
| Venezuela | Caracas | Venezuelan Bolivar |
| Yugoslavia | Belgrade | Yugoslav Dinar |
| Zimbabwe | Harare | Zimbabwean dollar |
| Zambia | Lusaka | Zambian Kwacha |
Choose the most suitable preposition (a, b, c or d) to fill the blank.
Q.1) I came __________ my wife because she is working.
a) outside
b) amid
c) without
d) until
Q.2) I can eat anything __________ pork.
a) up
b) excepting
c) until
d) under
Q.3) I couldn’t hear her __________ the noise.
a) under
b) amid
c) pending
d) outside
Q.4) I don’t live in London. I live __________ London.
a) outside
b) since
c) saving
d) of
Q.5) I have a T-shirt __________ my pullover.
a) considering
b) under
c) of
d) inside
Q.6) I have some questions __________ your decision.
a) concerning
b) inside
c) up
d) outside
Q.7) I think I must be going, __________ the time.
a) opposite
b) minus
c) considering
d) inside
Q.8) I want to talk you __________ the proposed meeting.
a) are
b) top
c) down
d) outside
Q.9) I would like to speak to you __________ my homework.
a) worth
b) to
c) regarding
d) outside
Q.10) I’d better go. It’s getting __________ midnight.
a) down
b) outside
c) as
d) toward(s)
Answers: 1.c, 2.b, 3.b, 4.a, 5.b, 6.a, 7.c, 8.a, 9.c, 10.b
A fresh list of the wealthiest people in the world has been released by Wealth-X, a wealth-tracking website, provided Business Insider with its newest figures on the assets of the ultra-rich. Bill Gates, Microsoft co-founder and one the richest people in human history, once again comes out on top, with a net worth of $87.4 billion and second place finisher, Spain’s Amancio Ortega, by more than $20 billion. Ortega, founding chairman of clothing retailer Inditex, is pegged at a net worth of $66.8 billion (though forgive us for not feeling more sympathetic).
Top Ten Richest People in the World
| NAME | NET WORTH |
|---|---|
| Bill Gates | $87.4 billion |
| Amancio Ortega | $66.8 Billion |
| Warren Buffett | $60.7 Billion |
| Jeff Bezos | $56.6 Billion |
| David Koch | $47.4 Billion |
| Charles Koch | $46.8 Billion |
| Larry Ellison | $45.3 Billion |
| Mark Zuckerberg | $42.8 Billion |
| Michael Bloomberg | $42.1 Billion |
| Ingvar Kamprad | $39.3 Billion |
Three Indians – Mukesh Ambani, Azim Premji and Dilip Shanghvi – have made it to a global list of 50 wealthiest people. Mukesh Ambani was ranked at the 27th place on the list with a net worth of $24.8 billion, while Azim Premji and Dilip Shanghvi were ranked at the 43rd and 44th place with assets worth $16.5 billion and $16.4 billion respectively.

ISRO successfully launches IRNSS-1E satellite Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully launched India’s fifth navigation Indian Regional Navigational Satellite System (IRNSS) 1E satellite. It was launched on board of PSLV-C31 rocket from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SHAR), Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. The IRNSS-1E weighs 1425 kilogram and has the mission life of 12 years. It will be mainly used to transmit navigation service signals to the users.
World No. 4 Stanislas Wawrinka from Switzerland has won the 2016 Chennai Open title of tennis defeating the Borna Coric (World No. 33) of Croatia by 6-3, 7-5 score.The event took place at Nungambakkam tennis stadium in Chennai. This was his third consecutive ATP Chennai Open title for Wawrinka (won in 2014, 2015 and 2016) and overall fourth, first won it in 2011.


The scheme in the initial phase will be implemented in selected 26 districts of eight states. These states are Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Rajasthan. People will buy kerosene at market rate (un-subsidised price) but will get subsidy directly in their bank accounts.
Union Government has constituted a committee to examine the wage structure, service conditions of the Gramin Dak Sevaks (GDS) in the Department of Posts (DoP). It is one member committee comprising of Kamlesh Chandra, Retired Member of Postal Services Board.The Committee will go into the service conditions of GDS and suggest changes as considered necessary.
Japan and South Korea signed the agreement on ‘Issue of Comfort Women’ with the aim to resolve the dispute over women of Korea who used as sex slaves by soldiers of Japan during the World War-II. The foreign ministers of the two countries said after a meeting in Seoul that the “comfort women” issue would be “finally and irreversibly resolved” if all conditions were met. South Korean President Park Geun-hye and Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe pledged to take the opportunity to boost bilateral ties following the agreement, in which Japan made an apology and promised about one billion yen ($8.3 million) for a fund to help former “comfort women.”
The Drug Authentication and Verification Application (DAVA) project of The Department of Commerce has won the 2015 eASIA Award under Trade Facilitation category. DAVA project was launched by Union Government in June 2015. It seeks to create an integrated platform for implementation of the Track and Trace system for exporters and domestic markets of Drugs and Pharmaceuticals.
Aims: to cover all the drugs manufactured in India and contribute considerably in enhancing the brand image of our pharmaceutical exporters.
Persian Invasions
Cyrus (558 – 530 B.C)
Cyrus the Great was the greatest conqueror of the Achaemenian Empire. He was the first conqueror who led an expedition and entered into India. He captured the Gandhara region. All Indian tribes to the west of the Indus river submitted to him and paid tribute. His son Cambyses had no time to pay attention towards India.
Darius I (522 – 486 B.C.)
Darius I, the grandson of Cyrus, conquered the Indus valley in 518 B.C. and annexed the Punjab and Sindh. This region became the 20th Satrapy of his empire. It was the most fertile and populous province of the Achaemenian Empire. Darius sent a naval expedition under Skylas to explore the Indus.
Xerxes (465-456 B.C.)
Xerxes utilized his Indian province to strengthen his position. He deployed Indian infantry and cavalry to Greece to fight his opponents. But they retreated after Xerxes faced a defeat in Greece. After this failure, the Achaemenians could not follow a forward policy in India. However, the Indian province was still under their control. Darius III enlisted Indian soldiers to fight against Alexander in 330 B.C. It is evident that the control of Persians slackened on the eve of Alexander’s invasion of India.
Effects of the Persian Invasion
The Persian invasion provided an impetus to the growth of Indo-Iranian commerce. Also, it prepared the ground for Alexander’s invasion. The use of the Kharoshti script, a form of Iranian writing became popular in northwestern India and some of Asoka’s edicts were written in that script. We are able to see the influence of Persian art on the art of the Mauryas, particularly the monolithic pillars of Asoka and the sculptures found on them. The very idea of issuing edicts by Asoka and the wording used in the edicts are traced to Iranian influence. In short, the Iranian connection with India proved more fruitful than the short-lived Indo-Macedonian contact.
The government plans to initiate the scheme in order to empower at least 5 thousand students in the first phases and then further expand the scheme to other students and madrasas. The Maulana Azad Education Foundation would be frontrunner in providing all the necessary help in start and execution of the scheme, fairly supported by the Ministry of Minorities.
As per the sources from ministry itself, this project would be fund by central government with a gross of Rs 3,738 crore and the scheme would be applied on a pan India basis. This would act as a rescue to thousands of Muslim students who somehow get their education from Madrasas, however fail to get an admission or a job in universities just because they do not have any standardized form certification.
For those students who would not be willing to take on the academic training, the scheme would provide an option for skill training so that they are skilled enough to work as skilled labor or get a job directly. These skill based training may range from driving to security guards, to carpentry to tailoring to nursing assistants, etc.
Overall, this scheme would be a welcoming move by the religious leaders and such schemes would only enhance the productivity of youths studying in these madrasas. This would ensure that they are not left behind in this competitive world just because of lack of any formal training or education.
| Scheme | Information | Purpose |
Nai Manzil Scheme:– Education and Skills Training for Minorities.
| · Union Government has signed a Financing Agreement of 50 million dollars with the World Bank
· This credit will be in the form of loan which carries a maturity of 25 years, including a 5-year grace period. | · Aims to provide educational intervention by giving the bridge courses to the trainees and getting them Certificates for Class XII and X from distance medium educational system.
· intends to cover people in between 17 to 35 age group from all minority communities as well as Madrasa students. |
ALL CENTRAL GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Click here
Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir Mufti Mohammad Sayeed passed away of multiple organ failure in New Delhi on Thursday morning after nearly a week-long hospitalisation. He was 79.
Mr Sayeed, a two-time chief minister, started his second tenure on March 1st, 2015 in alliance with the BJP, after having led the State government between 2002-05 previously. He was the founder of the Jammu and Kashmir People’s Democratic Party (JKPDP) that he founded in 1999 to persuade “the Indian government into an unconditional dialogue with the Kashmiri people.”
In a long career in politics, Mr Sayeed was a Congressman till 1987. He was Minister for Tourism in the Rajiv Gandhi government in 1986, after which he joined former Prime Minister V P Singh’s National Front government as Home Minister. His short stint there (1989-90) was marred by the kidnapping by Kashmiri militants of his daughter Rubaiyya Sayeed. Mr. Sayeed’s other daughter Mehbooba Mufti is considered his political heir, and through his illness there has been talk of her succeeding as Chief Minister.
Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian Awards of India. The awards are conferred in three categories namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
The Awards are given in various disciplines or fields of activities including art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc.
Padma Vibhushan is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; Padma Bhushan is awarded for distinguished service of high order and Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field. The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year. While, they are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial function at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March every year. list of 2016 padam Award
President Pranab Mukherjee on announced the winners of the Padma Awards 2016. The list comprises of 10 Padma Vibhushan, 19 Padma Bhushan and 83 Padma Shri Awardees.
19 of the awardees in the list are women and the list also includes 10 persons in the category of foreigners, NRIs, PIOs and 4 posthumous awardees.
List of Padma Vibhushan Awardees
| Sl. No | Name | Field | State |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Yamini Krishnamurthi | Art- Classical dance | Delhi |
| 2 | Rajinikanth | Art-Cinema | Tamil Nadu |
| 3 | Girija Devi | Art-Classical Vocal | West Bengal |
| 4 | Ramoji Rao | Literature & Education-Journalism | Andhra Pradesh |
| 5 | Viswanathan Shanta | Medicine-Oncology | Tamil Nadu |
| 6 | Shri Shri Ravi Shankar | Others-Spiritualism | Karnataka |
| 7 | Jagmohan | Public Affairs | Delhi |
| 8 | Vasudev Kalkunte Aatre | Science & Engineering | Karnataka |
| 9 | Avinash Dixit (Foreigner) | Literature & Education | USA |
| 10 | Late Shri Dhiru Bhai Ambani (Posthumous) | Trade & Industry | Maharashtra |
List of Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri Awardees
Padma Bhushan :
1 Jahnu Barua- Art- Assam
2 Dr Vijay Bhatkar- Science and Engineering- Maharashtra
3 Shri Swapan Dasgupta- Literature and Education- Delhi
4 Swami Satyamitranand Giri- Others- Uttar Pradesh
5 N Gopalaswami- Civil Service- Tamil Nadu
6 Dr Subhash C Kashyap- Public Affairs- Delhi
7 Dr (Pandit) Gokulotsavji Maharaj- Art- Madhya Pradesh
8 Dr Ambrish Mithal- Medicine – Delhi
9 Sudha Ragunathan- Art- Tamil Nadu
10 Shri Harish Salve- Public Affairs- Delhi
11 Dr Ashok Seth- Medicine- Delhi
12 Rajat Sharma- Literature and Education- Delhi
13 Satpal- Sports- Delhi
14 Shivakumara Swami- Others- Karnataka
15 Dr Kharag Singh Valdiya- Science and Engineering- Karnataka
16 Prof Manjul Bhargava (NRI/PIO)- Science and Engineering- USA
17 David Frawley (Vamadeva) (Foreigner)- Others- USA
18 Bill Gates (Foreigner)- Social Work- USA
19 Melinda Gates (Foreigner)- Social Work- USA
20 Saichiro Misumi (Foreigner)- Others- Japan
Padma Shri :
1 Dr Manjula Anagani- Medicine- Telangana
2 S Arunan- Science and Engineering- Karnataka
3 Kanyakumari Avasarala- Art- Tamil Nadu
4 Dr Bettina Sharada Baumer- Literature and Education- Jammu and Kashmir
5 Naresh Bedi- Art- Delhi
6 Ashok Bhagat- Social Work- Jharkhand
7 Sanjay Leela Bhansali- Art- Maharashtra
8 Dr Lakshmi Nandan Bora- Literature and Education- Assam
9 Dr Gyan Chaturvedi- Literature and Education- Madhya Pradesh
10 Prof (Dr) Yogesh Kumar Chawla- Medicine- Chandigarh
11 Jayakumari Chikkala- Medicine- Delhi
12 Bibek Debroy- Literature and Education- Delhi
13 Dr Sarungbam Bimla Kumari Devi- Medicine- Manipur
14 Dr Ashok Gulati- Public Affairs- Delhi
15 Dr Randeep Guleria- Medicine- Delhi
16 Dr KP Haridas- Medicine- Kerala
17 Rahul Jain- Art- Delhi 18 Ravindra Jain- Art- Maharashtra
19 Dr Sunil Jogi- Literature and Education- Delhi
20 Prasoon Joshi- Art- Maharashtra
21 Dr Prafulla Kar- Art- Odisha
22 Saba Anjum- Sports- Chhattisgarh
23 Ushakiran Khan- Literature and Education- Bihar
24 Dr Rajesh Kotecha- Medicine- Rajasthan
25 Prof Alka Kriplani- Medicine Delhi
26 Dr Harsh Kumar- Medicine- Delhi
27 Narayana Purushothama Mallaya- Literature & Education- Kerala
28 Lambert Mascarenhas- Literature and Education- Goa
29 Dr Janak Palta McGilligan- Social Work- Madhya Pradesh
30 Veerendra Raj Mehta- Social Work- Delhi
31 Tarak Mehta- Art- Gujarat
32 Neil Herbert Nongkynrih (Art), Meghalaya
33 Chewang Norphel- Others- Jammu and Kashmir
34 TV Mohandas Pai- Trade and Industry- Karnataka
35 Dr Tejas Patel- Medicine- Gujarat
36 Jadav Molai Peyang- Others- Assam
37 Bimla Poddar- Others- Uttar Pradesh
38 Dr N Prabhakar- Science and Engg- Delhi
39 Dr Prahalada- Science and Engg- Maharashtra
40 Dr Narendra Prasad- Medicine- Bihar
41 Ram Bahadur Rai- Literature and Education- Delhi
42 Mithali Raj- Sports- Telangana
43 PV Rajaraman- Civil Service- Tamil Nadu
44 Prof JS Rajput- Literature and Education- Uttar Pradesh
45 Kota Srinivasa Rao- Art- Andhra Pradesh
46 Prof Bimal Roy- Literature and Education- West Bengal
47 Shekhar Sen- Art- Maharashtra
48- Gunvant Shah- Literature and Education- Gujarat
49 Brahmdev Sharma- Literature and Education- Delhi
50 Manu Sharma- Literature and Education- Uttar Pradesh
51 Prof Yog Raj Sharma- Medicine- Delhi
52 Vasant Shastri- Science and Engg- Karnataka
53 SK Shivkumar- Science and Engg- Karnataka
54 PV Sindhu- Sports- Telangana
55 Sardara Singh- Sports- Haryana
56 Arunima Sinha-Sports- Uttar Pradesh
57 Mahesh Raj Soni- Art- Rajasthan
58 Dr Nikhil Tandon- Medicine- Delhi
59 H Thegtse Rinpoche- Social Work- Arunachal Pradesh
60 Dr Hargovind Laxmishanker Trivedi- Medicine- Gujarat
61 Huang Baosheng- Others- China
62 Prof Jacques Blamont- Science and Engg- France
63 Late Syedna Mohammad Burhanuddin- Others- Maharashtra (Posthumous)
64 Jean-Claude Carriere- Literature and Education – France
65 Dr Nandrajan ‘Raj’ Chetty- Literature and Education- France
66 George L Hart- Others- USA
67 Jagat Guru Amrta Suryananda Maha Raja- Others- Portugal
68 Late Meetha Lal Mehta- Social Work- Rajasthan (Posthumous)
69 Tripti Mukherjee- Art- USA
70 Dr Dattatreyudu Nori- Medicine- USA
71 Dr Raghu Rama Pillarisetti (Medicine), USA
72 Dr Saumitra Rawat- Medicine- UK
73 Prof Annette Schmiedchen (Literature and Education), Germany
74 Late Pran Kumar Sharma alias Pran- Art- Delhi (Posthumous)
75 Late R Vasudevan- Civil Service- Tamil Nadu (Posthumous)
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) on 3 January 2015 won the 26th Lal Bahadur Shastri Hockey tournament defeating Indian Railways 3-0 on penalties in the final match heldat the Shivaji Stadium in New Delhi.
Noted Hindi writer and journalist Ravindra Kalia passed away in New Delhi after suffering from liver cirrhosis. He was 78. He was known for his works like Ghalib Chutti Sharab and Nau Saal Chotti Patni. He had served as Director of Bharatiya Jnanpith.
Directions (Q. 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and maneuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.
Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humanitarians. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus. However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic development. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted quick impact initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agriculture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equipment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.
Q.1 Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruction efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the perspective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic development in low income countries
(C)World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organizations become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these
Q.2 Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic development not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and qualified personnel
Q.3 According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic opportunities
(E) None of these
Q.4 Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humanitarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid
Q.5 How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural initiatives
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country
Q.6 What is the benefit of quick impact aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate livelihood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q.7 exist
(A) live
(B) fit
(C) create
(D) occur
(E) survive
Q.8 squander
(A) lavish
(B) spend
(C) displace
(D) lose
(E) misuse
Directions (Q.9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q.9 fragile
(A) weak
(B) lasting
(C) long
(D) strong
(E) unstable
Q.10 deficient
(A) surplus
(B) valued
(C) short
(D) secure
(E) repaired
Directions (Q. 11-15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a societywhere rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly onlywhen men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.
Q.11 Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C)C
(D) E
(E) F
Q .12 Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Q.13 Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C)C
(D) D
(E) E
Q.14 Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C)C
(D) D
(E) E
Q.15 Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C)C
(D) E
(E) F
Directions (Q. 16-20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Q.16 She did not like to her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge
(B) prompt
(C) enforce
(D) deploy
(E) make
Q.17 People unfortunately that money brings happiness.
(A) assume
(B) deny
(C) object
(D) rely
(E) conscious
Q.18 The public have a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched
Q.19 Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication
(E) command
Q.20 Poverty has to be and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed
(B) eliminated
(C) finished
(D) magnified
(E) considered
Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some way i.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.
Q.21
1. moderate
2. easy
3. significant
4. strenuous
(A) 2 -4
(B) 1 -2
(C) 1 -3
(D) 2 -3
(E) 3 -4
Q.22
1. focus
2. trivial
3. vital
4. site
(A) 1 -2
(B) 2 -4
(C) 1 -3
(D) 3 -4
(E) 2 -3
Q.23
1. defer
2. dispute
3. prefer
4. challenge
(A) 2 -3
(B) 1 -3
(C) 2 -1
(D) 2 -4
(E) 3 -4
Q.24
1. consequence
2. potential
3. influence
4. ability
(A) 4 -3
(B) 2 -4
(C) 2 -3
(D) 1 -3
(E) 4 -1
Q.25
1. rebuke
2. oppose
3. praise
4. distrust
(A) 1 -2
(B) 2 -3
(C) 1 -3
(D) 3 -4
(E) 2 -4
Directions (Q. 26 -35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Deli king of jobs from degrees is one of the (26) features of our education (27). There has been a (28) fall in (29) in the academic field in recent years. There is a (30)of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have (31) their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been (32) rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some (33) jobs (34) in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising (35) . It has created a very serious problem.
Q.26 (A) minor
(B) trivial
(C) unachievable
(D) irrelevant
(E) salient
Q.27 (A) process
(B) policy
(C) development
(D) guideline
(E) procedures
Q.28 (A) expected
(B) sheer
(C) rough
(D) steep
(E) gentle
Q.29 (A) assessment
(B) evaluation
(C) competence
(D) fees
(E) value
Q.30 (A) flood
(B) class
(C) party
(D) mob
(E) rabble
Q.31 (A) mislaid
(C) increase
(D) found
(E) establish
Q.32 (A) slowly
(B) hastily
(C) deeply
(D) waiting
(E) out
Q.33 (A) suitable
(B) remain
(C) study
(D) live
(E) place
Q.34 (A) frequency
(B) occurrence
(C) event
(D) chance
(E) blocking
Q.35 (A) fever
(B) outshine
(C) lean
(D) dwarfed
(E) horribly
Logical Reasoning Click Here
Answers Key:
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (E) 07. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (E) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (E)
World No. 14 Milos Raonic from Canada has won the 2016 WTA Brisbane International Tennis trophy in the men’s single category. In the final match played at Brisbane (Australia), he defeated Roger Federer (world No. 3) from Switzerland by 6–4, 6–4 score. It is Milos Raonic overall 8th career title and 1st of the 2016 season.
May 01 – World Labour Day or May Day or Workers Day, Maharashtra Day
May 03 – Press Freedom Day (Intl.), International Sun Day, World Asthma Day, International Energy Day
May 04 – Coal Miners Day (Intl.), International Firefighters’ Day
1st Sunday of May – World Laughter Day
May 05 – World Athletics Day, World Midwives Day
May 06 – World No Diet Day
May 08 – World Red Cross Day
May 09 – World Thalassemia Day
2nd Sunday of May – World Mother Day
May 10 – International Migratory Bird Day
May 11 – National technology day
May 12 – International Nurses Da
May 13 – International Criminal Court Day
May 15 – International Day of the Families
May 17 – World Tele-communication and Information Society Day
May 18 – World Museum Day
May 20 – World Meteorology Day
May 21 – National Anti Terrorism Day, National Day for Cultural Development
May 22 – International Day for Biological Diversity
May 24 – Commonwealth Day
May 25 – World Missing Children’s day
May 29 – International Day of Peacekeepers
May 31 – World Anti Tobacco Day
June 1 – Global Day of Parents
June 4 – World Day of Innocent Children Victims of Aggression
June 5 – World Environment Day
June 8 – World Brain Tumor Day, World Oceans Day
June 12 – World Day Against Child Labor
June 14 – World Blood Donor Day
June 15 – World elder abuse awareness day
3rd Sunday of June – World Father’s Day
June 16 – International Integration Day
June 18 – International Picnic Day, Father’s day
June 20 – World Refugee Day
June 21 – International Yoga Day, World Music Day
June 23 – International Olympic Day, United Nations Public Service Day,
June 26 – International Day against Drug abuse and Illicit Trafficking,International Day in support of Victimsof torture
July 1 – world Doctor’s Day, State bank foundation day
July 2 – World Sports Journalists Day,World UFO day
1st Saturday of July – International Day of Cooperatives
July 04 – America Independence Day
July 06 – World Zoonoses Day
July 07 – World Chocolate Day
July 11 – World Population Day
July 12 – International Malala Day
July 18 – International Nelson Mandela Day
July 26 – Kargil Vijay Diwas or Kargil Memorial Day or Kargil Victory Day
July 28 – World Nature Conservation Day, World Hepatitis Day
July 29 – International Tiger Day
First Sunday in August – International Friendship Day
August 1- World breast feeding day
August 6 – Hiroshima Day, Anti Nuclear Day, World peace day
August 8 – World Senior Citizen Day
August 9 – Nagasaki Day
August 12 – International Youth Day
August 13 – International Left Handers Day
August 14 – Pakistan’s IndependenceDay
August 15 – India’s Independence Day, International Mourning Day
August 19 – World Humanitarian Day, World Photography Day
August 20 – National Sadbhavna Divas or Birthday of Rajiv Gandhi, World Mosquito Day, Indain AkshayUrja Diwas or day
August 21 – National Senior CitizeDay
August 23 – International Day for theRemembrance of the Slave Trade and Its Abolition
August 29 – National Sports Day or Dhyanchand’s Birthday
August 30 – International day of thevictims of enforced Disappearances
Veteran poet Balkrishna Garg was honoured with the second edition of Harikrishna Devsare Baalsahitya Award 2015 for his collection of poems for children titled ‘Baal Geet’. He was conferred with the award by Sahitya Akademi President Vishwanath Prasad Tiwari and National Book Trust Chairman Baldeo Bhai Sharm. The award comprised cash prize of Rs 75,000, a shawl and a citation. Harikrishna Devsare was one of the foremost writers of Hindi children’s literature and had devoted his entire life in creating children’s literature in Hindi. He passed away in 2013.
Spelling Errors Frequently asked in SSC / Banking Examinations. This will help us improve our spellings of words we use on daily / regular basis. These are generally asked for 5 marks. otherwise correct spelling is very important if you want to create a good impression in your writing and get the right meaning across. Here is a list of some of the most commonly misspelled words, to help you learn to spell them correctly.
A : accessible accidentally accessory accessories accommodate accommodation acquaintance acquire acquitted address advertisement advisor aggression aggressive aggressor agreeable alcohol allege amend amendment apologise apology apparent arctic argument average
B: basically beautiful beauty beautify beginning belief believable believe benefited burglar burglary business
C: cemetery cemeteries changeable chaos colleague committee comparative comparison conceive conscientious consensus consensual controversy controversies controversial correspondence council credible
D: deceive deceit definite definitely dependent desperate desperately description developed difference disappoint disappointment discipline
E :eighth efficient embarrass embarrassment emigrate environment exaggerate excitement existence experience extraordinary extreme
F: favourite fascinate fascination foreign fluorescent fluorescence friend fulfill fulfils fulfilling fulfilled fulfillment
G: gauge government grateful guarantee guaranteeing guaranteed guard
Download E-book: Click Here
| REVOLUTION | TERMS |
| GREEN REVOLUTION | AGRICULTURE |
| GOLDEN REVOLUTIN | HOTICULTURE |
| WHITE REVOLUTION | MILK |
| BROWN REVOLUTION | SOFT DRINKS |
| YELLOW REVOLUTION | OIL PRODUCTION |
| BLUE REVOLUTION | FISHERIES |
| BLACK REVOLUTION | PETROLIUM |
| PINK REVOLUTION | ONION |
| GREY REVOLUTION | FERTILIZER |
| SILVER REVOLUTION | EGG PRODUCTION |
| EVERGREE /SECOND GREENREVOLUTION | AGRICULTURE |
| ROUND REVOLUTION | POTATO |
| RED REVOLUTION | MEAT & TOMATO |
| API CULTURE | BEE PRODUCTION |
| FLORI CULTURE | FLOWER PRODUCTION |
| SARI CULTURE | SILK PRODUCTION |
| VITI CULTURE | GRAPS PRODUCTION |
| FISHI CULTURE | FISH PRODUCTION |
How to Apply LIC ADO
Candidates can apply online only from 15.12.2015 to 05.01.2016 and no other mode of application will be accepted.
IMPORTANT POINTS TO BE NOTED BEFORE REGISTRATION
Before applying online, candidates should
i) Scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph and signature adhere to the required specifications as given in Annexure III.
ii) Have a valid personal email ID and mobile no., which should be kept active till the completion of this Recruitment Process. LIC may send call letters for the Examination etc. through the registered e-mail ID. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID and
mobile no. before applying on-line and must maintain that email account and mobile number.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
iii) The examination will be conducted online in venues given in the respective call letters. No request for change of centre/venue/date/session for Examination shall be entertained.
iv) LIC, however, reserves the right to cancel any of the Examination Centers and/ or add some other Centers, at its discretion, depending upon the response, administrative feasibility, etc.
v) LIC also reserves the right to allot the candidate to any centre other than the one he/she has opted for.
vi) Candidate will appear for the examination at an Examination Centre at his/her own risks and expenses and LIC will not be responsible for any injury or losses etc. of any nature. Candidate should select only one centre and indicate the name of the centre in the application form. Choice of centre once exercised by the
candidate will be final.
vii) If sufficient number of candidates does not opt for a particular centre for “Online” examination, LIC reserves the right to allot any other adjunct centre to those candidates OR if the number of candidates is more than the capacity available for online exam for a centre, LIC reserves the right to allot any other centre to the
candidate.
viii) Candidates will be informed accordingly in case of any change in the date /centre/venue of examination by e-mail and SMS.
ix) The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include movement of candidates, delay in test. Conduct of a reexam is at the absolute discretion of test conducting body. Candidates will not have any claim for a re-test. Candidates not willing to move or not willing to participate in the delayed process of test delivery shall be summarily rejected from the process..
x) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of the selection process will lead of disqualification of the candidate from the selection process and he/she will not be allowed to appear in any LIC recruitment process in the future. If such instances go undetected
during the current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with retrospective effect.
xi) APPLICATION FEES/ INTIMATION CHARGES (NON REFUNDABLE)
Recipients of 2014-15 BCCI Awards
Every year World Braille Day is being observed across the world on 4 January to mark the birth anniversary of Louis Braille, inventor of Braille script or Braille code. Observance of the day helps people to spread the importance of Braille language and also help people to produce works in this language to allow visually impaired people to read the works
Metropolitan Stock Exchange of India Limited (MSEI) on 22 February 2016 appointed Udai Kumar as its Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The appointment was approved by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
The SEBI’s approval comes after a stringent short-listing process and interviews by the selection committee to select a suitable candidate for the role.

Theme of the Budget Overcoming challenges – Reorganize, Restructure Rejuvenate Indian Railways: ‘Chalo, Milkar Kuch Naya Karen’
Three pillars of the strategy i.e. Nav Arjan – New revenues, Nav Manak – New norms, Nav Sanrachna – New Structures.
Full E-Book Railway Budget Click here
The syllabus for the ASM written examination will be generally in a prescribed format Math Questions on Mathematics are designed to test accuracy in rapidity in working. These will mostly be questions in Arithmetic & Candidates are expected to possess a broad knowledge of current events and matters of general interest, particularly relating to India, including Indian Railways. The questions are designed to test the candidate’s power of reasoning and his ability to draw conclusions.
Full question download: RRB Kolkata ASM Question Paper

NEW DELHI: The government on Monday released revised pensionary benefits under One Rank One Pension (OROP) to over two lakh beneficiaries drawing service or disability pension. The amount along with first instalment of arrears had been released and credited by the Defence Ministry to the accounts of pensioners on March 1, 2016.
“In the case of remaining 1,46,335 family pensioners drawing pension from Departmental Pension Drawing Officers ( DPDOs), payment along with arrears is expected to be released by March end. Banks are under process of revision work,” a Ministry of Defence press release explains.
The total additional annual financial increase for grant of One Rank One Pension (OROP) is Rs 7488.70 crores. The total amount on account of arrears to be paid for the period July 1, 2014 to December 31, 2015 is Rs 10925.11 crores.
The release states,” Out of total annual liability of Rs 7488.70 crores, Personnel Below Officer Rank (PBOR) family pensioners shall get Rs 6,405.59 crores, which works out to 85.5% of total expenditure of OROP.”
Due to increase in defence pension budget, the additional liability for current financial year 2015-16 shall be Rs 4,721.34 crores which will increase the current defence pension liability of Rs 60,238 crores to Rs. 64,959.34 crores for the year 2015-16.
The student leader in his fiery address took a dig at PM Modi, the BJP, Smriti Irani and RSS along with emphasizing his stand on wanting “freedom in India, not freedom from India”. Here are the top 10 quotes from his speech:
# We will fight for Umar (Khalid) and Anirban (Bhattacharya). Let the courts decide what is ‘deshdroh’ (anti-national) and what is ‘deshbhakti’ (patriotism), Madam Smriti Irani will not decide this because we are not her children.
# Modiji was talking about Stalin and Khrushchev in Parliament. When I heard him speaking I felt like jumping into the TV screen, grabbing his suit and saying — ‘Modiji, please speak about Hitler a little’. Forget about Hitler, talk about Mussolini whose black cap you wear, who (RSS founder M S) Golwalkar sahab went to meet.
# They said I raised slogans about freedom. They asked me why I wanted freedom from India. But I want to set this straight. I do not want freedom from India, but freedom in India.
# Modiji tweeted Satyamev Jayate. I also say ‘PMji, I have huge differences in opinion with you, but Satyamev Jayate is from the Constitution. Today, I also say to you Satyamev Jayate’.
# A BJP MP in parliament said that ‘jawans are dying on the border’. I want to ask you. Is your brother there? In this country, the crores of farmers who are dying.
# Do not try to separate the constable, the farmer, the soldier, poor people like me, by creating distorted binaries. I salute the soldiers but have you ever thought of their families, the families of farmers who are forced to commit suicide?
# I told my mother that she took a nice dig at Modiji. But my mother said she was not taking a dig at him, she was only expressing her pain. Those who understand that pain, cry, and those who do not understand, laugh.
# If you speak against this anti-people government, then their cyber-cell will send doctored videos, they will abuse you and count how many condoms there are in your dustbin.
# 69 per cent of the country do not believe in your (BJP) ideology. Even the 31 per cent who voted for you were fooled by your jumla. We Indians forget easily but we still remember all the ‘jumla’ used during election campaign.
# All this was planned. All this was planned to derail the movement seeking justice for Rohith Vemula and Occupy UGC (the recent agitation against the proposed scrapping of PhD fellowships). I have not said this before, but my family earns Rs 3,000 a month. Without JNU, I would not be able to do a PhD.
Directions to Solve: In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
Download practice Set Click here
1. In the medieval India Iqta was
(a) hereditary assignment
(b) the personal property of the nodels
(c) generally transferable revenue assignment
(d) Jagir seized by the State after the death of the holder.
2. The Indus or the Harappan culture is
(a) Neolithic culture
(b) palaeolithic culture
(c) chalcolithic culture
(d) post chalcolithic culture
3. Which one of the following mentioned division of the Mauryan Society into seven classes?
(a) Ashoka’s Edicts
(b) Indica
(c) Kautilaya’s Arthshastra
(d) Vishnu Purana
4. Which of the following Jain doctrines is /are considered as the original contribution of Mahavira?
1.Non-violence(ahimsa)
2.Truth
3.Nonstealing
4.Sexual continence (brahamacharya)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 4 only
5. The concept of Autaravad is associated with
(a) Hinayana (b) Shaivism
(c) Tantricism (d) Vaishnavism
6. The Varnas came to be transformed into the hereditary castes during the
(a) Later Vedic period
(b) Gupta period
(c) Mauryan period
(d) Vedic period
7. Considers the following statements:
Assertion (A) : Human figure was the pivot of the sculpture of the Gupta period.
Reason (R) : In the Gupta period, the artists lost interest in nature. Of the the statements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
8. In ancient and early medieval India, Agrahara denoted
(a) Jaina monastic establishment
(b) Secular land grants
(c) Tax free land gifted to temples
(d) Tax free village possessed byBrahman
9. Consider the following Mughal rulers after Aurangzeb:
(1) Alamgir II (2) Farrukh Siyar
(3) Jahandar Shah (4) Shah Alam II
The correct answer chronological sequences of these rulers is:
(a) 3, ,2, 4, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4
Full MCQ Question Download Click: Medolic History
Cheque Truncation System (CTS) was pioneered by the Reserve Bank of India – RBI, for faster clearing of cheques. It involves sending an electronic image of the cheque together with its Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) data, and other relevant fields like date of presentation, presenting bank’s name, etc. This procedure would eliminate the need for physical transfer of cheques across branches, except in certain cases
Veteran Film Actor and Director Manoj Kumar will be conferred the 47th Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2015. A five member jury consisted of Lata Mangeshkar, Asha Bhosle, Salim Khan, Nitin Mukesh and Anup Jalota unanimously recommended Kumar for the prestigious Award. Manoj Kumar is remembered for his films Hariyali Aur Raasta, Woh Kaun Thi, Himalaya Ki God Mein, Do Badan, Upkaar, Patthar Ke Sanam, Neel Kamal, Purab Aur Paschim, Roti Kapda Aur Makaan, and Kranti. He is known for acting in and directing films with patriotic themes.
World Radio Day was observed globally on 13 February 2016 with the theme Radio in Times of Emergency and Disaster. To mark the occasion, various activities conducted across India celebrating importance of radio in the day to day life. In Odisha, a two-day annual international event Outreach International Radio Fair 2016 was inaugurated in Bhubaneswar.
The World Autism Awareness Day 2016 was celebrated across the world on 2 April 2016. The 2016 theme for the day is Autism and the 2030 Agenda: Inclusion and Neurodiversity.
World Autism Awareness Day is an internationally recognised day, encouraging Member States of the United Nations to take measures to raise awareness about children with autism throughout the world.
It was designated by the United Nations General Assembly resolution62/139. World Autism Awareness Day, passed in council on 1 November 2007 and adopted on 18 December 2007.
This resolution was passed and adopted without a vote in the UN General Assembly, mainly as a supplement to previous UN initiatives to improve human rights.
World Autism Day is also one of only four official health-specific UN Days
Christine Lagarde has been re-appointed as its Managing Director for a second five-year term after an uncontested election. The Executive Board of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on Friday selected 60-year-old Lagarde to serve as IMF Managing Director for a second five-year term starting on July 5, 2016, IMF said in a statement.
The Board’s decision was taken by consensus. France’s former finance minister secured early backing from many of the fund’s most powerful members when the IMF’s executive board launched the selection process in January, keeping other contenders from making an alternate bid and ensuring her a second term.
In order to enhance economic cooperation and strengthen financial stability, RBI has extended the USD 2 billion currency swap arrangement to SAARC nations till mid-November 2017. The Reserve Bank said that it has decided to extend the SAARC Currency Swap Arrangement till November 14, 2017. Under the arrangement, RBI is to offer swap arrangement up to an overall amount of USD 2 billion both in foreign currency and Indian rupee.
The SAARC Swap Arrangement was offered by the RBI to SAARC nations on November 15, 2012. The facility will be available to all SAARC member countries — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. The swap amount available to various member central banks has been arrived at broadly based on two months import cover subject to a floor of USD 100 million and a maximum of USD 400 million per country
President Pranab Mukherjee presented the National Geoscience Awards – 2014 today on Tuesday at a function held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Speaking on the occasion, Mukherjee said that availability and use of minerals in any country has been one of the factors determining self-sufficiency of its economy. These natural resources have to be explored, extracted, refined and processed to use them for national building. At the same time, we must understand that sustenance of mankind depends only on environmentally sustainable mining practices. Our effort to use our natural resources should be informed by the dangers of natural and man made disasters. He stated that he was happy to note that the Geo scientists of the country are working hard to meet these challenges. The diverse fields work of the awardees are testimony to this inherent spread of the geo scientific developments in the country.
Here is the list of National Geo science Award – 2014
| RECIPIENT OF AWARD | DISCIPLINE | ||
1 | Prof. Ashok Kumar Singhvi | Award For Excellence | |
2 | Dr. Muduru Lachhana Dora | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
3 | Shri Biswajeet Lenka | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
4 | Shri Syed Ajaz Ahmad | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
5 | Shri Hemraj Suryavanshi | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
6 | Shri Vijay V. Mugal | Coal, Lignite and Coal Bed Methane | |
| Discovery & Exploration | |||
7 | Shri Lalit Khasdeo | Coal, Lignite and Coal Bed Methane | |
| Discovery & Exploration | |||
8 | Shri Kaushik Rajbanshi | Coal, Lignite and Coal Bed Methane | |
| Discovery & Exploration | |||
9 | Dr. Abhijit Mukherjee | Groundwater Exploration | |
10 | Dr. Satyendra Kumar Singh | Mining Technology | |
11 | Prof. Arvind Kumar Mishra | Mining Technology | |
12 | Dr. Sreenivas Tumulri | Mineral Beneficiation | |
13 | Dr. Swati Mohanty | Mineral Beneficiation | |
14 | Dr. Khanindra Pathak | Sustainable Mineral Development | |
15 | Dr. Dewashish Upadhyay | Basic Geosciences | |
16 | Dr. Prasanta Sanyal | Basic Geosciences | |
17 | Dr. Rajeev Patnaik | Basic Geosciences | |
18 | Shri Milind V. Dhakate | Applied Geology | |
19 | Shri Gautam Saha | Applied Geology | |
20 | Shri Rashtrapal H. Chavhan | Applied Geology | |
21 | Shri Prashant Tukaram Ilamkar | Applied Geology | |
22 | Dr. Simanchal Padhy | Geophysics / Applied Geophysics | |
23 | Dr. Sandeep Kumar Gupta | Geophysics / Applied Geophysics | |
24 | Dr. Nathani Basavaiah | Geo-Environmental studies | |
25 | Dr. Balakrishnan Nair T. M | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
26 | Dr. Francis P.A. | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
27 | Dr. Harikumar R | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
28 | Sandhya K. G. | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
29 | Dr. R. Venkatesan | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
30 | M Arul Muthiah | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
31 | Dr KP Krishnan | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
32 | Shri B. Kesavakumar | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
33 | Dr Indra Sekhar Sen | Young Scientist Award | |
The World Consumer Rights Day (WCRD) 2016 was observed on 15 March 2016. The day was celebrated by the Consumers International (CI) across the world with the theme Antibiotics off the Menu. The theme was taken up to ensure that fast food companies make a global commitment to stop the sale of meat raised with the routine use of antibiotics important to human medicine.
In an examination three type question:
Tabular form arrangement
Line or Floor arrangement
Circular Form
Direction(1 to 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow:
I. Five friends P, Q, R. S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi, Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport of Bus. Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.
II. The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat,
III. R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.
IV. S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train.
V. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.
VI. Bus Train Car Boat Aeroplane Name Chennai Calcutta Delhi Bangalore Hyderabad
Q.1) Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct ?
(a) P – Bus
(b) Q – Aeroplane
(c) R – Car
(d) S – Boat
(e) T
Q.2) Which of the following combinations is true for S?
(a) Delhi – Bus
(b) Chennai – Bus
(c) Chennai – Boat
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Q.3) Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct ?
(a) Delhi – Bus
(b) Calcutta – Aeroplane
(c) Bangalore — Car
(d) Chennai – Boat
(e) Hyderabad — Bus
Q.4) The person travelling to Delhi went by which of the following modes ?
(a) Bus
(b) Train
(c) Aeroplane
(d) Car
(e) Boat
Q.5) Who among the following travelled to Delhi?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Download Full Question sitting Arrangement
There shall be single stage common CBT (Computer Based Test) for all the notified categories followed by aptitude test/typing skill test. Online applications are invited from Indian nationals for over 18000 jobs for the graduate category. Applications complete in all respects should be submitted only online to the concerned Railway Recruitment Board
Question Type: MCQ
Medium: English, Hindi or Urdu
Mode: Computer Based Testing (CBT) at designated Centers of RRB. Number of Questions: 100 Duration: 90 Minutes (1:30 Hours)
Negative Marking: 1/3 Marks
RRB Online Exam (CBT – Computer Based Testing) Syllabus 2016:
General Knowledge
Current Affairs
Book
Authors
Abbreviations
Awards
International & National Organizations
Budget
History
Geography
Environment
Indian Economy
General Science
etc.
Arithmetic (Numerical Ability)
Data Interpretation
Profit & Loss
Simple Interest
Mensuration
HCF & LCM
Time and Work
Time and Distance
Simplification
Algebra
Percentage
Number System
Decimal Fractions
Compound Interest etc.
General Intelligence
Verbal Reasoning
Mathematical Operations
Classification
General Reasoning
Mental Ability
Age Calculations
Direction Test
Arithmetic Reasoning
Age related Problems
Number Ranking
Coding Decoding
Alphabet Series
Decision Making
Blood Relations
Nonverbal Reasoning
Mirror & Water Image
Paper Cutting and Folding
Figure competitions,
Embedded & Grouping
Analogy
Classification
Series
Dice and Cube
Puzzale
Former Lok Sabha Speaker Purno Agitok Sangma died on 4 March 2016. He was 68 years old. He is survived by daughter Agatha Sangma, former Minister of State in the UPA-led Government and Conrad Sangma, the Leader of the Opposition in the Meghalaya Legislative Assembly.
In independent India’s history, he was the first tribal person to hold the post of cabinet minister in 1995. He was also the first tribal person to become the Lok Sabha Speaker in 1996.
Logical Reasoning Aptitude questions answers (MCQ) are important for BANK PO, Clerk, IBPS, SBI-PO, RBI, MBA, MAT, CAT, IIFT, IGNOU, SSC CGL, CBI, CPO, CLAT, CTET, NDA, CDS, Specialist Officers and other competitive exams. Statement and Argument Questions Answers (MCQ) of Logical Reasoning include questions based on Statements and Arguments which are important for all competitive exams.
Directions to Solve: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
1.Statement: “You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation.” – A line in an appointment letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer.
II. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
2.Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
3.Statement: “In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our employees.” – In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.
Assumptions:
I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
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Visakhapatnam is getting ready to host a major international event – the International Fleet Review 2016 – in the first week of February. Earlier this month, the city hosted the Partnership Summit of the CII and the two events have given the image of the city a great fillip.
The IFR 2016 will be held here from February 4 to Feb 8 and more than 90 ships, 24 of them foreign, will participate in the event. It is intended to showcase the prowess and capabilities of the Indian Navy. President Pranab Mukherjee will review the fleet on February 6. INS Sumitra, an indigenously built naval offshore vessel, will be the presidential yacht.
On Feb 4, the Maritime Exhibition and IFR village will be inaugurated by Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu. A function will be held for the visiting chiefs of naval staffs from different countries and for other officials. On Feb 5, the AP Governor Narasimhan will participate in the opening ceremony. Cultural shows and performances will be held throughout the day in the city.
On Feb. 6 the main event – the review and the presidential banquet – will be conducted. On Feb. 7, there will be an international maritime conference in which Union Defence Minister Parrikar will participate. There will also be an operational demonstration and international city parade on the day in which Prime Minister Narendra Modi will participate.
During the final stages of the review, a mobile column of warships and submarines will steam past the presidential yacht. Several enthralling water front activities by sail boats, water skiing, a display by marine commandos and helicopter demonstrations will form part of the review.
On Feb. 8, the international maritime conference will conclude and there will also be a closing ceremony in which the Chief of the Naval Staff, Admiral R.K Dhowan, will participate.
Security has been tightened in the city in view of the IFR and it is only second time the IFR is being conducted in the country – the first IFR being conducted off Mumbai coast in February 2001. The dolphin has been chosen as the mascot for the IFR depicting friendship across oceans and the theme is “United by oceans.”
Nathuram Godse – The Story of an Assassin: Anup Ashok Sardesai
The book titled Nathuram Godse – The Story of an Assassin authored by Anup Ashok Sardesai was released on 30 January 2016. The book was released at the government-owned Ravindra Bhavan in Margao, Goa by BJP leader and the bhavan’s chairman Damodar Naik.
Union Ministry of Labour and Employment announced the Prime Minister Shram Awards for the year 2014. There are nine nominations for the Shram Bhushan Award, Nineteen nominations for Shram Vir or Shram Veerangana and twenty six nominations for Shram Shree or Shram Devi Awards.
Even though, the total number of Shram Awards is 32, the number of workers receiving the awards is 54 which Included 3 women, as some of the awards have been shared by workers and/or teams of workers consisting of more than one worker. These include 36 workers from the public sector and 18 workers from the private sector.
Shram awards were set up by the Union Government in 1985 to recognize the outstanding contributions of workers in both public and private sectors.
SHRAM RATNA
This is the highest award (one in number) among the Shram Awards and carries a cash award of 2 lakh rupees with a Sanad. For the year 2014, this prestigious award was not awarded to any one as screening committee did not consider any nominee eligible for the award.
SHRAM BHUSHAN
Total number of these awardees is nine. It carries a cash award of one lakh rupees and a Sanad. Nine nominations were found suitable for the award for the year 2014 in respect of Public Sector Undertaking and Private Sector.
And Shram Veer/Veerangana awards carry a cash prize of 60000 rupees and a Sanad. Shram Shree/Devi Awards comprise of a cash prize of 40000 rupees and a Sanad.
PRIME MINISTERS SHRAM AWARDS
The objective of the Prime Ministers Shram Awards is to recognize the outstanding contributions made by workmen as defined in the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 in organizations both in public and private sector and who have distinguished record of performance, devotion to duty of a high order, specific contribution in the field of productivity, proven innovative abilities, presence of mind and exceptional courage and also to the workmen who have made supreme sacrifice of laying down their lives in the conscientious discharge of their duties.
The Awards will be presented to the workmen as defined in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and employed in the Departmental Undertakings of the Central and State Governments, Central and State Public Sector Undertakings as also private sector and having minimum of 500 employees on roll and engaged in manufacturing and productive processes and whose performance is assessable. Workmen solely engaged in routine service duties would not be eligible.
1. Coverage should be given to the workers in all sectors of industry. Persons working in important Departmental/Undertakings like those under the Department of Defence Production and Supplies, Ministry of Heavy Industry and Public Enterprises etc. should be given adequate coverage.
2. Adequate representation would be given to women and handicapped workers who have made outstanding contributions in the areas specified above.
3. The organizations recommending their workmen for the “PRIME MINISTER’S SHRAM AWARDS” should satisfy themselves regarding the eligibility of the workman for this prestigious National Award and issue a certificate to that effect under the signature and seal of the Head of the Organization/Chief Executive Officer where the workman is employed
India and Thailand recently held a joint task force meeting in Delhi to deepen maritime and defence cooperation which covers a range of issues, including ocean safety, disaster management and anti-terror drills. The delegations also confirmed that India and Thailand will soon hold naval exercises in the Andaman Seas.
That apart, both sides agreed to fast track the ongoing trilateral land corridor project connecting Thailand-Myanmar and India.
These bilateral and multilateral infrastructure and security projects will receive further boost in the coming months when the entire top brass of the Thai leadership, including Prime Minister Gen. Chan-o-cha, is expected to visit New Delhi.
Q1. For a freely falling body, the
(a)velocity increases
(b) acceleration increases
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
Q2. If we disregard any air resistance for a falling body, then it is right to say that it will fall at constant
(a) velocity
(b) speed
(c) distances each successive second
(d) acceleration
Q3. Walking comes naturally to humans, but force that lets you to walk on a floor is the
(a) friction force of the floor on your foot.
(b) reaction force of your foot against the floor.
(c) both A and B
(d) neither A nor B
Q4. An animal gets ______ by gliding.
(a) better control its fall.
(b) gain forward thrust.
(c) reduce its inertia.
(d) fly at reduced speed.
Q5. A moving particle will continue to move with constant _____ if no forces are acting on it
(a) acceleration
(b) momentum
(c) impulse
(d) all of the above
Q6. Every moving electorn is surrounded with:
(a) a magnetic field
(b) an electric field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
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Q.1.Which of the following is reasons for the identification of life reflected in the later Vedic texts with the painted grey ware culture?
1. Material culture of the two corresponds
2. Geographical distribution of the two correspond
3. Chronological span of the two corresponds
4. Both evolved locally
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.2.Which of the following characterized the later Vedic period?
1. Extensive burning of forests
2. Manufacture of iron artifacts
3. Knowledge of seasons
4. Large scale irrigation
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.3. Which of the following countries were polluting and were not to be visited except for pilgrimage according to Baudhayana?
1. Vanga 2. Saurashtra
3. Surasena 4. Magadha
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.4.Which of the following Harappan crops is believed to have diffused from West Asia?
1. Wheat 2. Rice
3. Cotton 4. Barley
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.5.Which of the following Harappan sites is located in the Kutch region?
(a) Besalpur and Surkotada
(b) Rangpur and Rojidi
(c) Allabadino and Balakot
(d) Lothal and Surkotada
Q.6.Which of the following is/are true regarding Buddism?
1. It did not reject varna and jati
2. It challenged the highest social ranking of Brahmana varna
3. It regarded certain crafts as low
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
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In competitive examination nonverbal reasoning vital role to play score high and some rule follow to convert image into water Image.
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World Cancer Day (WCD) 2016 was observed across the world on 4 February 2016. The day was observed with year’s theme – We can. I can.
World Cancer Day unites the world’s population in the fight against cancer. The tagline of the theme reflects on what you can do and asks to make a pledge and take action and make a difference in fight against cancer.
Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar was selected for the prestigious K Veeramani Award for Social Justice 2015. Kumar is chosen for the award for his contribution towards social justice as Chief Minister. The award is given away by Periyar International, a Chicago-based voluntary organisation. However, the date and venue of the award function are yet to be decided.
Former chief secretary of Gujarat DJ Pandian was appointed vice-president and chief investment officer of the newly-created Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
His appointment as vice-president and chief investment officer was approved by AIIB. The retired 1981-batch IAS officer of Gujarat cadre had worked on deputation with the World Bank in Washington. He was also the MD of Gujarat State Petroleum Corporation (GSPC).
International Women’s Day is celebrated around the world. The official website for the day says: “Celebrate the social, economic, cultural and political achievement of women. “Yet let’s also be aware progress has slowed in many places across the world, so urgent action is needed to accelerate gender parity. Leaders across the world are pledging to take action as champions of gender parity.
The 13th Summit between the European Union and India took place in Brussels on 30 March 2016. Mr Jean-Claude Juncker, President of the European Commission, Mr Donald Tusk, President of the European Council, and Mr Narendra Modi, Prime Minister of India, participated in the Summit.
The 13th Summit between the European Union and India took place in Brussels on 30 March 2016.
Mr Jean-Claude Juncker, President of the European Commission, Mr Donald Tusk, President of the European Council, and Mr Narendra Modi, Prime Minister of India, participated in the Summit.
The EU High Representative of the Union for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy / Vice-President of the Commission, Ms Federica Mogherini, and the Minister of Commerce and Industry of India, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman, also attended.
The EU and India decided to step up their cooperation to fight climate change and adopted the ‘Joint Declarationbetween the EU and India on a Clean Energy and Climate Partnership’.
Finance Minister Arun Jaitley has presented the Union Budget 2016. With an eye on supporting the small tax-payer and the small investor, the Minister announced a slew of schemes, and income tax exemptions. Finance Minister Arun Jaitley did not change income tax slabs in his third Budget, but he did tweak some deductions and announced multiple new cesses, which will impact tax liability for the common man.
Tax
Personal Finance
Social
Health
Education
Energy
Investments and infrastructure
Agriculture
Banking
Following is a list of items that will turn costlier
1.Cars
2.Cigarettes
3.Cigar
4.Tobacco
5.All services like bill payments, eating out, air travel
6.Ready made garments and branded apparel of more than Rs 1,000
7.Gold and Silver; jewelery articles excluding silver
8.Water including mineral water, aerated water containing added sugar or sweetening matter
9.Goods and services above Rs 2 lakh in cash
10.Aluminum foil
11.Air Travel
12. Plastic bags and sacks
13.Ropeway, cable car rides
14.Imported imitation jewellery
15.Industrial solar water heater
16.Legal services
17.Lottery tickets
18.Traveling by hiring stage carriage
19.Hiring of packers & movers
20.E-reading devices
21. Instruments for VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol)
22.Imported Golf Cars
23. Gold bars
Following is a list items that will turn cheaper
1.Footwear
2.Solar lamp
3.Router, broadband modems and set top boxes, Digital video recorder and CCTV cameras
4.Hybrid electric vehicles
5.Sterilised dialyser
6.Low cost houses with less than 60 sq mt carpet area
7.Hiring of folk artists for performance
8.Refrigerated containers
9.Pension plans
10.Microwave ovens
11.Sanitary pads
12.Braille paper.
World Tuberculosis Day (WTD) 2016 was globally observed on 24 March 2016 with the theme Unite to End TB. The theme was selected against the backdrop of the adoption of the 2030 Sustainable Development Agenda by the United Nations General Assembly in September 2015. The Goal 3 of the Agenda aspires to ensure health and well-being for all, including a bold commitment to end the epidemics of AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria and other communicable diseases by 2030.
The 30th edition of the Surajkund International Crafts Mela began at Surajkund in Faridabad, Haryana on 1 February 2016. The event that will continue till 15 February 2016 was inaugurated by Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar.
Telangana was selected as the Theme State and will showcase its unique culture and rich heritage and about 300 artistes from the state will perform different folk arts.
Surajkund International Crafts Mela
The first edition of the Surajkund Crafts Mela was hosted in 1987. The Mela is organized by the Surajkund Mela Authority and Haryana Tourism in collaboration with Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture and External Affairs.
Traditional craftsmen (artists, painters, weavers and sculptors) from all parts of the country participate in this annual mela and showcase some of the most exquisite handlooms and handicrafts of India and culture. Handmade fabrics soaked in ethnic colours make an eye catching display for the visitors.
Every year a theme State and a Partner Nation is chosen. Theme State is chosen with a view to promote and focus the art, craft and cuisine of the theme State whereas Partner Nation is chosen to showcases the best of that nation’s art, culture, traditions and heritage.
For the first time in 2009, Egypt became the Focus Nation and the idea of introducing a country/nation as a Partner Nation was mooted. Thailand was introduced as the first Partner Nation during the 26th Surajkund Crafts Mela 2012.
Q1. Since 1950-51 the annual growth rate that the Indian Railways have recorded in terms of freight traffic is approximately
(a) 3%
(b) 4%
(c) 4.3%
(d) 6%
Ans. C)
Q2. Railway finances separated from general revenues in the year
(a) 1924–25
(b) 1930–31
(c) 1950–51
(d) 1951–52
Ans. a)
Q3. What is the maximum speed touched by the fastest train in India?
(a) 120 km/h
(b) 130 km/h
(c) 135 km/h
(d) l40 km/h
Ans. d)
Q4. Which one is not a port on the east coast?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Kochi
(c) Paradeep
(d) Vishakhapatnam
Ans. b)
Q5. ‘One of the most daunting engineering tasks under-taken by the Indian railways, across the wilderness of the Eastern Ghats’. This description fits the
(a) Konkan railway connecting Trivandrum with Mumbai
(b) Koraput–Rayagada rail line
(c) Guwahati–Silchar rail line
(d) Dibrugarh–Gorakhpur rail line
Ans. b)
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Ministry of Culture released a commemorative coin of 150 rupees and a circulation coin of 10 rupees on Lala Lajpat Rai. The Commemorative Coin of 150 rupees is made of Quaternary alloy with diameter of 44 mm and weight of 35 grams.
The coin was released by Dr Mahesh Sharma, Minister of state (Independent charge) Minister of Tourism & Culture at New Delhi on the occasion of 150th birth anniversary of Lala Lajpat Rai. Ministry of culture has been celebrating the 150th birth anniversary of Rai from 28 January 2015 to 28 January 2016

The 9th Indo-Nepal Combined Battalion level Military Training Exercise ‘Surya Kiran’ will be conducted from February 8 to 21, 2016 at Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand. The aim of the exercise is to enhance inter-operability between Indian and the Nepalese Army units. The training will also focus on Humanitarian Aid and Disaster Relief including medical and aviation support. Both the Armies will stand to benefit mutually from shared experiences.
Sikkim chief minister Pawan Chamling was conferred the ‘Yug Kavi Siddhicharan Award’ by Nepal Prime Minister KP Sharma Oli on Sunday for his commendable contributions in promoting Nepali literature in India.
Siddhicharan Shrestha Academy organised an event in Kathmandu on the occasion of 105th birth anniversary of the late poet Shrestha.
The award carries a certificate of appreciation and a sum of NRs 100,000. Chamling, 65, was not present to receive the award
“On this World Environment Day, I urge people and governments everywhere to overcome indifference, combat greed and act to preserve our natural heritage for the benefit of this and future generations.” — Secretary-General, Ban Ki-moon
World Environment Day aims to inspire more people than ever before to take action to prevent the growing strain on planet Earth’s natural systems from reaching the breaking point. The2016 theme highlights the fight against the illegal trade in wildlife, which erodes precious biodiversity and threatens the survival of elephants, rhinos and tigers, as well as many other species. It also undermines our economies, communities and security. This year’s slogan “Go Wild for Life” encourages you to spread the word about wildlife crime and the damage it does, and to challenge all those around you to do what they can to prevent it.
The booming illegal trade in wildlife products is eroding Earth’s precious biodiversity, robbing us of our natural heritage and driving whole species to the brink of extinction. The killing and smuggling is also undermining economies and ecoystems, fuelling organized crime, and feeding corruption and insecurity across the globe.
Wildlife crime endangers iconic elephants, rhinos, tigers, gorillas and sea turtles. In 2011, a subspecies of Javan rhino went extinct in Vietnam, while the last western black rhinos vanished from Cameroon the same year. Great apes have disappeared from Gambia, Burkina Faso, Benin and Togo, and other countries could quickly follow. Lesser-known victims include helmeted hornbills and pangolins, as well as wild orchids and timbers like Rosewood – flowers and timber are also considered wildlife! Learn more about this year’s World Environment Day theme.
This year’s World Environment Day celebrations are hosted by Angola, a country seeking to restore its elephant herds, conserve Africa’s biodiversity-rich wildlife, and safeguard the environment as it continues to rebuild after more than a quarter-century of civil war.
“Angola is delighted to host World Environment Day, which will focus on an issue close to our hearts,” said Angolan Environment Minister Maria de Fatima Jardim. “The illegal wildlife trade, particularly the trade in ivory and rhino horn, is a major problem across our continent. By hosting this day of celebration and awareness-raising, we aim to send a clear message that such practices will soon be eradicated.” See more information on the host country.
Australia on 18 June 2016 won Hero Hockey Champions Trophy 2016 at the Lee Valley Hockey and Tennis Centre in London. It defeated India 1-0 in a shoot-out.
The game finished with the score locked at 0-0 but later Australia scored a goal in the shoot-out reducing the score to 1-0 and won the final match to win the Gold medal. Australia’s Blake Govers missed a penalty stroke, while India was dominant in the third and fourth quarter before losing the shoot-out.
With this victory, Australia claimed the Champions Trophy title for the 14th time.
Germany defeated Great Britain to win the bronze medal.
1. Table
2. Square Table
Practice Set – 1
3. Square Root
Practice Set – 2
4. Cube Table & Cube Root.
Practice Set – 3
5. VBODMAS
Practice Set – 4
Practice Set – 5
Answers Key – 5
6. Series
7. Fraction
8. Approximate
BODMAS rule defines the correct sequence in which operations are to be performed in a given mathematical expression to find its value.
In BODMAS,
B = Bracket,
O = Order (Powers, Square Roots, etc.)
DM = Division and Multiplication (left-to-right)
AS = Addition and Subtraction (left-to-right)
This means, to simplify an expression, the following order must be followed.
Examples
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Utpal Bora who served as the Executive Director in Mehsana asset, has been appointed as the new Chairman and the Managing Director CMD of Oil India Limited (OIL). Till now the Public Enterprise Selection Board has held two interview for the selection of CMD of OIL. Rupshika Saikia Borah was elected earlier as the CMD but her appointment was rejected by the Prime Minister’s Office. After conducting interview of many more applicants, the PSEB finally selected Utpal Bora as the new CMD. Bora after assuming his office said he will put sincere efforts into generating employment oppurtunities for the youths of Assam.
Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) on 10 June 2016 released the 2016 Global Peace Index (GPI). It is 10th edition of GPI that measured peace, its causes and its economic value during 2015 for 163 countries.
India ranked 141 among the 163 countries with 2.566 GPI score. It showed an improvement in peace building as it held 143th rank in 2014 and 2015.
Highlights of 2016 GPI
• The Index shows that the world became less peaceful in 2015, reinforcing the underlying trend of declining peace over the last decade.
• The GPI records a historically less peaceful and more unequal world in which many countries also improved.
• The countries improved in Peace are 81 while deteriorated counts 79.
• The countries that topped the 2016 GPI for being most peaceful are Iceland (1), Denmark (2), Austria (3), New Zealand (4), Portugal (5), Czech Republic (6), Switzerland (7), Canada (8), Japan (9) and Slovenia (10).
• The least peacepul countries are Pakistan (153), Libya (154), Sudan (155), Ukraine (156), Central African Republic (157), Yemen (158), Somalia (159), Afghanistan (160), Iraq (161), South Sudan (162) and Syria (163).
Pakistan (153rd), Libya (154th), Sudan (155th), Ukraine (156th), Central African Republic (157th), Yemen (158th), Somalia (159th), Afghanistan (160th), Iraq (161st), South Sudan (162nd) and Syria (163rd).
• The majority of the global deterioration is due to the developments in the Middle East and Africa (MENA) which is already the least peaceful region in the world.
• It shows that amidst the global deterioration the world continues to spend enormous resources on creating and containing violence but very little on peace.
• The indicators with the largest yearly deterioration were the impact of terrorism and political instability.
• The countries with the largest deteriorations were Djibouti, Guinea-Bissau, Poland, Burundi, Kazakhstan and Brazil.
• The indicator with the largest improvement is UN peacekeeping funding, while the second largest improvement was recorded in the security officers and police rate indicator.
• UN member states have formally recognised the critical nature of peacefulness in advancing global development for the first time.
• The 17 SDGs are a new set of goals to target poverty, inequality, injustice and climate change by 2030.
• IEP recommends that independent third party organisations provide complimentary support to NSOs and offer a useful benchmark against which to compare results.
Mainstreaming Biodiversity; Sustaining People and their Livelihoods

Biodiversity is the foundation for life and for the essential services provided by ecosystems. It therefore underpins peoples’ livelihoods and sustainable development in all areas of activity, including economic sectors such as agriculture, forestry, fisheries and tourism, among others. By halting biodiversity loss, we are investing in people, their lives and their well-being.
The thirteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (COP 13) to be held in Cancun, Mexico from 4 to 17 December 2016 will focus on the mainstreaming of biodiversity within and across sectors, which is closely linked to this year’s IDB theme.
We invite Parties and organizations that have already initiated national plans for activities to celebrate the International Day for Biological Diversity to keep the Secretariat informed of such plans and other noteworthy activities organized by NGOs or other organizations so that they may be included in these pages.
1. [63 × 54] ÷ 43 = ?
1) 2109.375
2) 2019.375
3) 2209.435
4) 2108.275
5) 2014.275
2. (1.8 * 3.6)/ 0.9 = ?
1) 6.2
2) 8.4
3) 9.2
4) 5.2
5) 7.2
3. (7897 + 4596 + 3128) ÷ 30 = ?
1) 510.7
2) 518.7
3) 520.7
4) 525.7
5) 530.7
4. (104)^2 ÷ ? = 338
1) 1124
2) 1024
3) 961
4) 1089
5) 1156
5. 9880 – ? % of 750 = 9625
1) 34
2) 32
3) 36
4) 30
5) 38
6. 3√103823 = ?
1) 67
2) 37
3) 27
4) 47
5) 57
7. (27894 + 26588 – 13892) ÷ ? = 324720
1) 1.25
2) 0.325
3) 0.75
4) 0.125
5) 0.25
8. 1/8 * 6824 * 1/9 * 279 = ?
1) 27543
2) 26443
3) 26543
4) 28443
5) 26344
9. (28 * 15 – 50)/(25 * 6 / 15) = ?
1) 35
2) 37
3) 39
4) 47
5) 32
10. 46% of 4900 × 0.4% of 1200 = ?
1) 10819.2
2) 10719.2
3) 10809
4) 10919.2
5) 10839
Explanation:
1. 1; ? = 2109.375
2. 5;
? = (1.8 * 3.6)/0.9 = 1.8 * 4 = 7.2
3. 3;
? = (7897 + 4596 + 3128) / 30 = 15621 / 30 = 520.7
4. 2;
√? = (104 * 104)/ 338 = 32
? = 1024
5. 1;
? = 9880 – 9625 = (? * 750)/100
? = (255 * 100)/ 750 = 34
6. 4;
? = 47
7. 4;
? = 0.125
8. 2;
? = 853 × 31 = 26443
9. 2; ? = 370/10 = 37
10. 1; ? = 10819.2
Private sector lender ICICI Bank became the first financial institution in the country to tie up with the BRICS Grouping-promoted New Development Bank (NDB) for a partnership in bond issuances, co-financing, treasury management and human resources. As part of the pact, the two lenders — NDBs first president is ICICI Bank veteran KV Kamath — will look at each other as “preferred partners”.
ICICI Bank and NDB will also leverage a mutually beneficial partnership in other areas such as treasury risk management, account and cash management services and human resource development.
Beyond this, there will be continuous dialogue and regular exchange of information between the two banks for exploring potential partnerships in other areas as well. Headquartered in Shanghai, the NDB began operations with an initial capital of USD 100 billion last year as a multilateral development bank promoted by Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

The United States and India should consider permanently expanding their annual naval exercise to include other like-minded partners as part of their joint cooperation in the Asia-Pacific, a U.S. defense official said earlier this week.
Exercise MALABAR, which initially began as a bilateral naval exercise between the United States and India back in 1992, has at times been expanded to include other partners as well. The 2007 iteration included Japan, Australia, and Singapore, while Tokyo also participated in 2009 and 2014. This year, Japan has been included but Australia has reportedly been left out (See: “Japan to Join US, India in Military Exercises This Year”).
But Robert Scher, the assistant secretary of defense for the Office of Strategy, Plans and Capabilities, told an audience at a Washington, D.C.-based think tank on July 13 that the United States and India should consider permanently expanding the exercise to include these partners instead of doing so on an ad hoc basis. Scher said that expanding the exercise would be one tangible demonstration of Washington and New Delhi working together on maritime security in the Indian Ocean.
About Malabar Exercise 2016
• Malabar 2016 will be conducted with the harbour phase at Sasebo and with the sea phase in the Pacific Ocean.
• The scope of MALABAR-16 includes professional interactions in harbour and a diverse range of activities at sea, including complex surface, sub-surface and air operations.
• This year, four Indian ships are participating in the exercise including INS Satpura, INS Sahyadri, INS Shakti and INS Kirch.
• The ships have embarked one Sea King 42B ASW helicopter and two Chetak utility helicopters.
• The US Navy will be represented by ships from CTF 70 of the USN 7th fleet, which is based at Yokosuka, Japan.
• The CTF will include the aircraft carrier USS John C Stennis (CVN 74), Ticonderoga class Cruiser USS Mobile Bay and Arleigh Burke class destroyers USS Stockdale and USS Chung Hoon.
• In addition, one nuclear powered submarine, carrier wing aircraft and Long Range Maritime Patrol aircraft will also participate in the exercise.
• Japanese Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF) will be represented by JS Hyuga, a helicopter carrier with SH 60 K integral helicopters and Long Range Maritime Patrol aircraft.
• Additionally, the Special Forces (SF) of the three navies will also interact during the exercise.
World Blood Donors Day (WBDD) 2016 was observed on 14 June 2016.
The theme of the 2016 World Blood Donor Day campaign is Blood connects us all. The theme highlights the common bond that all people share in their blood.
The slogan for 2016 WBDD is Share life, give blood. The slogan focuses on voluntary donation systems. The voluntary donation systems play a pivotal role in encouraging people to care for one another and promoting community cohesion.
The theme of 2015 was “Thank you for saving my life”.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 June 2016 concluded five-nation visit to Afghanistan, Qatar, Switzerland, the US and Mexico.
During the five-day tour between 4 June and 8 June 2016, Modi met with Afghan President, Ashraf Ghani; Amir of Qatar, Sheikh Tamim Bin Hamad Al-Thani; President of Swiss federation, Johann Schneider-Ammann; US President Barack Obama; and Mexican President Enrique Pena Nieta.

During this visit, he held high level meetings on a wide range of bilateral issues and matters of regional and global concern. With US President, Swiss President and Mexico President, Modi discussed India’s NSG membership issue and secured their constructive support.
Major Highlights of the visit to Afghanistan
• In Herat, Modi and Afghan President Ashraf Ghani dedicated Afghan-India friendship dam, earlier known as Salma dam to the people.
• The project built by India at a cost 1700 crore rupees will irrigate 75 thousand hectares of land, generate 42 megawatt power and also supply drinking water in 620 villages.
• Afghan President conferred the highest civilian honour of Afghanistan, the Amir Amanullah Khan Award on Narendra Modi.
Major Highlights of the visit to Qatar
• The two nations signed 7 agreements in various fields.
• Prime Minister as a rare and special gesture shared meal with workers at a medical camp in Doha.
• The two sides agreed to constitute an inter-ministerial High Level Joint Committee to regularly review all bilateral matters, as well as regional and global issues of mutual interest.
• Modi held detailed talks with Emir of Qatar Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al-Thani and addressed the business community of Qatar, a country which is India’s largest supplier of LNG requirements, accounting for 65% of the country’s total imports in financial year 2015-16.
Major Highlights of the visit to Switzerland
• Prime Minister meets Indian scientists and students at CERN in Geneva.
• Delegation level talks were held between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Switzerland President Johann Schneider Ammann in Geneva.
• Switzerland supported India’s membership in the 48-member Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
witzerland agreed to provide mutual support to India for becoming non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council.
• Switzerland agreed to help India in combating the menace of black money and tax evasion
• The country agreed to build Swiss style vocational and educational training centres in India that suit India’s requirements.
• It also agreed to share clean technology and work on energy security and sustainable development.
Major Highlights of the visit to the US
• Modi addressed a joint session of the US Congress.
• He met the Congressional Leadership at Capitol Hills.
• He addressed the gathering at 40th AGM of US India Business Council in Washington.
• He interacted with think tanks in Washington.
• He attended ceremony for repatriation of cultural objects in Washington.
• He laid wreath at Space Shuttle Colombia Memorial at Arlington Cemetery in Washington.
• The two nations announced the creation of a 20 million dollar US-India Clean Energy Finance (USICEF) initiative. The initiative will be equally supported by both and is expected to mobilize up to 400 million dollar to provide clean and renewable electricity to up to 1 million households by 2020.
• The two nations signed and exchanged 6 MoUs and 2 documents.
Modi was the fifth Indian prime minister to address a joint session of US lawmakers. Other four Prime Minister’s to address the joint session include Rajiv Gandhi (June 1985), P V Narasimha Rao (May 1994), Atal Bihari Vajpayee (September 2000), Manmohan Singh (July 2005).
Jawaharlal Nehru addressed the House and Senate separately in 1949 when he was the head of the interim government.
Major Highlights of the visit to Mexico
• Prime Minister meets Enrique Peña Nieto, President of Mexico during his visit to Mexico
• Mexico is an important partner for India’s energy security. We are now looking to move beyond a buyer-seller relationship, and into a long-term partnership.” – Prime Minister
• Foreign Ministers of the two countries were instructed to develop the roadmap of the Privileged Partnership suitable for the 21stCentury, in the framework of the Seventh Mexico-India Joint Commission Meeting to be held in Mexico in 2016.

World Oceans Day is a global day of ocean celebration and collaboration for a better future. This site serves as the central coordinating platform for World Oceans Day, with free resources and ideas for everyone – no matter where you live – to help expand the reach and impact of World Oceans Day on June 8 and year round.
This year’s theme is “Healthy Oceans, Healthy Planet” and individuals and organizations across the planet are taking action for prevention of plastic pollution in our ocean.
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) on 21 June 2016 released a report entitled World Investment Report 2016 – Investor Nationality: Policy Challenges.
The report examines international production by multinational enterprises (including sales, exports, employment and value added), as well as their ownership structures and control of affiliates.
In a novel analysis, the report focuses on how policymakers can distinguish between “domestic” and “foreign” companies in a globalized economy and provides with a new framework for handling ownership issues in 21st century investment policymaking.
While the USA surpassed Hong Kong and China in terms of FDI inflows in 2015 with 380 billion US dollars, India continues to be at the 10th position with 44 billion US dollars.
• FDI inflows: Top 10 countries in terms of FDI inflows in decreasing order – The USA, China, Hong Kong, Ireland, Netherlands, Switzerland, Singapore, Brazil, Canada and India.
• Ireland and Switzerland registered considerable progress in 2015. While Ireland attracted additional 71 billion US dollars in 2015 compared to 2014, in the case of Switzerland it was 62 billion US dollars
• Global investment trends: The flows jumped by 38 per cent to 1.76 trillion US dollars, their highest level since the global economic and financial crisis of 2008–2009.
• Inward FDI flows to developed economies almost doubled to 962 billion US dollars. As a result, developed economies tipped the balance back in their favour with 55 per cent of global FDI, up from 41 per cent in 2014.
• FDI flows are expected to decline by 10-15 per cent in 2016, reflecting the fragility of the global economy and persistent weakness of aggregate demand, sluggish growth in some commodity exporting countries.
• Regional investment trends: Developing Asia saw FDI inflows increase by 16 per cent to 541 billion US dollars – a new record. The significant growth was driven by the strong performance of East and South Asian economies.
• More than 40 per cent of foreign affiliates worldwide have multiple “passports”. These affiliates are part of complex ownership chains with multiple cross-border links involving on average three jurisdictions.
• “Multiple passport affiliates” are the result of indirect foreign ownership, transit investment through third countries, and round-tripping.
• These types of affiliates are much more common in the largest Multi National Enterprises (MNEs). 60 per cent of their foreign affiliates have multiple cross-border ownership links to the parent company.
• The larger the MNEs, the greater is the complexity of their internal ownership structures. The top 100 MNEs in UNCTAD’s Transnationality Index have on average more than 500 affiliates each, across more than 50 countries.
• The blurring of investor nationality has made the application of rules and regulations on foreign ownership more challenging.
• Policymakers in some countries have developed a range of mechanisms to safeguard the effectiveness of foreign ownership rules, including anti-dummy laws, general anti-abuse rules to prevent foreign control, and disclosure requirements.
• The report advised the policy makers to find a balance between liberalization and regulation in pursuing the ultimate objective of promoting investment for sustainable development.
• Globally, India was at the top tenth position in terms of FDI inflows in 2015. Compared to 35 billion US dollars in 2014, it received 44 billion US dollars of investments in 2015.
• India’s and Bangladesh’s FDI performance pushed inflows to South Asia to 50 billion US dollars, an increase of 22 per cent from 2014.
• India became the fourth largest recipient of investment in developing Asia.
• Outward FDI from India, South Asia’s dominant investor, dropped by more than one third which resulted in an overall 36 per cent decline of outflows from the region to 8 billion US dollars in 2015
Part of yoga’s appeal and rising popularity is its ability to be interpreted and shaped by the culture or society in which it is practised. Traditional styles of yoga such as Iyengar or Ashtanga co-exist alongside more new-age forms such as boxing yoga or rave yoga, even Christian yoga.
Some religious conservatives complain that yoga is rooted in the religions of the Indian sub-continent, notably Hinduism and Buddhism. This perception has restricted the rise of yoga in conservative Islamic societies such as Qatar, where it can be seen as blasphemous. The small Gulf nation is governed by an austere form of Islam known as Wahhabism, which views yoga with suspicion. Despite its global popularity, many Muslims feel that practising yoga is tantamount to practising another religion.
Noor disagrees. “Yoga is not a religion,” she told Al Jazeera. “It is a discipline.”
The reason Noor is able to practise and teach yoga at all, is because of Valerie Jeremijenko. She is an early pioneer of yoga in Qatar, perhaps the earliest. Valerie has been a yoga teacher in Qatar for the past 15 years and has operated her own studio, Yama Yoga, since 2009. She also runs a successful teacher-training programme. However, while the perception of yoga is changing, she still faces some, mostly cultural or social, difficulties.
“This has less to do with yoga and more to do with Qatar’s licensing laws that do not like mixed male-female classes or recognise yoga outside of a sport,” Valerie told Al Jazeera.
Valerie said that the kinds of yoga that took off in the West, physically demanding practices such as Ashtanga and hot yoga, were rooted in the Protestant work ethic, and as such, don’t really suit traditional Qatari society.
“The daily ethic of a rigorous practice is not really part of the Qatari culture, nor is individual expression … so yoga as it is practised in the West does not really work with the traditional Qatari way of life,” she added.
World Population Day 2016 would be celebrated all over the world by the people on 11thof July at Monday.World Population Day has gained much popularity with support from organizations and masses around the world. It also focuses on challenges presented by world of 7 billion people. Reproductive Health services are one of the main targets set by UNFPA (United Nations Population Fund) by 2015. So World Population Day is observed in more than 200 countries to bring awareness to people about importance of small families and living healthy lives. On this day, several programs are initiated to educate people about family planning methods. The day is observed every year to bring awareness in people about living a healthy life with benefits of having a small family.
World Population Day was observed on 11 July 2016 with theme Investing in teenage girls. The theme focuses on the empowerment of teenage girls.
Dr. Shahid Rasool, a communication technology specialist, has taken charge as the new director of the Commonwealth Educational Media Centre for Asia(CEMCA).
A Fulbright Fellow with an MS in communication technology from Syracuse University, Rasool will guide CEMCA – an arm of the Vancouver-based Commonwealth of Learning (COL) – in its mission to ensure effective utilisation of educational media resources for distance education.
Rasool, who also has a doctorate in mass communication and journalism from the University of Kashmir, was earlier director of the university’s Educational Multimedia Research Centre.
Headquartered in New Delhi, CEMCA was set up in 1994 in response to calls by Asian Commonwealth countries for a greater focus on distance education.
B
harti Enterprises founder and Chairman Sunil Bharti Mittal (58) was bestowed with 2016 Harvard Business School Alumni Achievement Award. Sunil Mittal is Indian telecom tycoon, entrepreneur and philanthropist. He is the founder, chairman and Group CEO of Bharti Enterprises, which has interests in telecom, financial services, retail and agri business. The Group flagship Bharti Airtel, with operations in 20 countries across Asia and Africa and has customer base of over 275 million. It is India’s largest telecom company and world’s third largest mobile operator. He is listed as the eight richest person in India by Forbes with a Net worth of 7 billion dollars. In 2007, he was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India’s third highest civilian honour.
Senior advocate of Bombay High Court Atma Ram Nadkarni on 9 May 2016 was appointed as Additional Solicitor General (ASG).
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved the appointment of Nadkarni as Additional Solicitor General in Supreme Court for a period of three years.
Six new IITs will come up at Tirupati, Palakkad, Dharwar, Bhilai, Goa and Jammu while ISM Dhanbad will also be upgraded to an IIT.
The Union Cabinet which met today gave its ex post facto approval to amend The Institutes of Technology Act, 1961 for incorporation of new IITs at Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh), Palakkad (Kerala), Dharwar (Karnataka), Bhilai (Chhattisgarh), Goa, Jammu (Jammu and Kashmir) and conversion of Indian School of Mines (ISM), Dhanbad to an IIT under the law.
“The approval will bring six new Indian Institutes of Technology within the ambit of The Institutes of Technology Act, 1961 and declaring them as the institutions of national importance,” an official statement said in New Delhi.
The amendment will also help convert ISM, Dhanbad into an IIT by bringing it into the ambit of the Institutes of Technology Act, 1961
Madrid: The 17th edition of the IIFA Awards took place in Spain’s capital Madrid on Saturday in a high-voltage extravaganza.
Here is the list of winners:-
Best Director – Sanjay Leela Bhansali for Bajirao Mastani
Best Film – Bajrangi Bhaijaan
Best Actress – Deepika Padukone for Piku
Best Actor – Ranveer Singh for Bajirao Mastani
Best Supporting Actress – Priyanka Chopra for Bajirao Mastani
Best Supporting Actor – Anil Kapoor for Dil Dhadakne Do
Best Story – Juhi Chaturvedi for Piku
Special Award for Woman of The Year – Priyanka Chopra
Special Award for Woman of The Year – Priyanka Chopra
Best Debut Couple Award – Sooraj Pancholi and Athiya Shetty
Best Performance in a Negative Role – Darshan Kumaar for NH10
Best Performance in Comic Role – Deepak Dobriyal for Tanu Weds Manu Returns
Best Debut (Female) – Bhumi Pednekar for Dum Laga Ke Haisha
Best Debut (Male) – Vicky Kaushal for Masaan
Best Playback Singer (Female) – Monali Thakur for Moh Moh Ke Dhaage from Dum Laga Ke Haisha
Best Playback Singer (Male) – Papon for Moh Moh Ke Dhaage from Dum Laga Ke Haisha
Best Lyrics – Varun Grover for Dum Laga Ke Haisha
IIFA, which takes the power of Bollywood to international shores every year, celebrated 60 years of India’s diplomatic relations with Spain here with close to 150 film celebrities and over 20,000 fans in attendance.
Most people know Chanda Kochhar as the top honcho of one of India’s largest private banks, an inspiration for working women across the globe, a Padma Bhushan awardee, and recently also listed among the most powerful businesswomen in Asia by Forbes. However, this letter from the ICICI Bank Managing Director and CEO to her daughter gives us an insight to the woman and working mother behind the super-achieving professional. And for every daughter growing up with a working mother, this letter is a must read.
“As a parent with a full time job, one must not let work affect the way you relate to your family. Remember the time you were studying in the US and the announcement of my becoming MD and CEO of ICICI was splashed across all newspapers? I remember the mail you wrote to me a couple of days later. ‘You never made us realize that you had such a demanding, successful and stressful career. At home, you were just our mother,’ you wrote in your email. Live your life in the same way, my darling,” says the top banker in the letter, which appears in Sudha Menon’s book ‘Legacy: Letters from Eminent Parents to Their Daughters’. The letter has received a lot of appreciation on social media. Ms Kochhar has even been trending on Facebook since Thursday.
In her poignant letter, Ms Kochchar talks about growing up without her father who died when she was only 13 and her mother became a working single parent. She relates the lessons she learnt as a child to the time she became a working mother herself to her children, Aarti and Arjun.
“If you had complained and whined about my extended absence from home, I would never have had the heart to make a career for myself. I am blessed with a great and supportive family and I really hope you too will be as fortunate when you set out on your own,” she writes in the letter, which is full of heartfelt advice for her daughter, coupled with anecdotes from both her personal and professional life.
The letter makes for a beautiful read for all women, mothers or daughters. Read the letter in its entirety below. This one cannot be missed.
Dear Aarti,
It makes me feel so proud today to see you standing in front of me as a confident young woman right on the threshold of an exciting journey through life. I am looking forward to seeing you grow and flourish in the years ahead.
This moment has also brought back memories of my own journey, and the life lessons I learnt along the way. When I think of those times, I realize that most of these lessons were actually learnt in my childhood, mostly through examples set by my parents. The values that they instilled in my formative years gave me the foundation on which I try to live my life even today.
Our parents treated all three of us – two sisters and a brother – equally. When it came to education, or our future plans, there was no discrimination between us based on our gender. Your grandparents always had the same message for the three of us – that it was important to focus on what gave us satisfaction and to work towards it with utmost dedication. That early initiation enabled us to develop into confident individuals capable of taking decisions independently. This also helped me when I started out on my own journey of self- discovery.
I was only a young girl of 13 when my father passed away from a sudden heart attack, leaving us unprepared to take on life without him. We had been protected from life’s challenges so far. But without warning, all that changed overnight. And my mother, who had been a homemaker till then, faced the responsibility of raising three children all on her own. It was then that we realized how strong she was and how determined to do her duty in the best possible manner. Slowly, she discovered a flair for designing and textiles, found herself a job with a small firm, and quickly made herself indispensable to them. It must have been challenging for her to shoulder the responsibility of bringing up her family single- handed, but she never let us feel like it was a task for her. She worked hard till she saw all of us through college and we became independent. I never knew that my mother had such a wealth of self-assurance and belief within her.
As a parent with a full time job, one must not let work affect the way you relate to your family. Remember the time you were studying in the US and the announcement of my becoming MD and CEO of ICICI was splashed across all newspapers? I remember the mail you wrote to me a couple of days later. ‘You never made us realize that you had such a demanding, successful and stressful career. At home, you were just our mother,’ you wrote in your email. Live your life in the same way, my darling.
I also learnt from my mother that it is very important to have the ability to handle difficult situations and keep moving forward in life, no matter what. Even today I can remember the equanimity and calmness with which she handled the crisis on hand when my father passed away. You have to handle the challenges and emerge stronger from them, rather than allow them to bog you down. I remember how, in late 2008, we were faced with a situation where ICICI Bank’s survival was in jeopardy in the face of a global economic meltdown. The situation was being analysed with a hawk’s eye by major media platforms and debated widely in the public space… I got down to work, systematically communicating with all stakeholders – from the smallest depositor to the sophisticated investors, and from regulators to the government – the bank was sound and its exposure to these institutions involved a small portion of its assets. I understood their concern because so many of them feared that their hard earned savings in our bank could be at risk. I also advised staff across the bank’s various branches to lend a sympathetic ear to those depositors who turned up to withdraw their money, telling them to also offer the depositors a seat and a glass of water while they waited. And though, depositors were welcome to withdraw their money if they wanted to, our staff also took care to explain to them that it would not help them to take their money away, because there was no real crisis situation.
It was during this period that I took a couple of hours off one day to attend your brother’s squash tournament. I did not know it then, but my very presence at the tournament went a long way in reinstalling customer confidence in the bank. A few mothers at the tournament came and asked me if I was Chanda Kochhar from ICICI Bank and when I replied in the affirmative they said that if I could still find time to attend a tournament in the midst of a crisis, it meant that the bank was in safe hands and they need not worry about their money!
It was also from my mother that I learnt the importance of adapting to circumstances and not being afraid of the unknown. While working hard for my career, I looked after my family, and have been there for my mother and in-laws when they needed me around. They reciprocated in kind with their unconditional love and support for my career. Remember that relationships are important and have to be nurtured and cherished. Also keep in mind that a relationship is a two way street, so be ready to give a relationship just as you would expect the other person to be giving to you.
My career would not have progressed the way it did were it not for your father who never once complained about the time I spent away from home. Your father and I nurtured our relationship despite the fact that we were both busy with our own careers, and I am confident you will do the same with your partner, when the time comes. If you had complained and whined about my extended absence from home, I would never have had the heart to make a career for myself. I am blessed with a great and supportive family and I really hope you too will be as fortunate when you set out on your own!
I remember the day your board exams were about to commence. I had taken leave from work so that I could take you to the examination hall myself. When you realized I was coming, you told me how you were used to going for your exams alone for so many years. It hurt me to hear you say that, but I also think in some ways, having a working mother made you much more independent from a very young age itself. You not only became independent, but also stepped into the nurturer’s role for your younger brother and never let him miss my presence. I learnt to have trust and faith in you and you have now grown into a wonderful, independent woman. I now use the same principle at work to make our growing population of younger talent take on larger responsibilities.
I believe in fate but I also believe that hard work and diligence plays a very important role in our lives. In a larger sense, we all write our own destiny. Take destiny in your own hands, dream of what you want to achieve, and write it in your own way. As you go ahead in life, I want you to climb the path to success one step at a time. Aim for the sky, but move slowly, enjoying every step along the way. It is all those little steps that make the journey complete.
As you go forward, you will sometimes have to take difficult decisions, decisions that others might scorn at. But you must have the courage to stand up for what you believe in. Make sure you have that conviction to do what you know is right, and once you have it, don’t let skeptics distract you from your path.
Aarti, there is no limit to what a determined mind can achieve, but in achieving your goal, don’t compromise on the values of fair play and honesty. Don’t cut corners or compromise to achieve your dreams. Remember to be sensitive to the feelings of people around you. And remember, if you don’t allow stress to overtake you, it will never become an issue in your life.
Remember that good times and bad times will be part of your life equally, and you have to learn to handle both with equanimity. Make the most of life’s opportunities and learn from every opportunity, and challenge that life brings along.
Lovingly yours,
Mumma
Under the provisions of the Notice as referred above, the Commission has decided to reduce the Number of Questions from 200 to 100 in Tier-I of the above Examination which would continue to carry 200 marks. The duration of the Tier-I examination would be for a period of 75 minutes. It has also been decided to conduct the Tier-I and Tier-II in computer based examination mode in place of OMR based examination mode. Tier-I is scheduled to be held from 27th August, 2016.
more detail click here
The State Bank of India conducts the Clerical exam every year to recruit candidates for the post of Clerical Cadre. For the year 2016-17, the notice has been released. The exam will be held online tentatively in the month of May-June 2016. However, the candidates can fill the application form up to 25 April 2016. Aspirants will have to appear in the online examination to be selected the post. Aspirants must be wondering how to prepare for the exam in order to successfully crack it. For the same, we have introduced some preparation tips which can help candidates to clear the exam and make their preparation process all the more easier. Take notes and follow these to prepare nicely. Read the SBI Clerk 2016 Preparation Tips below.
Aspirants can follow the SBI Clerk Preparation Tips 2016 given below and act accordingly to obtain a reasonable score and make it up to the selection.
Attempt questions carefully: While answering the questions, this is very important that the candidates read the questions very carefully and answer them with utmost care. Never misread the question and manage time well so as to attempt every question nicely. Examination training is important part to qualify the any exams…
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As we all know that every year thousands of student appear for NDA written examination and due to its difficulty level only few candidates are able to crack it. The right preparation strategy to clear NDA Exam begins sudden after +2 Board Examinations.
This type of examination requires a good level of intelligence with great practice & lots of motivational sessions. In our Institute we give complete training and best support to the candidates to get success in NDA exams. Indian Armed Forces is the best respectful and influential opportunities for the students. Delhi Career Group is one of the Best Coaching Institutes for NDA IPCI.
It consists of two papers which are given in table as below:
A Probationary Officer (PO) can reach up to the level of Chairman of a bank. You will be surprised to know that a number of heads of PSBs have started their career as a PO. Normally, the probation period is of two years in which the officer is exposed to different types of bank-related work. There are frequent transfers during the probation period. Once the probation period is over, the officer is appointed as an Assistant Manager and gets his or her permanent posting. Now a day, some banks are placing officers as Deputy Managers also, provided they pass the test conducted by the bank. After confirmation, officers can be posted in specific areas of banking.
Selection Procedure for Bank PO Exams:
Bank Probationary officer recruitment conduct by bank or IBPS organization. Written (prelim & main) examination contain five paper Numerical Ability, Reasoning, English, General awareness and computer/marketing each paper objective type after a qualifying minimum cutoff marks in written examination thereafter you qualified to the personal interview that is final round of bank officers selection.
Eligibility Criteria
A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Govt. All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a University/ Institution/Board recognised by Govt of India/ approved by Govt Regulatory Bodies.
Age Limit
The candidate must be between the age of 20 and 30 years. Reservations and age relaxation are according to the Govt notification.
Relaxation of Upper Age Limit
| S. No. | Category | Age relaxation |
| 1. | Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe | 5 years |
| 2. | Other Backward Classes (Non-Creamy Layer) | 3 years |
| 3. | Persons with Disabilities | 10 years |
| 4. | Ex-Servicemen, Commissioned Officers including Emergency Commissioned Officers (ECOs)/ Short Service Commissioned Officers (SSCOs) who have rendered at least 5 years’ military service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from the last date of receipt of application) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or physical disability attributable to military service or invalidment | 5 years |
| 5. | Persons ordinarily domiciled in the state of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 1-1-80 to 31-12-89 | 5 years |
| 6. | Persons affected by 1984 riots | 5 years |
Structure of the Examination
Syllabus for Bank P.O Prelims Online Examination:-
| Subject | Question No. | Max Marks | Course Details |
| Reasoning | 35 | 35 | View Details |
| Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | View Details |
| English | 30 | 30 | View Details |
Syllabus for Bank P.O mains Online Examination:-
After qualified Prelims online examination then you appear for Mains Exam.
| Subject | Question No. | Max Marks | Course Details |
| Reasoning | 50 | 50 | View Details |
| Numerical Ability | 50 | 50 | View Details |
| English | 40 | 40 | View Details |
| General Awareness | 40 | 40 | View Details |
| Computer Awareness | 20 | 20 | View Details |
After qualified Mains online examination then you appear for GDPI (conducted by IBPS/SBI/RBI)
Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview. MARKS OBTAINED ONLY IN THE MAIN EXAMINATION WILL BE CONSIDERED FOR SHORTLISTING FOR INTERVIEW AND ALSO FOR FINAL MERIT LISTING.
Interview
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the main examination for CWE PO/MT will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the participating organisations and coordinated by the nodal bank in each State/UT with the help of the Institute for Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) will be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interview call letters from the authorised IBPS website www.ibps.in. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc of interview will not be entertained. However, the conducting agencies reserve the right to change the date/venue/time/centre etc of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date/session/venue/centre/set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CWE (Main exam) and interview will be 80 : 20. The combined final score of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in the Main Examination of CWE PO/MT-V and Interview. Interview score of the candidates failing to secure minimum qualifying marks or otherwise barred from the interview or further process shall not be disclosed. A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on the IBPS website.
Emoluments
Following would be the new pay structure of newly joined Probationary Officers:
| Components | Amount (Per Month approx) |
| Basic Pay | Rs 26,705 (Merged 60.15% of DA into current basic pay) |
| House Rent Allowance | Rs 1,996.2 (7.475% of Basic Pay) |
| Dearness Allowance | Rs 8,839.36 (33.1% of Basic Pay) |
| Total | Rs 37,541 |
| Cash in Hand | Rs 33,986 (approx) |
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 14 April 2016 inaugurated the Maritime India Summit 2016 (MIS 2016) in Mumbai. While inaugurating the summit, the PM invited investors to come to India. Maritime India Summit 2016 is a maiden flagship initiative of the Ministry of Shipping, Government of India that provides a unique platform for participants to explore potential business opportunities in Indian Maritime Sector.
The two-day summit, which will conclude on 15 April 2016, will host forums to foster interaction between stakeholders through B2B and G2B meetings. It will also organise special sessions on investment opportunities in maritime sector, setting up of new ports and capacity augmentation of existing ports, development of inland waterways for cargo and passenger transportation, coastal shipping and other services related to Indian Maritime Sector.
The summit will project vast investment opportunities in each of the Indian Maritime States and Union Territories, including an exclusive partner country session by Republic of Korea.
The Summit will showcase exciting investment opportunities in:
• Shipbuilding, Ship Repair and Ship Recycling
• Port Modernization and New Port Development
• Port-based Industrial Development, Port-based Smart Cities and Maritime Cluster Development
• Hinterland Connectivity Projects and Multi-Modal Logistics Hubs
• Inland Waterways and Coastal Shipping for Cargo and Passenger movement
• Dredging
• Lighthouse Tourism and Cruise Shipping
• Renewable Energy Projects in Ports
• Other Maritime Sector related services (Financing, Legal, Design etc.)
FERA : The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was legislation passed in 1973 that imposed strict regulations on certain kinds of payments, the dealings in foreign exchange and securities and the transactions which had an indirect impact on the foreign exchange and the import and export of currency. FERA was introduced at a time when foreign exchange (Forex) reserves of the country were low
FEMA : The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is an Act of the Parliament of India “to consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating external trade and payments and for promoting the orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India”. It paved the way for the introduction of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, which came into effect from 1 July 2005.
1. FEMA replaced FERA: FERA was repealed in 1998 by the government of Atal Bihari Vajpayee and replaced by the Foreign Exchange Management Act, which liberalised foreign exchange controls and restrictions on foreign investment.
2. FEMA became an act on 1 June 2000.
3. FEMA was intoduced because the FERA did not fit in with the Post-Liberalization Policy.
4. What Changes FEMA bring? – It made all offence regarding Foreign Exchange Civil Offence, as opposed to criminal offences as dictated by FERA.
5. Main objective of FEMA : Conolidate (strengthen) and amend the law relating to Foreign Exchange. AND
To Promote the orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
6. FEMA is applicable to all parts in India (abroad also if agency owned by an Indian).
7. The FEMA head-office, also known as Enforcement Directorate is situated in New Delhi and is headed by a Director. The Directorate is further divided into 5 zonal offices in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Jalandhar and each office is headed by a Deputy Director.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday left for Iran on a two-day official visit, during which the trilateral agreement between India , Iran and Afghanistan to develop the Chabahar port in that Gulf nation will be signed.
Modi will be accorded an official welcome in Tehran on Monday following which he will hold talks with Iran’s Supreme Leader Ayatollah Sayyid Ali Hosseini Khamenei and President Hassan Rouhani .
Connectivity, energy security and bilateral trade are on top of Modi’s agenda during his visit which comes a little over a month and a half of his trip to Saudi Arabia. The prime minister will also inaugurate an Indian cultural festival in Iran.
The visit will feature discussion on terrorism in the region as well as extended neighbourhood. It will also focus on New Delhi’s desire to secure energy assets for a fast growing economy. After reaching Tehran, PM Modi will visit a Gurudwara there
A clerk is mostly a front staff in a bank. Depending on the requirement, clerks are placed at different counters of the banks, e.g. savings, deposit, current deposit, term deposit, retail loans, cash credit, agricultural loans, credit cards, govt business, cash receipt or payment, etc. Maximum customer interface in banks occurs at these counters managed by clerical staff. Bank Clerk recruitment examination conduct by IBPS or specially Bank (SBI/RBI).
Eligibility
The minimum age for applying for the position of a clerk in nationalised or private sector banks is 20 years. The maximum age limit is 28 years. The candidate has to be a Graduate in any discipline. As most of the recruitment in clerical cadre in public sector banks are made state-wise, the candidate applying for the post in a particular State is expected to be proficient in the language of the State. Proficiency means knowing to read, write, speak and understand the language.
Structure of the Examination
The structure of the examinations, which will be conducted online, is as follows:Preliminary Examination
| S. No. | Name of Tests | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1. | English Language | 30 | 30 | Composite time of 1hour |
| 2. | Quantitative Aptitude | 35 | 35 | |
| 3. | Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
Main Examination
| S. No. | Name of Tests | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1. | Reasoning | 40 | 40 | Composite time of 2 hours |
| 2. | English Language | 40 | 40 | |
| 3. | Quantitative Aptitude | 40 | 40 | |
| 4. | General Awareness(with reference to Banking Industry) | 40 | 40 | |
| 5. | Computer Knowledge | 40 | 40 | |
| Total | 200 | 200 |
A candidate should qualify both prelims and mains. Mains exam score high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on IBPS website.
Emoluments:
| Components | Revised (Per Month) |
| Basic | 12,812(60.15% of DA merged in basic) |
| House Rent Allowance | 1,921 (15% of DA) |
| Fuel Expense | 225 |
| Dearness Allowance | 5,124 (40% of basic as remaining 60% merged in basic salary) |
| Special Allowance | 1,908 (9.5% increase in final pay slip component) |
| Total | 21,990 |
| Deductions: | |
| Provident Fund | -2,199 |
| Tax | -20 |
| Union Fee | -60 |
| Benefit Funds | -250 |
| In Hand | 19,461 |
more details Call: 986 913 9632
Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan, a Central government’s campaign to strengthen Panchayati Raj in villages and ensure social harmony, empowerment of women and uplift of farmers will be launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Mhow in Madhya Pradesh in April, on the occasion of 125th Birth anniversary of Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar.
Rural Development Minister Birender Singh told reporters on Friday here that the campaign would be held all over the country from April 14 to 24.The topics of discussions in these Gram Sabhas will include :-
• Gram Panchayat Development Plans for local economic development,
• Optimum utilization of funds available with Panchayati Raj Institutions,
• Clean drinking water and sanitation,
• Role of women in village and rural development.
• Social inclusion including welfare of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, person with Disabilities and other marginalized groups.
“The campaign will be run jointly by Union Rural Development and Panchayati Raj, Agriculture, Social Justice, Labour and Information and Broadcasting Ministries along with States and will culminate on April 24 on the Panchayati Raj Day with the Prime Minister addressing villagers in Jamshedpur.
“During the campaign, discussions on issues pertaining to rural development, improving farmers’ income, SC and ST welfare and social harmony programmes will be held on different platforms,” he said.
Half of the world’s 20 most polluted cities are in India, said a World Health Organization report released on Thursday, indicating industrial and vehicular exhaust were choking large parts of the country with little oversight or monitoring mechanism.
The Capital is no longer the world’s most polluted city, dropping to 11th position with smaller towns galloping past Delhi to grab second and third spot.
The top spot is taken by the Iranian city of Zabol that falls in the middle of a dust bowl. Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh and Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh take the second and third spot, respectively

Sunrisers Hyderabad beat Royal Challengers Bangalore by eight runs to win their maiden Indian Premier League title.

Virat Kohli own 973 runs and the ‘Orange Cap’ and Kohli said: “It is a nice incentive, but it does not feel good to be at the other side of the result. Why Sunrisers won is because they have a strong bowling attack. I knew I was hitting the ball well and I just wanted to keep contributing. Why not, records are meant to be broken.”
Here is the full list of award winners and important statistics from
IPL 2016 Champions – Sunrisers Hyderabad.
Prize money – Rs 15 crore
Runner-up – Royal Challengers Bangalore.
Prize money – Rs 10 crore
Orange Cap (Most runs) – 973 runs (16 innings) – Virat Kohli (Royal Challengers Bangalore)
Purple Cap (Most wickets) – 23 wickets (17 innings) – Bhuvneshwar Kumar (Sunrisers Hyderabad)
Emerging Player – 17 wickets – Mustafizur Rahman (SRH)
Man of the match in final – Ben Cutting (SRH)
Most Sixes in the final – 8 – Chris Gayle (RCB)
Most Valuable Player – Kohli (356.5 points)
Fairplay Award – SRH
Most Sixes – 38 – Kohli
About IPL:
IPL, which stands for Indian Premier League, is one of the most popular cricketing events in India, which is awaited and watched all over the country and the world by avid cricket fans every year. The event, which was started in 2008 by the BCCI, is played in T20 format of the game and is contested between franchisee teams from various cities, which are currently eight in number. Commercially, it is one of the most successful and lucrative sporting events in the country, with its brand value reaching a whopping US $ 3.2 billion. Till date, eight IPL events have been organized in India and the ninth one is running in 2016.
BJP leader and former IPS officer Kiran Bedi was appointed as the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Puducherry on 22 May 2016. Puducherry will now have a full time Lt. Governor after a gap of two year.
She will succeed Ajay Kumar Singh, the Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, who was holding the additional charge of Puducherry since July 2014. The LG post of Puducherry was vacant after the union government in July 2014 sacked Virendra Kataria from the post.
Directions (1-5) : Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and Fin a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions. A. Anansi was just about to eat them when he noticed smoke in the distance. He learnt from the cassava that the smoke was from the town of rice. B. “Rice is much better than cassava!” Saying this Anansi promptly journeyed to the town of rice. When he reached there he noticed smoke in the distance. So he left the rice village and headed for the smoke, greedily thinking that he’d get something better. C. Alas, when he reached there he found it was his own village and he had no food for the villagers or himself. Greed had got him nowhere. D. He left his village to find food for his people and himself. After walking miles and miles he saw smoke from a distant village. E. Anansi, the spider was very unhappy. There was a drought and all his people were starving. F. When he reached, the only food he found was cassava. The cassava asked Anansi, “Would you like us roasted, fried or boiled?” Anansi told them that he did not have a particular choice and so they roasted themselves.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 3
(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 4
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 2
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 3
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Solution : 5
Directions (6-10): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, select `No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
Solution: 1
Solution: 4
Solution: 5
Solution: 3
Solution: 3
Directions (11-15): In each of these questions, sentence with four bold words is given. One from four words given in the bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. If any, that word will be your answer. If all the words given in the bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, then All correct’ is your answer.
Solution: 4
Solution: 2
Solution: 2
Solution: 5
Solution: 1
Directions (16-25): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Long time ago, in a forest, there lived a young antelope. He was fond of the fruits of a particular tree. In a village bordering the forest, there lived a hunter who captured and killed antelopes for various reasons. He used to set traps for animals under fruitbearing trees. When the animal came to eat the fruit, it would be caught in the trap. He would then take it away and kill it for its meat. One day, while visiting the forest in search of game, the hunter happened to see the antelope under its favourite tree, eating fruit. He was delighted. ‘What a big, plump antelope!’ he thought. ‘I must catch him. I will get a lot of money from selling his meat.’ Thereafter, for many days, the hunter kept track of the antelope’s movements. He realised that the antelope was remarkably vigilant and fleet footed animal that it would be virtually impossible for him to track him down. However, he had a weakness for that particular tree. The crafty concluded that he could use this weakness to capture him. Early one morning, the hunter entered the forest with some logs of wood. He climbed the tree and put up a machan (platform used by hunters) on one of its branches by tying the logs together. Having set his trap at the foot of the tree, he then took up position on the machan and waited for the antelope. He strewed a lot of iy ,ovef mrui bts eo rn2thoeig6round beneath the 11.004.3, tree to conceal the trap and lure the antelope. Soon, the antelope came strolling along. He was very hungry and was eagerly looking forward to his usual breakfast of delicious ripe fruits. On the treetop, the hunter, having sighted him, sat with bated breath, willing him to come closer and step into his trap. However, the antelope was no fool. As he neared the tree he stopped short. The number of fruits lying under the tree seemed considerably more than usual. Surely, something was amiss, decided the antelope. He paused just out of reach of the tree and carefully began examining the ground. Now, he saw what distinctly looked like a human footprint. Without going closer, he looked suspiciously at the tree. The hunter was well hidden in its thick foliage, nevertheless the antelope, on close scrutiny, was now sure that his suspicions had not been unfounded. He could see a corner of the machan peeping out of the leaves. Meanwhile the hunter was getting desperate. Suddenly, he had a brainwave. Let me try throwing some fruit at him,’ he thought. So the hunter plucked some choice fruits and hurled them in the direction of the antelope. Alas, instead of luring him closer, it only confirmed his fears! Raising his voice, he spoke in the direction of the tree —”Listen, my dear tree, until now you have always dropped your fruits on the earth. Today, you have started throwing them at me! This is the most unlikely action of yours and I’m not sure I like the change! Since you have changed your habits, I too will change mine. I will get my fruits from a different tree from now onone that still acts like a tree!’ The hunter realised that the antelope had outsmarted him with his cleverness. Parting the leaves to reveal himself, he I grabbed his javelin and flung it wildly at the antelope. But the clever antelope was well prepared for any such action on his part. Giving a saucy chuckle, he leapt nimbly out of the harm’s way.
Solution: 2
Solution: 2
(1) High
(2) Loyal
(3) Rigid
(4) Inattentive
(5) Alert
Solution: 4
(1) Only A
(2) Both A and B
(3) Only B
(4) Both A and C
(5) Only C
Solution: 1
(A) live peacefully
(B)keep a watch on the entire forest.
(C)catch his prey.
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Both A and C
(5) None of the given options
Solution: 2
(1) The Hunter Who Loved Fruits
(2) The Lazy Hunter
(3) The Clever Antelope
(4) The Hunter and His Love for Wild Animals
(5) Antelopes an Endangered Species
Solution : 3
(1) Hefty
(2) Chirpy
(3) Long
(4) Boring
(5) Lean
Solution: 5
(1) Turned blue
(2) Without breathing at all
(3) Waited anxiously
(4) Bad breath
(5) Unconscious
Solution: 3
Solution: 4
Directions (26-30): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the five alternatives and fill in the blanks.
There lived an old tiger in a forest. It was becoming..(26)… for him to catch a prey. The Tiger thought, “I no longer have the strength and speed of a youth. …(27)… I find some trick, I will starve to death.” On thinking hard, the tiger came upon a plan. He began shouting loudly, ‘I am very old. I have turned into a vegetarian. I have become a saint and will not eat animals anymore.’ These words spread like …(28)… in the jungle. Innocent animals came to pay respect to the tiger thinking that the tiger had changed into a saint. In turn, the tiger pounced on the animals when they came to his cave. One day, a witty fox heard the words of the tiger. The fox began to wonder, “Can a tiger become a saint?” So stealthily, the fox approached the tiger’s cave. He carefully examined the footprints of animals. He found that all the footprints were going towards the cave but none were … (29)… from the cave. He quickly alerted all animals in the forest. “The Tiger is a cheat. Don’t go to the cave.” No animal ever … (30)… the cave again and the tiger died of starvation.
Solution: 4
Solution: 1
Solution: 2
Solution: 2
Solution: 4
Air Force Common Aptitude Test is conducted by IAF. It is conducted twice a year. Those candidates who want to make their career in Indian Air Force will have to qualify this test. Recently AFCAT was successfully conducted at various centres in India. Large number of candidates took this examination.
Air Force Common Admission Test also known as AFCAT is conducted for the admission of eligible candidates in Flying Branch, Technical Branch and Ground Duty Branches of Indian Air Force. AFCAT Exam is scheduled to be held every year for all the eligible applicants. You can find the details of the examination. The Air Force Common Admission Test will consist of 100 questions and each question will be of three marks. So total marks for all questions will be 300. As far as negative marking is concerned, there is one-third negative marking in AFCAT exam. For every wrong answer, 1 mark will be deducted as penalty.
Applications are invited from Men and Women candidates for Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) 02/2016 for the Courses commencing July 2017
Invites applications from bright young engineers to join in the Air Force for grant of Short Service Commission in Flying Branch and Permanent/ Short Service Commission (PSC/ SSC) in Technical and Ground Duty Branches for the following courses for Men and Women.
– Flying Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Men, Age : 20-24 years
– Technical Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Technical Branch Permanent Commission (PC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Ground Duty Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Ground Duty Branch Permanent Commission (PC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Flying Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Women / Female, Age : 20-24 years
-Technical Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Women / Female, Age : 20-26 years
– Ground Duty Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Women / Female, Age : 20-26 years
The AFCAT paper will consist of four sections:
There will be Multiply Choice Based Questions of 3 marks each. The candidates will be penalized in the form of deduction of 1 marks for every wrong answers attempted by them. The duration of AFCAT Exam will be 2 Hours.
AFCAT Syllabus:
(a) AFCAT Exam Syllabus for General Awareness: History, Sports, Geography, Environment, Culture, Current Affairs, Politics , Civics, Basic Sciences, Defence, Art etc
(b) Verbal Ability in English: Comprehension, Error Detection, Synonyms, Antonyms, and Testing of Vocabulary, Sentence Completion etc.
(c) Numerical Ability: Decimal Fraction, Simplification, Average, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, and Simple Interest, Profit & Loss, Time and distance etc.
(d) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test section: Verbal Skills Non Verbal Ability and Spatial Ability etc.
Last Date online apply: 30 June 2016
more details: click here
On 8th September 2016 the 28th and the 29th Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Summit concluded at Vientiane, Laos. However, the main theme for the 2016 summit was Turning Vision into Reality for a Dynamic ASEAN Community.
The Chairperson of the summit was H.E. Thongloun Sisoulith, Prime Minister of the Lao PDR.

India-ASEAN Highlights
Mr. Modi, who was addressing the 14th ASEAN-India summit here, noted that growing radicalism through the ideology of hatred and spread of extreme violence were the other security threats.
“Export of terror, growing radicalisation and spread of extreme violence are common security threats to our societies,” he said in his second attack on Pakistan in two days amid escalating war of words between New Delhi and Islamabad. Laos Premier Thongloun Sisoulith complimented India’s Act East policy and its contribution to ASEAN, and hoped the summit will provide the future direction.
IAS officer Alka Sirohi has been appointed as chairman of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), in place of Deepak Gupta who demits office on Tuesday. President Pranab Mukherjee has appointed Sirohi to perform the duties of the post of the chairman, UPSC, with effect from September 21, an order issued by Department of Personnel and Training said. She is presently member in the Commission.
The appointment is till further orders or till completion of her term as member on January 3, 2017, whichever is earlier, it said.
The post of chairman, UPSC, will fall vacant on Tuesday, consequent upon demitting of office by Gupta on attaining 65 years of age of superannuation, the order said.
Incidentally, the Centre had in November 2014 appointed Gupta as the UPSC chief, breaking away from the tradition of appointing the chief from the serving members of the commission.
This Editorial is used here for Study Purpose. Students are advised to learn the word-meaning, The Art of Writing Skills and understand decisive of this Editorial.MEANINGS are given in BOLD.
The Mental Health Care Bill, 2016, passed by the Rajya Sabha is a watershed (turning point) legislation that lays down clear responsibilities for the state and has provisions that empower individuals and families. Crucially, it can expand access to treatment, which is dismally (unequal to the purpose) poor today. According to a recent review in The Lancet, of gaps in mental health treatment, although both India and China have renewed their commitment to address the problem through national programmes, it is Beijing that has done better in terms of improving coverage. India allocates just over 1 per cent of the Centre’s health budget to mental health, with States making comparable allocations (to distribute according to a plan).
This situation should change if the provisions of the bill are to be meaningful. The legislation, inter alia (among other things), gives everyone the right to access mental health care as well as treatment from mental health services run or funded by the government; it also provides for supply of all notified essential medicines free of cost to those with mental illness, through the government. The situation today is a far cry from what is promised. While the bill says mental health services should be available at the district level, even States with well-functioning district hospitals do not offer regular psychiatric outpatient services, leave alone in-patient facilities. In government hospitals, medication to treat even the more common psychiatric disorders is not always available. These and other deficiencies need not have waited for a law.
In a much-needed change, the Centre has adopted a medicalised approach to attempted suicide, treating it as the outcome of severe stress. The bill rightly blocks the application of the Indian Penal Code section that criminalises it. A duty is also cast on the authorities to care for and rehabilitate (to restore; to return to its original condition) such individuals. What this means is that official policy must strive (to try to achieve a result) to strengthen the social determinants of health, especially when it comes to universal welfare support systems against catastrophic(a disaster ; any large event of great significance) events in people’s lives. Reliable (suitable ; fit) and free professional counselling must be widely offered.
For too long, mental health treatment in India has existed with the colonial legacy of large asylums (a place of safety) and degrading (to lower in value) confinement (the state of being confined ; not free to move). Many who are held in such places have nowhere else to go, as families facing stigma (the condition of being out of favour) have abandoned (to give up) them. There is much to be said, therefore, in favour of the halfway home system that the bill provides for, where supportive families, medical care and a better quality of life will help many recover. The success of this more progressive law brought in to replace the Mental Health Act, 1987, will depend ultimately on the community keeping up the pressure on the designated Central and State authorities to implement it in letter and spirit.
__________________Thanks Dear Reader___________________
Dr. Urjit R Patel as the 24th governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI). He will be having tenure of three years with effect from 4 September 2016. He will succeed the present RBI Governor Dr. Raghuram Rajan, the former International Monetary Fund chief economist.
At present, Dr Patel is the Deputy Governor of RBI and is holding this assignment since 2013. With this appointment, he also becomes the eight Deputy Governor to be elevated as the Governor at RBI.
Dr. Urjit R Patel
• He headed a panel that recommended landmark changes to monetary policy in India, which included a switch to inflation-targeting and the creation of a panel to set interest rates.
• In January 2016, he was reappointed as the deputy governor in charge of monetary policy, the department he ran since 2013.
• Earlier between 1990 and 1995, he had worked with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) covering US, India, Bahamas and Myanmar.
• He carried a doctorate from Yale University.
• He also carries M Phil from Oxford.
The trio notched a few firsts for India; Sindhu, at 21, became the youngest to win an Olympic medal, a silver which was never achieved in badminton; and Sakshi’s bronze was also a first for women’s wrestling.

BADMINTON:
# P V Sindhu secured a silver medal after losing to Carolina Marin in the women’s singles final.
# Saina Nehwal failed to progress beyond the league stage in women’s singles.
# Kidambi Srikanth lost in the men’s singles quarterfinals against Lin Dan.
# Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponnappa failed to advance to the knock—out stage of women’s doubles.
# Men’s doubles pair of Manu Attri and B Sumeeth Reddy also failed to make the knock—out stage.

WRESTLING:
# Sakshi Malik won bronze in women’s 58kg freestyle.
# Vinesh Phogat retired after suffering an injury in the quarterfinal of women’s 48kg.
# Babita Kumari lost in the pre-quarterfinal round of the women’s 53kg freestyle.
# London Olympics bronze medallist Yogeshwar Dutt lost in qualification round of men’s 65kg freestyle.
# Sandeep Tomar lost his pre-quarterfinal bout of men’s 57kg freestyle.
# In Greco-Roman, both Ravinder Khatri and Hardeep Singh lost in the pre-quarterfinals of 85kg and 98kg, respectively.
# Narsingh Yadav was ruled out from representing India in men’s 74kg freestyle category after he was slapped with a four-year ban by Court of Arbitration for Sports (CAS) for flunking a dope test after WADA challenged the clean chit given to him by the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA).
GYMNASTICS:
# Dipa Karmakar finished fourth in Vaults final.
The 2016 Summer Olympics concluded on 21 August 2016 at ceremony held at the Maracana Stadium, Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
More than 11000 athletes from 207 National Olympic Committees, including first time entrants Kosovo, South Sudan and the Refugee Olympic Team, took part in the games.
The games featured 28 Olympic sports, including rugby sevens and golf, which were added to the Olympic programme in 2009.
The United States topped the medal table for the fifth time in the past six Summer Olympics, winning 46 gold medals and 121 medals overall. Great Britain and China finished in second and third respectively.
India at the Rio Olympics 2016
• The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) had sent a total of 117 athletes, the nation’s largest ever delegation in Summer Olympic history.
• Indian bagged a total of two medals, one silver and one bronze, in the games, and stood at the 67th place in the medal tally.
• Badminton player P V Sindhu won historic silver medal in women’s singles badminton event. With this, she became the first Indian woman to clinch a silver medal in Olympics.
• Wrestler Sakshi Malik secured a bronze in the 58 kg category to become India’s first female wrestler to win an Olympic medal.
• India had qualified one artistic gymnast into the Olympic competition for the first time since 1964. Dipa Karmakar became the first Indian female ever to book an Olympic spot in the apparatus events and all-around event at the Olympic Test Event. She narrowly missed out in the bronze medal, finishing 4th in the finals of the event with a score of 15.066.
• Abhinav Bindra came fourth in the Men’s 10m Air Rifle singles event after losing a shootoff for the top 3 to Serhiy Kulish, who finally won the silver.
• At the 2016 Summer Olympics, Indian long distance runner Lalita Babar scored a time of 9:19.76 in her heat, qualifying to the final. With this, she became the first Indian in 32 years to enter a final in any track event. At the final, she finished 10th with a time of 9:22.74.
Key highlights of the 2016 Summer Olympics
• The opening ceremony took place in the Maracana Stadium on 5 August 2016.
• The Games were officially opened by Acting President of Brazil Michel Temer.
• These were the first Summer Olympic Games under the IOC presidency of Thomas Bach.
• Rio became the first South American city to host the Summer Olympics.
• The two new sports for 2016 Olympic Games were golf and rugby sevens.
• Due to the European migrant crisis and other reasons, the International Olympic Committee allowed athletes to compete as Independent Olympians under the Olympic Flag.
• Due to the suspension of the National Olympic Committee of Kuwait, participants from Kuwait were allowed to participate under the Olympic Flag as Independent Olympic Athletes.
• The official mascot of the 2016 Summer Olympics was Vinicius. It is named after musician Vinicius de Moraes. The mascot represented Brazilian wildlife and carries design traits of cats, monkeys and birds.
About 2020 Summer Olympics
• The 2020 Summer Olympics will be held in Tokyo, Japan.
• The city was announced as the host at the 125th IOC Session in Buenos Aires on 7 September 2013.
• The games are planned to be held from 24 July 2020 to 9 August 2020.
The 2016 G20 Hangzhou summit was the eleventh meeting of the Group of Twenty (G20). It was held on 4–5 September 2016 in the city of Hangzhou. It was the first ever G20 summit to be hosted in China and the second Asian country after 2010 G20 Seoul summit was hosted in South Korea.
It is noted that Barack Obama and Xi Jinping announced the ratification of the Paris Agreement of the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference by their countries. After they did it, it is 26 countries which have ratified the agreement so far; the United States and China represent respectively 18 percent and 20 percent of global carbon dioxide emissions.
G20 countries score poorly in climate goals report
The theme of 2016 G20 Summit was Toward an Innovative, Invigorated, Interconnected and Inclusive World Economy.
It was the first ever G20 summit to be hosted in China and the second Asian country to host the Summit. Before China, Seoul, South Korea, hosted the 2010 G20 Summit.
It was the 11th summit since the inception of G20 in 1999.The summit was attended by all the leaders of the G20 including Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
The chair of the summit was Xi Jinping, President of China.
Key highlights of the summit
• On 3 September 2016, Barack Obama and Xi Jinping announced the ratification of the Paris Agreement of the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference by their countries. The United States and China represent respectively 18 percent and 20 percent of global carbon dioxide emissions.
• The world leaders endorsed free trade and a crowded agenda that included the Koreas, Syria and refugees.
The main themes final communiqué of the summit are:
• Fight against tax evasion
• Favour international trade and investments and opposition to protectionism
• Fiscal stimulus and innovation to boost economic growth
• Combating populist attacks against globalisation
• Strengthen support for refugee
The guest invitees in the summit were: Egypt, Kazakhstan, Laos, Senegal, Spain, Singapore and Thailand.
The 2017 G20 Summit will be held in Hamburg, Germany, under the leadership of Angela Merkel.
G20 Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States of America and European Union.
SSC CGL result is round the corner! Response sheet for answer key of SSC CGL Exam 2016 Tier 1 has been released by the Commission. Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has released response sheet and correct answers for the Combined Graduate Level (CGL) exam 2016. The Commission has sought for representations from candidates regarding the answer key.
Submission of representations can be done before 26 September 2016 (till 05.00 pm). Candidates are required to pay Rs 100 per answer.
For accessing the response sheets candidates are required to login using their same User Id and Password which were used during the SSC CGL exam 2016.
SSC CGL exam was held from 27 August till 11 September 2016 www.ssc.nic.in
16 September: International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer.
Layer is observed every year on September 16 for the preservation of the Ozone Layer. Significance of the Day: The day is commemoration of the date in 1987 on which the Montreal Protocol was signed on substances that deplete the ozone layer. 2016 theme: “Ozone and climate: Restored by a world united”. The theme recognizes the collective efforts of the parties to the Montreal Protocol and Vienna Convention towards the restoration of the ozone layer over the past three decades and the global commitment to combat climate change.

he first BRICS Film Festival will kick started on 2 September 2016 at the Sirifort Auditorium Complex, New Delhi. Minister of State for Information and Broadcasting Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore inaugurated the festival.
The five-day festival aims at providing a platform for people of the film industry of member countries to explore areas of cooperation in the domain of cinema, culture and cuisine.
Key highlights of the BRICS Film Festival
• The idea of BRICS film festival has been conceived to build bridges and bring harmony amongst the BRICS countries, i.e., Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
• The opening film for the festival will be the world premiere of the Malayalam movie, Veeram.
• The closing film will be the Chinese movie, Skiptrace, starring Jackie Chan directed by Renny Harlin.
• In the course of 5 days of the event, 20 movies will be screened in the competition section, 4 from each of the countries.
• The festival that kick started on 2 September 2016 will conclude on 6 September 2016.
Kerala Tourism bagged the award in recognition of its trend setting marketing initiatives, which have given a boost to the state’s profile as a must-visit destination.
The awards were in the categories of Travel Advertisement Broadcast Media and E-Newsletter, which were grabbed by the successful Visit Kerala television commercial campaign and the popular Kerala Tourism E-Newsletter, respectively.
The awards will be presented at the PATA Gold Awards Luncheon and Presentation on 9 September 2016 in Jakarta, Indonesia. In 2015, Kerala Tourism was also awarded PATA Gold in the Heritage and Culture category for Muziris Heritage Project.
Computer
In a computer, basic questions are asked on the definition, parts, hardware, software & functions of the computer. The questions are based on the basic devices of the computer. The questions asked in PO/Clerk level examinations.
Computer Basics
Define the term computer?
A Computer is an automatic electronic apparatus for making calculations or controlling operations that are expressible in numerical or logical terms.
The Basic function performed by a computer is the execution of the program. A program is a sequence of instructions, which operates on data to perform certain tasks. In modern digital computers data is represented in binary form by using two symbols 0 and 1 which are called bi nary digits or bits. Computers use eight bits to represent a character internally. This allows upto 2(8)=256 different items to be represented uniquely. This collection of eight bits is called a byte. Thus, one byte is used to represent one character internally. One of the most common codes to represent characters in computer is ASCII( American Standard Code for Information Interchange.)
Normally, a word may be equal to 8,16,32 or 64 bits. The terms like 32 bit computer, 64 bit computer etc. basically point to the word size of the computer.
Von Neumann proposed that there should be a unit performing arithmetic and logical operations on the data. This unit is termed as Arithmetic Logic Unit(ALU). A control unit directs the ALU to perform specific arithmetic and logical functions on the data.
A program consists of a sequence of steps.
The ALU and the CU together are termed as the central processing Unit(CPU). The CPU is the most component of a computer hardware. The ALU performs the arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication and division, and the logical operations.
All the arithmetic and logical operations are performed in the CPU in special storage areas called registers. The size of the registers is one of the important considerations in determining the processing capabilities of the CPU. The larger the register size, the faster may be the speed of processing. A CPU’s processing power is measured in Million Instructions Per Second(MIPS)
The instructions and data are to be supplied by external environment. Therefore, an input module is needed. Similarly, we need another component that will report the results in proper format and form. This component is called output module.
It was pointed out by Von Neumann that the same memory can be used for storing data and instructions. The memory unit stores all the information in a group of memory cells, also called memory locations, as the binary digits (bits). The amount of information that can be held in the main memory is known as memory capacity. The capacity of the main memory is measured in kilobytes (KB) or Megabytes(MB). One kilobyte stands for 2(10) kilobytes, which is approximately little over one million bytes.
A bus is a set of wires (lines) which you can visualize on the motherboard of a computer. It is a shared media. A bus connecting the CPU, memory and I/O components is called a system bus. A system bus may consist of 50 to 100 separate lines.
A CPU which includes a ALU and CU.
A main memory system
An Input/Output System
The Von Neumann machine use stored program concept, i.e., the program and data are stored in the same memory unit. A Von Neumann machine has only a single path between main memory and control unit(CU).
The Computer and Integrated circuit technology.
In an integrated circuit, the components such as transistors, resistors and conductors are fabricated on semiconductor material such as silicon. Hundreds or even thousands of transistors could be fabricated on a single wafer of silicon. An integrated circuit is constructed on a thin wafer of silicon that is divided into a matrix of small areas (size of the order of a few millimeters squares).
Initially, only a few gates were integrated reliably on a chip and then packaged. This initial integration was referred to as small-scale integration(SSI). The SSI gave way to Medium Scale Integration where 100s of gates were fabricated on a chip. Then came large Scale Integration(1000 gates) and very large integration (VLSI 100,000,000 components are expected to be fabricated on a single chip.
Semi conductor Memories
Initially pace with electronics as more and more component were fabricated on single chip, fever chips are needed to construct a single processor. Intel in 1971 achieved the breakthrough of putting all the components on a single chip The single chip processor is known as microprocessor. The Intel 4004 was the first microprocessor.
Classification of Computers:
Microcomputers
A microcomputers CPU is a microprocessor. The first microcomputers were built around 8 bit microprocessor chips. The 8-bit Chip can retrieve instructions/data from storage,manipulate, and process an 8-bit data at a time or we can say that the chip has a built in 8 bit data transfer path. An improvement on 8-bit chip technology was seen in early 1980s, when a series of 16-bit chips namely 8086 and 8088 were introduced by Intel corporation.
Minicomputer
The minicomputer is used as a multi-user system, which can be used by various users at the same time. Gradually, the architectural requirement of minicomputers grew and a 32-bit minicomputer, which is called supermini, was introduced. Few of the popular mainframe series are IBM, HP, etc.
Mainframes
Mainframe computers are generally 32-bit machines or on the higher side.Mainframes are also used as central host computer to distributed systems. Libraries of applications programs developed for mainframe computers are much large than those of the micro or minicomputers because of their evolution over several decades as families of computing.
Super Computer:
A commercial computer with vector instructions and pipelined floating point arithmetic operations is referred to as supercomputers. They are very powerful, high performance machines used mostly for scientific computations. A supercomputer is a computer best known for its high computational speed, fast and larger memory system and the extensive used for parallel processing.
India has climbed 16 places to the 39th rank on the Global Competitiveness Index prepared by the World Economic Forum as improved business sophistication and goods market efficiency pushed its ranking higher.
For the eighth straight time, the list is topped by Switzerland as the most competitive economy. Singapore and the US are at the second and third positions, respectively. The jump of 16 places for India from last year’s 55th place is the highest for any economy this year. India is also the second-most competitive among BRICS nations behind neighbouring China, which is ranked at the 28th position.
On the index, India has a score of 4.52 while that of Switzerland is 5.81.
At the fourth spot is Netherlands, followed by Germany (5), Sweden (6) and the UK (7), Japan (8), Hong Kong SAR (9) and Finland (10).
India’s “competitiveness has improved across the board, in particular in goods market efficiency, business sophistication, and innovation”.
The 68th Annual Primetime Emmy Awards was announced on 18 September 2016 at the Microsoft Theater, Los Angeles, California, U.S.
The Game of Thrones won best drama series at the 2016 Primetime Emmy Awards, while Veep took home the top comedy award.
The People v. O.J. Simpson: American Crime Story also earned several awards, while Julia Louis-Dreyfus won her fifth consecutive Emmy in the lead comedy actress category.
Complete list of the winners
Award | Winner |
| Outstanding Comedy Series | Veep |
| Outstanding Drama Series | Game of Thrones |
| Outstanding Variety Talk Series | Last Week Tonight with John Oliver |
| Outstanding Variety Sketch Series | Key & Peele |
| Outstanding Limited Series | The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Television Movie | Sherlock: “The Abominable Bride” |
| Outstanding Reality-Competition Program | The Voice |
| Outstanding Lead Actor in a Comedy Series | Jeffrey Tambor as Maura Pfefferman on Transparent |
| Outstanding Lead Actress in a Comedy Series | Julia Louis-Dreyfus as President Selina Meyer on Veep |
| Outstanding Lead Actor in a Drama Series | Rami Malek as Elliot Alderson on Mr. Robot |
| Outstanding Lead Actress in a Drama Series | Tatiana Maslany as Sarah Manning, Alison Hendrix, Cosima Niehaus, Beth Childs, Rachel Duncan, and MK on Orphan Black |
| Outstanding Lead Actor in a Limited Series or Movie | Courtney B. Vance as Johnnie Cochran on The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Lead Actress in a Limited Series or Movie | Sarah Paulson as Marcia Clark on The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Supporting Actor in a Comedy Series | Louie Anderson as Christine Baskets on Baskets |
| Outstanding Supporting Actress in a Comedy Series | Kate McKinnon as Various Characters on Saturday Night Live |
| Outstanding Supporting Actor in a Drama Series | Ben Mendelsohn as Danny Rayburn on Bloodline |
| Outstanding Supporting Actress in a Drama Series | Maggie Smith as Violet Crawley, Dowager Countess of Grantham on Downton Abbey |
| Outstanding Supporting Actor in a Limited Series or Movie | Sterling K. Brown as Christopher Darden on The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Supporting Actress in a Limited Series or Movie | Regina King as Terri LaCroix on American Crime |
| Outstanding Directing for a Comedy Series | Transparent (Episode: “Man on the Land”), Directed by Jill Soloway |
| Outstanding Directing for a Drama Series | Game of Thrones (Episode: “Battle of the Bastards”), Directed by Miguel Sapochnik |
| Outstanding Directing for a Variety Special | Thomas Kail and Alex Rudzinski for Grease: Live |
| Outstanding Directing for a Limited Series, Movie, or Dramatic Special | The Night Manager, Directed by Susanne Bier |
| Outstanding Writing for a Comedy Series | Master of None (Episode: “Parents”), Written by Aziz Ansari and Alan Yang |
| Outstanding Writing for a Drama Series | Game of Thrones (Episode: “Battle of the Bastards”), Written by David Benioff and D. B. Weiss |
| Outstanding Writing for a Variety Special | Patton Oswalt: Talking for Clapping, Written by Patton Oswalt |
| Outstanding Writing for a Limited Series, Movie, or Dramatic Special | The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story (Episode: “Marcia, Marcia, Marcia”), Written by D. V. DeVincentis |
India moved a step closer to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime, as its Parliament’s Upper House, the Rajya Sabha, approved The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill, 2014 with 203 votes in favour and none against. The GST, which is expected to be implemented from April 1, 2017, aims to replace multiple state and central levies with a single tax. Since the central and state taxes are likely to be included under GST, it may result in reduction of tax credits across intra- and inter-state transactions.
What is GST?
GST is one indirect tax for the whole nation, which will make India one unified common market. GST is a single tax on the supply of goods and services, right from the manufacturer to the consumer. The final consumer will thus bear only the GST charged by the last dealer in the supply chain, with set-off benefits at all the previous stages.
In other words, the prices that we pay for goods and services have the taxes embedded in them. Mostly, the consumers are not even aware of or ignore the tax they pay for things they buy. This is because there is a list of indirect taxes such as sales tax, excise and VAT, which leads to increased complexity. The GST seeks to sort out this and include all in one single tax, thereby making India an economically unified market. The Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers, which deliberated on the tax and its implications, has recommended what all taxes are to be included in the GST:
In the Central taxes: 1) Central Excise Duty; 2) Additional Excise Duties; 3) The Excise Duty levied under the Medicinal and Toiletries Preparation Act Service Tax; 4) Additional Customs Duty, commonly known as Countervailing Duty (CVD); 5) Special Additional Duty of Customs – 4% (SAD); 6) Surcharges, and 7) Cesses. State taxes: 1) VAT / Sales tax; 2) Entertainment tax (unless it is levied by the local bodies); 3) Luxury tax; 4) Taxes on lottery, betting and gambling; 5) State Cesses and Surcharges in so far as they relate to supply of goods and services; and 6) Entry tax not in lieu of Octroi.
“According to analysts from a macro-economic perspective, the short-term impact of GST could be mixed, the long-term impact will be positive”
What will be the Impact??
GST will turn India into one common market, leading to greater ease of doing business and big savings in logistics costs from companies across all sectors. Some companies will gain more as the GST rate will be lower than the current tax rates they pay, others will lose as the rate will be higher than the present effective rate. While the rate of GST is yet to be decided, industry observers have assumed an 18% rate recommended by a government panel in making their impact calculations.
What will the Bill in Parliament today do?
It basically seeks to amend the Constitution to empower both the Centre and the states to levy GST. This they cannot do now, because the Centre cannot impose any tax on goods beyond manufacturing (Excise) or primary import (Customs) stage, while states do not have the power to tax services. The proposed GST would include various central (Excise Duty, Additional Excise Duty, service tax, Countervailing or Additional Customs Duty, Special Additional Duty of Customs, etc.), as well as state-level indirect taxes (VAT/sales tax, purchase tax, entertainment tax, luxury tax, octroi, entry tax, etc). Once the Bill is passed, there will only be a national-level central GST and a state-level GST spanning the entire value chain for all goods and services, with some exemptions.
UNITED NATIONS: India has ranked a low 110 out of 149 nations assessed on where they stand with regard to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals, according to a new index which is topped by Sweden and shows all countries face major challenges in achieving these ambitious goals.
The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung launched a new Sustainable Development Goal Index and Dashboard to provide a report card for tracking Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) progress and ensuring accountability.
The index collected available data for 149 countries to assess where each country stands in 2016 with regard to achieving the SDGs. It ranks countries based on their performance across the 17 global goals, a set of ambitious objectives across the three dimensions of sustainable development – economic development, social inclusion and environmental sustainability, underpinned by good governance.

It was a celebration of woman power in sports as Olympic stars PV Sindhu, Sakshi Malik and Dipa Karmakar were today conferred India’s highest sporting honour — the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna — along with shooter Jitu Rai in a gleaming awards ceremony at the Rashtrapati Bhawan
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Four sports person from different discipline of sports were chosen for the award and they are P.V. Sindhu for Badminton, Dipa Karmakar for Gymnastics, Jitu Rai for Shooting and Sakshi Malik for Wrestling.
The award is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson over a period of four years.
Dronacharya Awards
Six sports coaches will be honoured with Dronacharya Awards and they are Nagapuri Ramesh for Athletics, Sagar Mal Dhayal for Boxing, Raj Kumar Sharma for Cricket, Bishweshwar Nandi for Gymnastics, S Pradeep Kumar for Swimming (Lifetime) and Mahabir Singh for Wrestling (Lifetime).
Dipa Karmakar’s coach Bishweshwar Nandi will receive the award for Gymnastics.
The award is conferred on coaches for producing medal winners at prestigious international sports events.
Arjuna Awards
15 sports person from different discipline of sports were selected for the award and they are Rajat Chauhan for Archery, Lalita Babar for Athletics, Sourav Kothari for Billiards & Snooker, Shiva Thapa for Boxing, Ajinkya Rahane for Cricket, Subrata Paul for Football, Rani for Hockey, Raghunath VR for Hockey, Gurpreet Singh for Shooting, Apurvi Chandela for Shooting, Soumyajit Ghosh for Table Tennis, Vinesh for Wrestling, Amit Kumar for Wrestling, Sandeep Singh Mann for Para-Athletics and Virender Singh for Wrestling (Deaf).
The award is given for consistently outstanding performance for four years.
Dhyan Chand Award 2015
Three sports person were selected for the awards and they are Athlete Satti Geetha, hockey player Sylvanus Dung Dung and Rower Rajendra Pralhad Shelke.
The award is conferred for life time contribution to sports development.
Rashtriya Khel Protsahana Purushkar
Seven organisations were selected for Rashtriya Khel Protsahana Purushkar, 2016 and they are Reserve Bank of India (Employment to sportspersons and other welfare measures), India Infrastructure Finance Corporate Limited (Encouragement to sports through corporate social responsibility), and Subroto Mukherjee Sports Education Society (Sports for Development). Four organisation who were chosen for the award for identification and nurturing of budding and young talent includes Hockey Citizen Group, Dadar Parsee Zorostrian cricket club, Usha School of Athletics and STAIRS.
The award is given to the corporate entities (both in private and public sector) and individuals who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development.
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy: Punjabi University, Patiala.
The trophy is given to the overall top performing university in inter-university tournaments.
The awardees will receive their awards from President Pranab Mukherjee at a function at the Rashtrapati Bhawan on 29 August 2016, which is celebrated as the National Sports Day.
Apart from a medal and a citation, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee will receive a cash prize of 7.5 lakh rupees.
Arjuna, Dronacharya and Dhyan Chand Awardees will receive statuettes, certificates and cash prize of five lakh rupees each. Recipients of Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar will be given Trophies and certificates. Award money of ten lakh rupees and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy will be given to Punjabi University, Patiala for overall top performing university in inter-university tournaments.
Selection Committee for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award and Arjuna Awards was headed by Justice SK Agarwal, Retired Delhi High Court Judge.
Selection Committee for Dronacharya Awards and Dhyan Chand Awards was headed by MC Mary Kom.
Selection Committee for Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar was headed by Rajiv Yadav, Secretary (Sports).
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Mr. Krishna will receive the award for “social inclusiveness in culture,” while Wilson was named as an awardee for “asserting the inalienable right to a life of human dignity.”
Bezwada Wilson, a renowned campaigner against manual scavenging, and Carnatic singer T.M. Krishna from Chennai were named for the prestigious Magsaysay Award on Wednesday.
ElonMusk-led aerospace startup SpaceX today successfully launched a spy satellite into orbit for the US military.
Jammu-born poet and novelist Padma Sachdev has been chosen for the prestigious Saraswati Samman for the year 2015 for her autobiography written in Dogri language. The 76-year-old writer’s autobiography ‘Chitt-Chete’, published in 2007, was selected from 22 works in as many languages published between the years 2005-2014. The award is given every year for an outstanding literary work written in any Indian language by an Indian citizen and published during last 10 years. It carries award money of Rs 15 lakh, a citation and a plaque.Sachdev, who writes in Hindi and native Dogri, has 60 books to her credit.
She has been a recipient of the Sahitya Akademi award in 1971 for her book of poetry ‘Meri Kavita Mere Geet’. In her 662-page autobiography, Sachdev has included some historic photographs with dignitaries from her state, nation and the world.
The World Health Organization (WHO) has declared Brazil free of measles, after no case of the disease was registered in the last year. In the coming months, the WHO will issue a certification for the eradication of measles to Brazil.
The eradication of measles is the conclusion of work spanning several years. Brazil saw no domestic cases of measles from 1985 to 2000, although it broke out in 2013 in the northeastern states of Pernambuco and Ceara.
While most patients recover within three weeks, it can cause pneumonia, blindness or even death in malnourished children.
The World Health Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations that is concerned with international public health. It was established on 7 April 1948, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. Wikipedia
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
Founded: April 7, 1948
Head: Margaret Chan
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Indian shuttler Kidambi Srikanth today defeated Japan’s Kazumasa Sakai to win the Indonesia Superseries Premier title.
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Madhya Pradesh bans Sand Excavation in Narmada River
The State Government of Madhya Pradesh has put an indefinite ban on the sand excavation in the Narmada River. This announcement has been made by Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan in Bhopal. The government has also set up a committee to suggest the scientific ways of mining the rivers. This committee will submit the report to state government after exploring ways for sand excavation without harming rivers. The government will also promote manufactured sand (made by mixing stones).
Free Wi-Fi facility inaugurated at 28 Railway Stations
On May 21, Minister of Railways Suresh Prabhu inaugurated free Wi-Fi facility at 28 Railway Stations of Konkan Railway from Kudal Railway Station in Maharashtra. Indian Railways has tied by with SYSCON/JOISTER for providing 2 Mbps peer-to-peer 24 hrs Free Wi-Fi bandwidth at 28 railway stations of Konkan Railway. In line with Government’s Digital India initiative, SYSCON/JOISTER are providing the JOISPOT brand WiFi in Pune and Mumbai educational institutions in Maharashtra state. The company has now undertaken as a part of their CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility) activity of providing free Wi-Fi to rural area on the Konkan Route. The 28 stations include Kolad; Mangaon; Veer; Karanjadi; Vinhere; Diwankhavati; Khed; Anjani; Chiplun; Kamthe; Sawarda; Aravali Road;Sangameshwar; Ukshi; Bhoke; Ratnagiri; Nivasar; Adavali; Vilavade; Rajapur Road; Vaibhavwadi Road; Nandgaon Road; Kankavali; Sindhudurg; Kudal; Zarap; Sawantwadi Road and Madure. The free Wi-Fi facility would help the travelers, commuters and tourists access essential information while waiting for trains on railway stations.
NASA Names New Species After Abdul Kalam
NASA has named a new bacteria discovered on the filters of the International Space Station, ISS, as Solibacillus kalamii to honour the late president Dr A P J Abdul Kalam. The genus is Solibacillus and the species name is kalamii. Researchers at the Jet Propulsion Laboratory has found that the bacteria remained on board the International Space Station for 40 months. The new organism is found only on the ISS and has not been found anywhere on the earth. In 1963, Dr. Kalam had his early training at NASA before setting up India’s first rocket launching facility at Thumba in Kerala.
Air India to auction its properties as part of asset monetisation plan
Air India has decided to auction seven of its properties, as a part of its asset monetisation plan. The national carrier has mandated the auctioneer MSTC to put these properties under the hammer. According to the auction notice, Air India proposes to sell its exclusive properties in the form of land parcels/built-up flats located at prime location in Mumbai, Bengaluru and Trivandrum. This sale is likely to raise around 80 crore rupees. As per the financial restructuring plan approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs back in 2012, Air India is required to monetise its assets and generate 5,000 crore rupees by way of sale, leasing or developing an asset as a joint venture.
RBI to reconstitute oversight committee to deal with bad loans
The RBI has decided to reconstitute the oversight committee, OC, with more members after the government armed it with additional powers to resolve bad loans with banks that have crossed Rs 8 lakh crore. In a statement in Mumbai yesterday, the RBI said, while the current members will continue in the reconstituted OC, names of a few more will be announced soon. It said, the apex bank would also be constituting a Committee comprised majority of its independent Board Members to advise it in the NonPerforming Asset matter. The statement said RBI already sought information on the current status of the large stressed assets from the banks. The RBI further said it has also envisages an important role for the credit rating agencies in resolving the issue. Sources said the RBI has identified about 50 major cases for NPA resolution.
Fact Box: Federation Cup and Other Football Tournaments & Leagues in India
On 21st May, 2017, the Bengaluru FC defeated Mohun Bagan 2-0 to win the Federation Cup. The final event was held in Barabati Stadium in Cuttack, Odisha. Federation Cup is India’s first major football competition involving the clubs. It was established by the All India Football Federation in 1977. During 1980s and 1990s, it was considered to be most popular foot ball tournament in India. The other popular football tournaments of India include
Durand Cup:-Santosh Trophy, Indian Super League, Subroto Cup, IFA Shield etc. Important facts about these tournaments are given below: Durand Cup Durand Cup is India’s oldest football tournament and is among the oldest in the world. It is named after its founder Sir Mortimer Durand, who served as Foreign Secretary in charge of India from 1884 to 1894. The first Durand Cup tournament was held in 1888. In the beginning, it was an Army cup for the British Indian Army troops. Over the years, it opened up for civilian teams. In 2006, the army passed its administration to civilians’ organizations called Durand Football Tournament Society (DFTS) and Osians. The latest Durand Cup Tournament was held in 2016 and current champion is Army Green.
IFA Shield:- IFA Shield is second oldest football competition of India organized by Indian Football Association and in existence since 1893. Since 2015, IFA Shield has been designed as an under- 19 youth football tournament. Its current sponsor is LG and latest competition was held in 2016, won by Tata Football Academy.
Subroto Cup:- Subroto Cup Football Tournament is an inter-school football tournament named after Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee. It was started in 1960. More than 50 school teams participate in this competition including schools from Nepal and Afghanistan. It is conducted by the Indian Air Force, with support from India’s Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. The Madhyamgram High School, in West Bengal us known for winning this tournament for seven times.
Santosh Trophy:- Santosh Trophy, started in 1941, is an annual Indian football tournament platyed by states and government institutions. It is named after Maharaja Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhary of Santosh, who served as President of the IFA. The first winners were Bengal. West Bengal has been the most successful team in the tournament and also the current champion with its 32nd title in hand.
Indian Super:- League Indian Super League (ISL) *Officially Hero ISL+ is a men’s professional football league. It was founded in 2013 and is based on franchise model on the lines of IPL. Currently, there are eight teams in ISL viz. Atlético de Kolkata; Chennaiyin FC; Delhi Dynamos; Goa; Kerala Blasters; Mumbai City; North East United and Pune City. So far three seasons have held of which two have been won by Atlético de Kolkata (2014 & 2016) while one season was won by Chennaiyin FC (2015).
I-League:- I-League (officially Hero I League) is another professional league in football in India. It was launched in 2007 as ONGC I-League and as a successor of National Football League. So far, nine sessions have been conducted of this league. It is contested by 10 football clubs and considered to be the primary competition in Indian football. The 10 clubs are Aizawl, Bengaluru FC, Chennai City, Churchill Brothers, DSK Shivajians, East Bengal, Minerva Punjab, Mohun Bagan, Mumbai and Shillong Lajong.
India wins all 10 Gold Medals at South Asian Junior Table Tennis Championships
The South Asian Junior Table Tennis championship was held in Mount Lavinia, near Colombia in Sri Lanka. In a stunning performance, the paddlers from India have won all the 10 Gold Medals on offer in this tournament. Apart from 10 gold medals, the Indian participants have also won 14 medals, thus taking the medal tally to 14. In this championship, top seeded Manav Thakkar won Junior Boys final; while Archana Girish Kamath won Junior Girls final. In Cadet Boys final, top-seed H. Jeho won the Gold Medal. India led the championship with eight points, followed by Sri Lanka (six points).
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♦ Founded: 1 July 1964
♦ HQ: Mumbai
♦ MD & CEO: Mahesh Kumar Jain
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♦ Capital: Bhopal
♦ Governor: Om Prakash Kohli
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Hassan Ali (Pakistan) (13 wickets)
Indian Boy Wins Intel International Science Award in US
Prashant Ranganathan has emerged winner in the world’s largest pre-college science competition in the environment engineering category for his work on biodegradation of pesticides. Prashant is among the 20 high schools students from various parts of the country who participated in the Intel International Science and Engineering Fair held in the US. More than 1700 students across the world had participated in the event. Prashant Ranganathan is a student of Carmel Junior College in Jamshedpur. His project titled ‘Biodegradation of Chlorpyrifos using native bacteria’ is aimed at helping farmers to biodegrade the harmful pesticides. In all, Four Indian-Americans received top awards in various categories. Indian American Pratik Naidu has won an award in the category of computational biology and bioinformatics. Other Indian-American winners include Adam Nayak who has won in earth and environmental sciences, Karthik Yegnesh in mathematics and Rahul Subramaniam in the microbiology category.
Cabinet to soon take a call on FIPB abolition
Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman today said that the Union Cabinet will soon take a call on the winding up of 25-year-old Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB). The minister said this in a media briefing in New Delhi on initiatives and achievements of the ministry in the last three years. On development of the North Eastern states, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman said that her ministry is working on a new policy for the industrial development of the region. The North East Industrial and Investment Promotion Policy – 2007 has ended this year. She added that the ministry is holding consultations with those states to understand their industrial priorities with an aim to firm up something which can help in promotion of industry and employment generation there.
Defence Acquisition Council finalises broad outline of policy to engage private sector in manufacturing of hi-tech equipment
Defence Acquisition Council, under the chairmanship of Defence Minister Arun Jaitley, today finalised broad contours of policy to engage the country’s private sector in manufacturing of high tech defence equipment in India. The policy outline aims at developing defence industrial eco-system in the country through the involvement of major Indian corporates as well as Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. It envisages the establishment of long-term strategic partnerships with qualified Indian industry majors through a transparent and competitive process. The policy will give a boost to the ‘Make in India’ policy in the Defence sector and help Indian industry. Initially the policy is expected to be implemented in a few selected segments. These are fighter aircraft, submarines and armoured vehicles.
Hassan Rouhani Wins Iran’s Presidential Election
Hassan Rouhani has been re-elected as the President of Iran. He was elected as president for his first term in 2013. He won 2013 elections by pledging to end Iran’s isolation and improve civil rights at home. Rouhani was born in Semnan province on November 12, 1948. He is a graduate of University of Tehran and did his PhD from Scotland’s Glasgow Caledonian University. The 68 year old Rouhani is a lawyer, academic and a former diplomat. Rouhani has won his second term by presenting himself as the candidate of change and social freedoms that ended many sanctions and a 13 year standoff over Iran’s nuclear programme. He has held various key positions like the key defence portfolios during the 1980 -88 Iran-Iraq war. He had spent 16 years as secretary of the Supreme National Security Council, which is Iran’s top security post. Rouhani consistently worked to rebuild Irans’ relations with the West. He also became the first Iranian leader to speak with the President of United States when Barack Obama phoned in September 2013.
US President and Saudi Arabia King sign defence deals
US President Donald Trump and King Salman of Saudi Arabia have signed today 110 billion dollar defense deals to support the long term security of Saudi Arabia and the Gulf region in the face of the Iranian influence and Iran related threats. A White House statement said that this package demonstrates the commitment of the United States to Saudi Arabia while bolstering the Kingdom’s ability to provide for its own security and continue contributing to counter terrorism operations across the region, reducing the burden on U.S. military forces. The Press Statement also said that the President’s meetings underscored the deep and longstanding commitment of the United States to the security, stability, and prosperity of Saudi Arabia and demonstrated the President’s confidence in the future of USSaudi relations. He also emphasized the importance of working jointly to address challenges to regional peace and security, including defeating ISIS and al-Qa’eda, countering Iran’s destabilizing activities, and resolving conflicts in Yemen and Syria.
GST Council Finalises 4-slab Service Tax Structure
The GST Council headed by finance Minister Arun Jaitley has finalised a 4-slab service tax structure at the rates of 5, 12, 18 and 28 per cent as against the single rate of 15% levied on all taxable services. GST regime is scheduled to be implemented from July 1. In the next GST Council meeting, tax rates on gold and other precious metals will be taken up for discussion.
Salient Highlights: Luxury hotels, gambling, race club betting and cinema services will attract a tax rate of 28%. Education, healthcare and non-AC rail travel will remain exempted from the GST tax regime. However, the states will be given the option to levy additional taxes on cinema to compensate for the revenue losses entailed due to merging of entertainment tax with GST. At present, the total tax incidence on cinema including entertainment and service tax is in the range of 55%. The states need to use the legislative route if it wants to levy additional tax on cinema. States will also be permitted to levy any new tax as the taxation powers of the states have only been restricted and not abolished after the rollout of GST. Telecom and financial services will be taxed at a rate of 18%. Transport services will be taxed at the rate of 5%. Cab aggregators like Ola and Uber will have to pay 5% under GST in place of 6%. AC rail travel will attract 5% tax. Economy class air travel will attract 5 % GST while business class will attract 12%. Travelling on metro, local train and religious travel such as Haj Yatra would be exempted from GST. The e-commerce players like Flipkart and Snapdeal would be required to shell out 1% Tax Collected at Source (TCS). Non-AC restaurants and AC restaurants will attract a GST of 12% and 18% respectively. Advertisements published in newspapers will attract 5% GST. At present it is exempt from service tax.
Climate Change: Antarctica is Turning Green
According to a new study conducted by a team of scientists from the University of Exeter in the UK, plant life on Antarctica is growing rapidly due to climate change. The scientists have observed a sharp increase in biological activity in Antarctica in the last 50 years. For ascertaining the growth, the scientists conducted tests at five cores from three sites and has observed the occurrence of major biological changes across the Antarctic Peninsula. The scientists made use of 150 years’ worth of data to arrive at the conclusion. The study has been published in the journal Current Biology. According to the scientists, Antarctica will be much greener in the future and the continent’s plants and soils will change substantially even with only modest further warming. The continuous retreat of glaciers will make Antarctica much greener in the future. As per the study, the growth of moss in the continent is a signifier that the region is already undergoing change. At present, the plant life exists only in 0.3% of Antarctica. With increase in land cover occurs decrease in snow and ice cover. The thinner ice cover permits the penetration of sunlight into the previously dark areas allowing the planktons to grow. This would bring ecosystem shift to Antarctica similar to what has happened in Arctic.
World Cup Archery: Indian Men’s Team Wins Compound Gold
The Indian Men’s compound archery team has managed to win gold after defeating Columbia 226- 221 in the archery World Cup stage 1 championships held in Shanghai, China. Indian archery team were represented by Abhishek Verma, Chinna Raju Srither and Amanjeet Singh. The Colombian team comprised Camilo Andres Cardona, Jose Carlos Ospina and Daniel Munoz. India beat USA in the semifinal and edged out Iran in the quarterfinals. The team also defeated Vietnam in the first round. The women’s team, however, failed to shine in the event. In the Women’s event, South Korea, Denmark and Russia emerged as winners in that order.
High speed Tejas Express to be flagged off on 22nd May
The high speed, air-conditioned Tejas Express will be flagged off on 22nd May from Mumbai to Goa. Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu will flag off the premium luxury train through video conferencing. Having ultra-modern amenities like LED TV, wi-fi and CCTV, Tejas Express is a state of the art train capable of running at 200 kms per hour. However, due to constraints related to rail tracks, it will run at a speed of 160 kilometres per hour. The train will operate five days a week during non-monsoon period, and three days a week during monsoon period.
GST implementation won’t jeopardise Mumbai security: Maharashtra Finance Minister
The Maharashtra government has sought to discard fears that the GST roll-out would undermine Mumbai’s security because the vehicles entering the city will not have to stop and face checks at borders after abolition of octroi Maharashtra Finance Minister Sudhir Mungantiwar stated that the vehicles entering the city will still be under watch and the government would take new steps to beef up the security. The minister was speaking during a discussion in the Lower House on Sunday on the second day of the three-day special session convened to pave way for the country-wide implementation of the GST from July 1. Mungantiwar said that the government will pay special attention to Mumbai’s security. He added that new measures to boost the city’s security will be undertaken. Leader of opposition in assembly Radhakrishna Vikhe Patil said the government should tread carefully while implementing the GST.
Anshu Jamsenpa conquers Mount Everest twice within five days: A record
Anshu Jamsenpa from Arunachal Pradesh has created history by becoming the first woman to conquer Mount Everest twice within five days. She along with Nepalease climber Furi Sherpa scaled the Everest at 8 am on 21st May 2017. Anshu also stood atop of the world’s highest mountain on Tuesday. Anshu also become the first Indian women to reach Mt Everest for the fifth time. She successfully climbed Mt Everest twice in 2011 and later in 2013. India’s Dhankude Kishor Dattatraya, Brij Mohan Sharma and Ravi Kumar also successfully conquered Mt. Everest on Saturday. But Ravi Kumar is missing after he was descending to lower camps. Rescue and search efforts are on. Meanwhile an American and Australian climber died today while they were trying to scale roof of the world.
Inflation to fall by 2% after possible initial rise following implementation of GST: Govt
Revenue Secretary Hasmukh Adhia has said, Inflation will fall by two per cent on implementation of the goods and services tax, GST, and will create buoyancy in the economy. In an interview to PTI, he said the allpowerful GST Council will meet next week to decide on tax rates of contentious items like gold, bidi and biscuits, just in time for its rollout from July 1. Mr Adhia also expressed confidence that the requirement of compensation to make up for revenue loss of any state will be fulfilled from cess on demerit and luxury goods like car and tobacco. With the stage set for the biggest overhaul of India’s tax system since Independence, the government will launch a massive awareness campaign to educate consumers about GST so that they are not fleeced by traders in the name of new tax. The Council over the two days last week assigned tax rates to more than 500 services and 1,200 goods by setting them in five broad rates of 5, 12, 18 and 28 per cent. GST will be a single nation-wide sales tax replacing a string of central and state levies.
India’s export sector performs well despite global slowdown: Nirmala Sitharaman
Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has said, India’s export sector has performed well despite the global slowdown. Addressing a press conference in New Delhi on key initiatives taken by her Ministry during the last three years, Ms Sitharaman said, notwithstanding global headwinds, exports have shone in last 6 months. Ms Sitharaman said, number of mandatory documents required for exports and imports have been reduced to three each. The Minister said, forms related to imports and exports have also been simplified. The Minister said, Government e-Market place is a remarkable step towards fighting corruption and ensuring transparency in Government transaction. She said, there is an increase in exports from special economic zone in the last three years. Exports were valued at 5.23 lakh crore rupees in 2016-17.
UNSC to hold meeting on 23rd May in response to North Korea’s missile test
The United Nations Security Council will hold an emergency meeting on 23rd May in response to yesterday’s ballistic missile test by North Korea. Uruguay’s mission to the UN said, the meeting was requested by the United States, South Korea and Japan. South Korean military said, the missile was fired from South Pyeongan province and flew about 500 kilometers before landing in the Sea of Japan. It was Pyongyang’s second missile test in a week and 10th this year. North Korea had termed the launch of its medium-range ballistic missile as successful.
Euro zone, IMF to seek compromise on Greek debt deal on 22nd May
Euro zone Finance Ministers and the International Monetary Fund will seek a deal today on Greek debt relief. Without the deal, no new loans can be disbursed to Athens, even though the bailout is now handled only by euro zone governments. Greece needs new credit to repay some 7.3 billion euros worth of maturing loans in July. Greece has agreed after months of negotiations, with the euro zone lenders and the IMF on pensions and tax reforms.
Swiss people vote for renewable energy against nuclear power
In Switzerland, voters have supported a referendum to withdraw the country from nuclear power in favour of renewable energy. Today’s referendum shows 58 per cent of voters in favor and 42 percent against the proposal. The Swiss government wants to ban the construction of new nuclear power plants and decommission the country’s five existing ones at the end of their technically safe operating lives. The plan would also boost renewable energies such as solar and wind and make cars and electronic devices more energy efficient.
Mumbai Indians win IPL title for third time In Cricket
Mumbai Indians lifted the Indian Premier League trophy for the third time, as they recorded a scintillating 1-run win against Rising Pune Supergiant in the title clash at Hyderabad last night. Opting to bat, Mumbai had posted a modest 129 for 8, with Krunal Pandya top scoring with 47. In reply, Pune got off to a decent start and were 71 for 2 in 12 overs. They needed 11 runs from the last over with 7 wickets in hand, before Mumbai paceman Mitchell Johnson took the wickets of Manoj Tiwary and Steven Smith on successive deliveries. Pune, then, needed 4 runs from the final ball. But, their hopes of winning the IPL title in the maiden Final appearance were dashed to the ground as Daniel Christian was run out and Mumbai won the match by 1 run. Johnson finished with 3 wickets.
Bengaluru FC wins 38th Federation Cup football tournament
Bengaluru FC has won the Federation Cup Football tournament. In the Final played at Cuttack last night, they defeated defending champions and 14-time winners Mohun Bagan, 2-nil. The match went into extra time after neither of the teams could break the deadlock in 90 minutes. India international CK Vineeth, then, scored twice for Bengaluru in extra time helping them to win the tournament for just the second time. With the win, Bengaluru also sealed a berth for next year’s Asian Football Confederation (AFC) Cup. It also became the eighth team to have won more than one Federation Cup title.
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The team also includes Soumyajit Ghosh, Harmeet Desai, reigning national champion Madhurika Patkar, Manika Batra and Mouma Das.
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Former cricketer VVS Laxman has been awarded honorary life membership of the Marylebone Cricket Club.
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Note : India footballer Mehrajuddin Wadoo would be the head of the academy.
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Australia
♦ Capital: Canberra
♦ Currency: Australian Dollar
♦ PM: Malcolm Turnbull
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iii) On June 14, 2017, Union Cabinet was apprised about an Memorandum of Understanding which has already been signed in April 2017, between India and Armenia for cooperation on youth matters.
i)Mission Retro Fitment is a program of railways to upgrade the level of furnishing & facilities in the coaches of Indian Railways.
iii) The refurbished coaches will have the following features will be World class ambiance, Enhanced Passenger Safety, Caring for the Environment, Enhanced Passenger convenience.
v)The mission will be one of the largest retro fitment projects in the world.
vii) The mission aims to induct about 40,000 coaches with upgraded interiors by 202223. viii. The cost of refurbishing per coach will be approximately Rs 30 lakhs.
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Key Notes:
i)IDBI Bank was the only public sector bank that got ‘high (H)’(85 and above score out of 100) rating in two successive surveys.
iii) The three foreign banks — Citibank, HSBC and Standard Chartered Bank — that were surveyed got ‘high’ ranking.
vii)12 banks got ‘high’ rating in the survey, 29 got ‘above average (AA)’ rating (70 to less than 85 score) and 10 got ‘average (A)’ rating (60 to less than 70 score).
viii)The public sector banks, the ratings of which improved in the latest round, are: Central Bank of India, Corporation Bank, UCO Bank and Union Bank of India, with their rating going up to AA from A.
IDBI Bank :
♦ Headquarters: Mumbai
♦ CEO: Mahesh Kumar Jain
Key Notes:
DBS Bank :
♦ Headquarters: Singapore
♦ CEO: Piyush Gupta
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i.Gaitri Issar Kumar is a 1986batch Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer, has been appointed as India’s next ambassador to Belgium.
iii. Reenat Sandhu, a 1989batch IFS officer, will head India’s diplomatic mission in Italy.
Denmark:
♦ Capital: Copenhagen
♦ Currency: Danish krone
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Key Notes:
About Panama :
♦ Capital : Panama City
♦ President: Juan Carlos Varela
♦ Vice President: Isabel Saint Malo
SRK, Salman, Akshay part of Forbes’ highest earning
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The Human Resource Development department of Sikkim government has signed a MoU with the British Council on 13 of June, 2017
Key Notes:
i.Objective: To enhance the quality of education in the state.
iii. The main aim of signing the MoU is to improve the educational structure of the schools of Sikkim.
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It included all electronic gadgets like cellular/mobile phones, any other devices for communication, laptops, bluetooth devices, and calculators in the list of banned gadgets.
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Australia:
♦ Capital: Canberra
♦ Currency: Australian dollar
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China has unveiled world’s first train that operates on a virtual track using sensor technology instead of metal rails. This Autonomous Rail Rapid Transit (ART) has been developed by China’s CRRC Zhuzhou Institute
Salient Features of World’s First Train that runs on Virtual Tracks:
Railway facts:
♦ The Qinghai Tibet Railway, China – World’s highest train journey.
♦ Beipanjiang River Railway Bridge, China – World’s highest railway bridge
♦ India is building world’s highest rail bridge in Jammu and Kashmir over river Chenab
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Rank Country
1 Switzerland
2 Sweden
3 Netherlands
4 United States of America
5 United Kingdom
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♦ Capital: Seoul
♦ Currency: South Korean won
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About Atal Innovation Mission
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Money Super Market. The survey highlights the individual contribution to the world’s climate and also outlines areas for improvement for each country.
More information about Environmental Impact Survey:
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Guaranty Corporation (I&G), the State Development and Investment Corporation (SDIC), as
well as China’s finance ministry and National Development and Reform Commission.
financing schemes.
emission trading earnings as collateral.
platform.
of green investment China needs every year over the next five years.
ADB :
♦ Headquarters: Mandaluyong, Philippines
♦ Founded: 19 December 1966
♦ President: Takehiko Nakao
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India ended the Grand Prix of Liberation Plzen 2017 Shooting championships with 7 medals after Indian shooter Heena Sidhu claimed a bronze medal in the women’s 10-metre Air Pistol event today.
GST Council Announces GST Rates
The GST Council headed by finance Minister Arun Jaitley has finalised tax rates and has approved all the seven rules for the GST regime that is scheduled to be implemented from July 1. The remaining two rules of the GST pertaining to transition and return is under the examination of the legal committee. In total, the council has fixed the rates of 1211 items. It will decide rates of some other items and services in the coming days. Salient Highlights Out of 1211 items, 81% of the items will attract tax of 18% or less. Only the remaining 19% of items will attract a highest rate of 28% Household items like Sugar, Tea, Coffee and edible oil will attract 5% levy. Cereals and milk will be exempted from the tax. Manufactured goods will attract 18% levy. Luxury cars will attract 28% GST in addition to a cess of 15%. Small petrol cars will attract 28% GST plus a 1% cess, and diesel cars will be taxed at 28% plus 3% cess. Capital goods, a key asset for the manufacturing sector, will be taxed at 28%. Aerated drinks will fall under the 28% tax bracket.
Bilateral Exercise SIMBEX-17 between Indian & Republic Of Singapore Navy Commences
The 24th bilateral exercise involving Indian Navy and Republic of Singapore Navy has commenced in South China Sea. SIMBEX stands for ‚Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercises”. The exercise will be held from May 18, 2017 to May 24, 2017. This edition of the bilateral exercise aims at increasing the interoperability among the two navies as well as developing a common understanding and procedures among the two navies for maritime security operations. The major thrust of the exercise will lie on AntiSubmarine Operations (ASN), integrated operations with Surface, Air and Sub-surface Forces, Air Defence and Surface Encounter Exercises.
Indian Scientist Shrinivas Kulkarni Wins Prestigious Dan David Prize
Indian scientist Shrinivas Kulkarni has won the prestigious Dan David prize as a recognition for his contributions made in the field of astronomy. Shrinivas Kulkarni, a professor of astrophysics and planetary science at California Institute of Technology in Pasadena, is a pioneer in the field of timedomain astrophysics. He has been credited for building and conducting the Palomar Transient Factory, which is a large-area survey of the night sky that has turned up with thousands of stellar explosions. Shrinivas kulkarni would share the award with Andrej Udalski of the University of Warsaw and Neil Gehrels of NASA for their discoveries on time-domain astrophysics in the ‚Future‛ category of the prize. With this award, Shrinivas Kulkarni will join other prominent Indians who have won the Dan David prize like noted author Amitav Ghosh, music conductor Zubin Mehta and renowned chemist CNR Rao.
Indian Army gets its First Artillery Gun in 30 Years
Nearly after 30 years after the induction of Bofors howitzers, Indian Army will get its first artillery guns called M777 from BAE Systems. Swedish Bofors guns were inducted in late 1980s after which Army has not inducted any modern artillery guns. The two M777s has arrived in New Delhi and will be tested at the Pokhran field firing range in Rajasthan. The two M777 guns will be used for compilation of firing tables. Indian Army has plans to equip 169 regiments with 3,503 guns by 2020.
International Court of Justice directs Pakistan to stay Kulbhushan Jadhav’s execution till its final verdict
The International Court of Justice at Hague today stayed the execution of Indian national Kulbhushan Jadhav who was sentenced to death by a Pakistan military court on charges of espionage. Ruling in favor of India, which moved the UN’s highest judicial body against the death sentence, the ICJ President Ronny Abraham directed Pakistan to take all necessary measures at its disposal to ensure that Jadhav was not executed till it takes a final decision.
Tata Group Named Country’s Most Valuable Brand in Brand Finance List
Brand finance in its 2017 report that lists India’s 100 most valuable brands has named Tata Group as the most valuable brand in India at an estimated brand value of 13.1 billion. Brand Finance is a global brand valuation and strategy consultancy firm. Tata Group has managed to top the list despite its brand value declining 4% from 13.7 billion in 2016. As per the report, the total brand value of India’s top 100 brands have surged 15% in 2017 compared to the global average of 11%. Overall 68 of India’s 100 most valuable brands have registered growth in value this year. Telecom operator Airtel at an estimated valuation of 7.7 billion has been ranked second in the list followed by Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) with 6.8 billion. IT firm Infosys and State Bank of India have been ranked fourth and fifth in the list with an estimated value of 6.2 billion and 5.5 billion respectively.
BSNL Signs MoU with Facebook and MobiKwik
BSNL has inked agreements with Facebook and MobiKwik in order to popularize the internet and its value added services among its customers. Further, BSNL has also signed a third MoU with Disney Land India to offer premium online gaming services to its mobile customers. The series of MoUs signed by BSNL comes at the backdrop of a stiff competition faced by BSNL from private telecom companies like Airtel and Reliance Jio.
Anti-dumping duty imposed on Chinese chemical, aluminium foil
India has imposed anti-dumping duty on a Chinese chemical used in pharma industry and aluminium foil to protect domestic industry from cheap imports. While an anti-dumping duty of up to 1.63 US Dollar per kg was imposed on aluminium foil, up to 8.71 US Dollar per kg duty was slapped on imports of amoxicillin, used in pharmaceuticals. The duty on both the products would be effective for a period of five years, the finance ministry has said in separate notifications. The commerce ministry’s investigation arm, Directorate General of Anti dumping and Allied Duties, DGAD in the separate probe had concluded that these products were dumped into India and that has caused material injury to the domestic industry.
Key Asian stocks fall amid concern about political developments in US
Key Asian stocks fell, today, amid concern about political developments in the US. Key Asian markets also lost ground. So Japan’s Nikkei 225 index slipped 1.3 percent; Singapore’s Straits Times index lost 0.1 percent; South Korea’s Kospi dropped 0.3 percent, each; China’s Shanghai Composite index declined 0.5 percent; and Hong Kong’s Hang Seng index shed 0.6 percent. In Europe, the UK’s FTSE-100 had tumbled 1.4 percent, Germany’s DAX had lost 0.9 percent, and France’s CAC-40 had slumped 1.2 percent in intra-day trade. While stocks flashed warning lights again, the dollar steadied and seemed to be going for the ‘calm down’ option.
US Justice Department names former FBI Director Robert Mueller as a special prosecutor to probe possible collusion between President Trump and Russia
In the United States, the Justice Department has named former FBI director Robert Mueller as a special prosecutor to oversee a probe into Russia’s alleged interference in the Presidential election. Deputy Attorney General Rod Rosenstein said it is in the public interest to bring an outsider to oversee the investigation. Calls for a special prosecutor to probe the matter have risen since President Donald Trump fired the FBI Director James Comey last week.
Environment Minister Anil Madhav Dave Passes Away
Union environment minister Anil Madhav Dave has passed away. He was 60. Anil Madhav Dave was born in Badnagar of Madhya Pradesh on July 6, 1956. He is a Member of Parliament representing Madhya Pradesh. Dave was first elected to Rajya Sabha in 2009. Last year, he was sworn in as a minister with independent charge of environment, forest and climate change. He was very passionate on implementing environmental projects including conservation of the Narmada river. He had also founded an organisation called ‘Narmada Samagra’ for conservation of Narmada.
Veteran film actor Reema Lagoo dies after a cardiac arrest in Mumbai Veteran film actor Reema Lagoo died in Mumbai this morning after a cardiac arrest. She was 59. She is survived by a daughter. Reema had complained of chest pain last night and was rushed to hospital where she breathed her last. “Over the course of her career, Reema Lagoo became Hindi film industry’s favourite actor who played the mother’s role to the biggest stars in the industry like Salman Khan ( in Maine Pyar Kiya), Akshay Kumar (in Gumrah and Yeh Dillagi), Sridevi (in Jai Kishen), Madhuri Dixit (in Hum Aapke Hain Koun..!), Juhi Chawla (in Qyamaat se Qayamat tak), Sanjay Dutt (in Vaastav) and Shah Rukh Khan (Kal Ho Na Ho). Her other popular films include Aashiqui, Kuch Kuch hota hain, Saajan and Hum Saath Saath hain. She was critically acclaimed for her acting in Rui Ka Bojh (1997).
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Indian wrestler Harpreet Singh (80kg) has won Bronze medal in Greco- Roman category at Asian Wrestling Championship.
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Today (25th May) is International Missing Children’s Day.
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Madhya Pradesh Signs MoU with IIT-Kharagpur for Developing Happiness Index
IIT Kharagpur’s Rekhi Centre of Excellence for the Science of Happiness and Madhya Pradesh government’s ‘Rajya Anandam Sansthan’ (Department of Happiness) has signed an MoU to collaborate on the development of a Happiness Index for measuring the well-being of the residents of the state. The MoU was signed in the presence of MP Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan and IIT-KGP Director Prof P P Chakrabarti at Bhopal.
World’s First Philosophical Novel on God Unveiled IAS officer
Haulianlal Guite has recently published a philosophical novel for God titled ‚Confessions of a dying mind: the blind faith of atheism‚. The book was unveiled by Union Minister Kiren Rijiju at august gathering of Civil Services Officers’ Institute in New Delhi. The book is touted as ‚the world’s first philosophical novel for God‚. Haulianlal Guite is hailed as the first civil servant to write on Philosophy after John Stuart Mill’s work titled ‚On Liberty‛ published in 1858. The book explores interesting arguments against atheism. It also explores the nature of science, religion, evidence and love in light of latest findings of modern science and the solid theories in philosophy. The unveiled book is the first part of the three volumes. The book is published by a UK based Bloomsbury Publishing.
PM Inaugurates African Development Bank’s 52nd Annual General Meeting
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the 52nd Annual General Meeting of the African Development Bank in Gandhinagar. The AGM will be held in from May 22-26. This is the first time that India is hosting the annual meetings of the AfDB and its sister institutions, including of finance ministers of member countries, who comprise the AfDB board of governors. India had joined the African Development Bank (AfDB) in 1983. The Annual Meetings are the Bank’s largest annual event and offers a unique forum for representatives of government, business, civil society, think-tanks, academia and the media to debate key issues on Africa’s development. The event will see the participation of 4500 delegates including finance ministers and central bank governors belonging to AfDB’s 54 member countries and 26 non-member countries. The event is expected to deepen India’s ties with African continent.
Paytm Launches Payments Bank
Paytm has rolled out its Payments Bank operations by launching its first physical branch in Noida. With this launch, there are three payments bank operational in the country, the other two being Airtel Payments Bank Ltd and India Post Payments Bank Ltd. The Paytm Payments Bank will be the first bank in the country to offer cashbacks on deposits. Significance :As a Payments Bank, Paytm will be able to accept deposits upto Rs 1 lakh per customer in wallet and savings/current accounts. Further it can also offer other services like Debit Cards, Online Banking and Mobile Banking. It will not be allowed to lend to customers. However, it will be able to offer financial products like loans, insurance, mutual funds, pension funds etc by partnering with other financial institutions and banks.
India soon to become the second largest producer of steel in the world
Steel Minister Birender Singh said India has registered a 102 percent growth in steel exports in 2016-2017. Addressing a press conference on the 3-year achievements of his ministry in New Delhi today, Mr Singh said, the country has become net exporter of steel, with 8.2 million tonnes of exports in 2016-2017. “We have become the second largest producer of stainless steel in the world, leaving behind Japan. Besides, we have gained third spot in steel production, leaving behind America. We are moving fast to reach the 2nd position.” The Minister said, the government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi gave its approval for National Steel Policy this month, after a gap of 12 years. Mr Singh said, GST will give a big boost to steel industry.
IMD predicts normal monsoon this year
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has predicted the onset of the monsoon in Kerala on the 30th of this month but there is a possibility that it may hit the state a day before that. With chances of continuation of the El Nino effect, a phenomena associated with warming of Pacific waters, the IMD has predicted a normal monsoon this year.
Trump admin proposes to reduce 190 million Dollar in financial grant to Pakistan
In US, the Trump administration has proposed to reduce 190 million US Dollar in financial grant to Pakistan in foreign military funding as compared to the 2016 fiscal. This Year, the US administration has proposed 344 million US Dollar in financial assistance to Pakistan including 100 million US Dollar in foreign military funding. Last year, the US assistance to Pakistan under the State Department budget was 534 million US Dollar, which included 225 million US Dollar towards foreign military funding. The Trump administration’s budget proposal would convert some of the United States’ foreign military grants to loans, affecting several countries, including Pakistan. The White House said yesterday that the proposals are a part of a larger effort to slash spending on diplomacy, aid and programmes abroad by more than 29 per cent. The Wall Street Journal, which first reported the proposal, said the foreign military grants could affect Pakistan, Tunisia, Lebanon, Ukraine, Colombia, the Philippines and Vietnam.
World’s largest aircraft Airlander 10 completes test flight
The world’s largest aircraft has successfully completed a test flight, bringing the massive heliumfilled airship one step closer to commercial use. The hybrid aircraft dubbed the Airlander 10 combines technology from airplanes, helicopters and airships. It is designed to fly at altitudes of 6,100 meters for up to five days. with a length of 92 metres, it is the largest aircraft currently flying. On May 10th, the Airlander 10 flew for a total of 180 minutes to test the aircraft’s handling, improved landing technology and more. Dave Burns, Airlander 10’s Chief Test Pilot said that during the successful test flight in Cardington, UK, the Airlander 10 handled superbly.
Australian indigenous leaders meet for historic summit
In central Australia, hundreds of indigenous leaders have gathered for a historic summit on formally recognising the country’s first inhabitants. The three-day summit at Uluru coincides with the 50th anniversary of a vote that allowed indigenous Australians to be included on a national census. Australia does not mention Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples in its constitution. The summit aims to reach consensus on the best method of recognition. The recommendations may result in a referendum to be voted on by all Australians.
Terror Attack in Manchester City leaves 22 killed and 59 injured
The Islamic State terrorist group has claimed responsibility for today’s deadly attack at the Manchester Arena which claimed 22 lives and injured 59 people. The attacker died while detonating the explosive device planted at a pop concert. The blast took place in the foyer area of Manchester Arena around 3 AM Indian time today. Manchester Victoria station has been closed and all trains cancelled. British police have arrested a 23-year-old man in connection with the terror attack. After chairing a meeting in the wake of the blast, British Prime Minister Theresa May said the people of Manchester have fallen victim to a callous terrorist attack. This was among the worst terrorist incidents we have ever experienced in the United Kingdom. It would take some time to establish these jact and the investigation will continue. We can continue to resolve to thwart such acts in future, to take on and defeat the idealogy that often fuels this violence and if there turn out to be others responsible for this attack, to seek them out and bring them to justice. Official sources in New Delhi said they are ascertaining if there are any Indian casualties in the blast. The Indian High Commission tweeted, any Indians injured during Manchester attack may reach the Public Response Unit of High Commission of India at 020 7632 3035. President Pranab Mukherjee, Vice President Mohammad Hamid Ansari and Prime Minister Narendra Modi have strongly condemned the attack.
Roger Moore of James Bond fame dies
Roger Moore, the handsome English actor who appeared in seven films as James Bond and as Simon Templar on “The Saint” TV series, has died in Switzerland after a short battle with cancer. He was 89. His family announced the death on Moore’s official Twitter account
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| General Awareness | Arithmetic | General Intelligence and Reasoning |
| Current Affairs, National and International, History-India, world Indian economy Indian geography Indian constitution Indian culture & Heritage Indian Polity Science & Technology General Science -Biology -Chemistry -Physics Environmental Studies | Percentage Pipes & Cisterns Profit and loss Time and work Simplification Boats and Streams Averages Time and Distance Problems on Ages Simple Interest Data Interpretation Area and Volume Linear and Quadratic Equations Margins and Discounts | Analogies Space Visualisation Similarities Decision Making Problem Solving Arithmetic Number Series Differences Arithmetic Reasoning Analysis Judgement Relationship Concepts Visual Memory Observation Verbal and Figure Classification Puzzles Sitting Circular Arrangements Direction sense Alphanumeric series |
Candidates who are going to fill RRB NTPC Application from 2018 should know about the selection process of this recruitment. All the candidates will be selected as per their score which they will get in first and second stage examination. After that, they will have to face typing and aptitude test. If candidates will clear these stages, they will be called for the Document Verification and Medical test.
As per the revealed updates, RRB NTPC 2018 first stage examination will be conducted after one or two or application form submission. RRB will release NTPC First Stage Admit card before 7 to 10 days of examination on the official website. The second stage examination will be conducted after two months of prelims exam result declaration. So, likewise 1st stage exam RRB NTPC 2018 Admit Card for 2nd stage exam will be released on the official website before some days of examination. However, only those candidates will be able to download 2nd stage admit card, who will get eligible marks in RRB NTPC 1st stage examination.
Likewise every year, RRB release cut off marks to select the candidates. Candidates who are going to appear in the RRB NTPC Examination 2018 will have get marks as per RRB NTPC Cut off 2018. Candidates can check their respective performance by checking RRB NTPC Cutoff marks 2018. When the Railway Recruitment Board will release the cut off marks list, we will update here for the candidate’s help. Till then, candidates are advised to regularly visit this website to know latest updates of RRB NTPC 2018 Cut off.
The Railway Recruitment Board will conduct NTPC 1st stage examination after 2 months of the application form submission and 2nd stage examination in 2018. Therefore, As per the information, RRB NTPC Result 2018 will be declared after one or two months examination on the official website and candidates will be able to check their result by using their roll number and name. Only those candidates will be shortlisted for 2nd stage examination who will clear stage 1st exam according to the cut off marks. When the Railway Recruitment Board announce RRB NTPC 1st Stage Result 2018, we will update here.
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Scope and coverage of questions under different subject areas:
The pattern of Question Paper for the UG Courses in CLAT-2018
| a) | Maximum Marks | 200 |
| b) | Duration of CLAT-2018 Exam | 02:00 Hours |
| c) | Multiple-Choice Questions | 200 questions of one mark each |
| Subject areas with weight-age: | ||
| 1. English including comprehension | 40 Marks | |
| 2.General Knowledge and Current Affairs | 50 Marks | |
| 3.Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability) | 20 Marks | |
| 4. Legal Aptitude | 50 Marks | |
| 5. Logical Reasoning | 40 Marks | |
| Negative Marking | 0.25 Mark for each wrong answer | |
The pattern of Question Paper and syllabus for the PG Programme in CLAT-2018
The pattern of the question paper for admission to the Post-Graduate Course for CLAT-2018 is as under:
The questions will be asked in the question paper of the given sections:
| Subjects | Number of Questions | Marks Allotted per Section |
| Constitutional Law | 50 | 50 |
| Jurisprudence | 50 | 50 |
| Other Subjects such as Contract, Torts, Criminal Law, International Law, Environment Law and Human Rights. | 50 | 50 |
| Total | 150 | 150 |
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Thailand’s Atthaya Thitikul has become the youngest known winner of a professional golf tour event after claiming the Ladies European Thailand Championship at the age of 14 years, 4 months and 19 days.
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Candidates can refer the previous year CDS Cutoff from the below.
Official CDS Cut Off I 2017
| Academy | CDS I Cut off 2017 |
| IMA | 125 |
| AFA | 118 |
| AFA | 144 |
| OTA for Men | 82 |
| OTA for Women | 82 |
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PG Programme:
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About Hong Kong
♦ Government: Multiparty system
♦ Chief Executive: Carrie Lam
♦ Chief Secretary: Matthew Cheung
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Highlights:
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The Malaysian Ringgit became the strongest Asian currency this quarter by climbing twice as much as the Chinese Yuan, according to Bloomberg.
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MH CET Law Counseling 2018 – Important dates for three year law programme
| S.No | Events | Dates |
| 1. | Notification for registration of colleges | June 1, 2018 |
| 2. | Colleges filling online registration form | June 4, 2018 |
| 3. | Colleges to submit printout of registration form with Demand Draft and other documents | June 4, 2018 |
| 4. | Verification of College documents and Approving colleges for Online Admission | June 18 – June 25, 2018 |
| 4. | Upload of CAP Brochure | July 12, 2018 |
| 5. | Online Centralised form filling by candidates | July 17, 2018 |
| 7. | NRI, OCI, PIO candidates registration and fee submission | July 17- July 31, 2018 |
| 8. | Document verification for NRI, OCI, PIO candidates | July 17- August 10, 2018 |
| 9. | Uploading of verified status of NRI/ OCI/ Foreign candidates | August 13- 14, 2018 |
| 10. | Display of provisional alphabetical list | August 8, 2018 |
| 11. | Candidature-wise Final Merit List | August 23, 2018 |
| 12. | First List of Seat Allotment | August 30, 2018 |
| 13. | Candidates report to colleges | August 31, 2018 |
| 16. | College to publish online first list of admitted candidates | August 31, 2018 |
| 17. | Uploading of merit list of NRI, OCI and PIO candidates | September 1, 2018 |
| 18. | Publishing of second list of MH CET Law seat allotment | September 14, 2018 |
| 20. | NRI, OCI and PIO candidates report to colleges | September 15-19, 2018 |
| 21. | College to publish online second list of admitted candidates | September 19, 2018 |
| 22. | Edit options available for candidates | September 22-27,2018 |
| 23. | Publishing of third list of MH CET Law seat allotment | October 10, 2018 |
| 24. | Students to report to their respective colleges with admission form | October 11, 2018 |
| 25. | Colleges to update vacant seats online | October 11-17, 2018 |
| 26. | Colleges display vacant seats online and offline | October 19, 2018 |
| 27. | Institutional round MH CET Law 2018 Counselling | October 19-26,2018 |
| 28. | Display of MH CET Law 2018 merit list | October 29, 2018 |
| 29. | Colleges to admit candidates as per merit list and generate provisional admission letter | October 30 – November 2, 2018 |
| 30. | Colleges to upload status of admitted students online | October 30 – November 3, 2018 |
| 31. | Release of MH CET Law 2018 Cut off | November 5, 2018 |
To Register for MH CET LAW 3-Year Common Admission Process (CAP) – Click here
To Login for MH CET LAW 3-Year Common Admission Process (CAP) – Click here
MH CET Law Counselling 2018 – Important dates for five-year integrated programme
| S.No | Events | Dates |
| 1. | Notification for registration of colleges | June 25, 2018 |
| 2. | Colleges filling online registration form | June 25, 2018 |
| 3. | Colleges to submit printout of registration form with Demand Draft and other documents | June 25, 2018 |
| 4. | Upload of CAP Brochure | June 25, 2018 |
| 5. | Online Centralised form filling by candidates | June 25, 2018 |
| 6. | Verification of college documents and approval of colleges for online admission | June 25, 2018 |
| 7. | NRI, OCI, PIO candidates registration and fee submission | June 25, 2018 |
| 8. | Document verification for NRI, OCI, PIO candidates | June 25 – July 24, 2018 |
| 9. | Uploading of verified status of NRI/ OCI/ Foreign candidates | August 3, 2018 |
| 10. | Display of provisional alphabetical list | July 9, 2018 |
| 11. | Candidature-wise Final Merit List | July 24, 2018 |
| 12. | Upload of list of approved colleges | July 27, 2018 |
| 13. | Publishing of first list of MH CET Law seat allotment | July 24-27,2018 |
| 14. | Reporting of candidates to colleges | July 28, 2018 |
| 15. | College to publish online first list of admitted candidates | July 28, 2018 |
| 16. | Uploading of merit list of NRI, OCI and PIO candidates | August 7, 2018 |
| 17. | Publishing of second list of MH CET Law seat allotment | August 10, 2018 |
| 18. | Downloading of admission letters of NRI, OCI, and PIO | August 10, 2018 |
| 19. | NRI, OCI and PIO candidates report to colleges | August 11-18, 2018 |
| 20. | College to publish online second list of admitted candidates | August 11-20, 2018 |
| 21. | Edit options available for candidates | August 21-27, 2018 |
| 22. | Publishing of third list of MH CET Law seat allotment | September 4, 2018 |
| 23. | Students to report to their respective colleges with admission form | September 5-8, 2018 |
| 24. | Colleges to update vacant seats online | September 5-10, 2018 |
| 25. | Colleges display vacant seats online and offline | September 12, 2018 |
| 26. | Institutional round MH CET Law 2018 Counselling | September 12-22, 2018 |
| 27. | Display of MH CET Law 2018 merit list | September 25, 2018 |
| 28. | Colleges to admit candidates as per merit list and generate provisional admission letter | September 26-29, 2018 |
| 29. | Colleges to upload status of admitted students online | September 26-October 4, 2018 |
| 30. | Release of MH CET Law 2018 Cut off | October 6, 2018 |
[vc_row][vc_column][vc_column_text]Exam Pattern for the Post of Law Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari:
(1) Reasoning
(2) English Language
(3) General Awareness and
(4) Professional Knowledge
Exam Pattern for the Post of I.T Officer, Agriculture Officer, Marketing Officer & HR Officer:
(1) Reasoning,
(2) English Language,
(3) Quantitative Aptitude and
(4) Professional Knowledge.
Interview:
| Sr. No. | Name of the Tests | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1 | Reasoning | 50 | 30 minutes | |
| 2 | English Language | 50 | 25 minutes | |
| 3 | General Awareness with special reference to Banking Industry | 50 | 30 minutes | |
| 4 | Professional Knowledge | 50 | 80 | 35 minutes |
| Total | 200 | 80 | 120 minutes |
| Sr. No. | Name of the Tests | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1 | Reasoning | 50 | 50 | 30 minutes |
| 2 | English Language | 50 | 50 | 25 minutes |
| 3 | Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 | 30 minutes |
| 4 | Professional Knowledge | 50 | 50 | 35 minutes |
| Total | 200 | 200 | 120 minutes |
[/vc_column_text][/vc_column][/vc_row]
RRB also introduced different exam pattern and a long syllabus for RRB ALP & Technician posts.
stage-II Exams: Detailed Syllabus of RRB ALP Mains & Technician Mains
(Stage 2: Part A)
Except for Basic Science & Engineering, syllabus of Prelims and Mains is same for
RRB Railway ALP & Technician
Basic Science Syllabus
Engineering Drawing – Projections
Eng. Drawing – Views
Eng. Drawing – Instruments
Eng. Drawing – Lines
Eng. Drawing – Geometric Figures
Eng. Drawing – Symbolic Representation
Heat & Temperature
Levers & Simple Machines
Environment Education
Speed & Velocity
Occupational Safety & Health
Mass Weight & Density
IT Literacy
Measurements Units

Syllabus of RRB ALP Mains & Technician Mains (Stage 2: Part B)
Stage 2 – Part B of RRB ALP & Technician exam is qualifying in nature. The
syllabus of Part B of RRB Mains exam includes trade syllabus prescribed
by Director General of Employment & Training (DGET).
The overall time of the Mains exam of RBI Assistant has been increased to 135 minutes from this year onwards.
The exam will be conducted in 3 phases, namely –
1. Preliminary Phase
2. Mains Phase
3. Language Proficiency Test
Before discussing the RBI Assistant Syllabus and Exam Pattern, let’s have a look at the following –
The Prelims exam of RBI Assistant 2017 will follow the pattern mentioned below:
| S. No. | Subject | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Total time |
| 1. | English Language | 30 | 30 | Composite time of 1 hour! |
| 2. | Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | |
| 3. | Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
RBI Assistant Exam Pattern for Mains phase –
| S. No. | Subject | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Total |
| 1. | Reasoning Ability | 40 | 40 | 30 minutes |
| 2. | English Laguagee | 40 | 40 | 30 minutes |
| 3. | Numerical Ability | 40 | 40 | 30 minutes |
| 4. | General Awareness | 40 | 40 | 25 minutes |
| 7 | Computer Knowledge | 40 | 40 | 20 minutes |
| Total | 200 | 200 |
There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests (Preliminary and Main examination).1/4th marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Reasoning Ability Syllabus for RBI Assistant Exam
Syllabus for IBPS RRB Exam
English Language syllabus for RBI Assistant Exams
General Awareness syllabus for RBI Assistant Exams
Computer Knowledge syllabus for RBI Assistant Exams
Topic Wise SBI Clerk syllabus 2018
In both the SBI Clerk online tests, the candidates are tested in the following fields. Candidates must prepare for the exams based on the syllabus given below.
SBI Clerk Numerical ability Syllabus
SBI Clerk Reasoning Syllabus
SBI Clerk General awareness Syllabus
SBI Clerk Basic computer knowledge Syllabus
original notification :- click here
apply online :- click here
CLAT Participating Institutes 2018: Private law colleges accepting CLAT scoresThe table below mentions another list of law colleges offering admissions into undergraduate law programmes based on CLAT 2018 scores. The list, however, is tentative and is based on the data of last year. The final list of private law schools participating in CLAT 2018 will be declared after CLAT official brochure is announced by NUALS Kochi.UG All India Category seats for undergraduate programmes
PG All India Category seats for postgraduate programmes.
1.Alliance School of Law, Bangalore
2. Asian Law College, Noida
3. Amity University, Noida
4. Azim Premji University, Bengaluru
5. Delhi Institute of Rural Development (D.I.R.D.), Holambi, Delhi
6. Disha Law College, Raipur
7. Galgotias University, Greater Noida
8. Geeta Institute of Law, Panipat
9. Harlal School of Law, Greater Noida
10. IFIM Law College, Bengaluru
11. Indore Institute of Law, Indore
12. Institute of Law, Nirma University, Ahmadabad
13. Jagannath University, Jaipur
14. JECRC University, Jaipur
15. JIMS Engineering Management Technical Campus School of Law, Greater Noida
16. Lloyd Law College, Greater Noida
17.Maharaja Surajmal Brij University, Bharatpur
18.Maharashtra National Law University, Aurangabad
19.Manipal University, Jaipur
20.MATS University, Raipur
21.Mewar University, Chittorgarh
22.Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies [NMIMS] (Deemed to be University), Mumbai
23.NIMT Institute of Method & Law (NIMT Vidhi Evam Kanun Sansthan), Delhi NCR
24.Prestige Institute of Management & Research, Indore
25.RNB Global University, Bikaner
26.Ramaiah Institute of Legal Studies (RILS), Bengaluru
27.Renaissance Law College, Indore
28.School of Law, THE North Cap University, Gurugram, Haryana
29.Shri Vaishnav Institute of Law, Indore
30.Siddhartha Law College, Dehradun
31.SRM University, Haryana
32.Vivekanand Global University, Jaipur
Apart from the above law colleges (NLUs as well as privates), there are some other institutions which accept CLAT 2017 score for recruiting the law students as legal advisors. Such institutions are recognised as Public Sector Undertakings.
The Railways RRB Computer-based Test for Assistant Loco Pilot & Technicians just took place. Now the next stage, i.e. the RRB ALP Stage 2 (Part B), Technical Paper will soon be conducted. In this article, you will find RRB ALP Technical Notes for Wire man & Electrician. Find study material on Resistance as notes for RRB ALP Technical Exam. Click here
No. One cannot apply for the SSC CGL Exam if he/she hasn’t cleared the final year exam . For all the posts offered through SSC CGL exam, it is mandatory to be a graduate.
SSC CGL CHSL Classes in Andheri west & east Mumbai
Following posts can be applied by freshers who will be appearing for the exam:
Assistant/Assistant Audit Officer
Assistant Accounts Officer
Assistant Section Officer
Superintendent
Inspector Of Income Tax
Inspector (Central Excise)
Inspector (Preventive Officer)
Inspector (Examiner)
Asst. Enforcement Officer
Sub Inspector
Inspector Posts
Divisional Accountant
Inspector
Junior Statistical Officer
Auditor
Accountant/Junior Accountant
Senior Secretariat Assistant/ UDC
Tax Assistant
Upper Division Clerk (UDC)
SSC CGL 2019 Recruitment announced, SSC CHSL Exam date, SSC CGL Tier-III & IV
Follow the link from organisation website to download call letter. At login page, enter the Registration No / Roll No and Password / DOB(dd-mm-yy) at the required places to download the Call Letter. download & save as pdf.
Some Important Website for Download Call letter:
IBPS Exams: www.ibps.in
SBI: www.sbi.co.in
RBI: www.rbi.org.in
for more call us: 8080160826
Minimum Age to apply for SSC CGL written exam is 18 years and maximum age limit is 32 years.
Candidate should ensure that the DATE OF BIRTH is same as he had entered at the time of registration. Candidate can refer the APPLICATION PRINT for the DATE OF BIRTH entered by him. The date of Birth should be entered in DD-MM-YY format.
Please check your entries in login screen. You should use REGISTRATION NO. & PASSWORD as received at the time of registration by displaying on the screen and also mailed to you in auto generated email acknowledgement.Also, make sure that the DATE OF BIRTH you have entered is same as you entered at the time of registration and printed in the application print. regarding your’s exam Like SBI, IBPS, Bank Clerk & PO.
Dear Aspirants,
RRB has made a huge announcement today. The RRB ALP has increased its vacancies from 26,502 to 64,371. This is a great opportunity for people aspiring for Railway exams. There are 27795 vacancies for Assistant Loco Pilot posts and 36576 vacancies for Technician posts. Check out the official notification below to know the complete details of increase in RRB ALP Vacancy.
Download the Official Notification for Vacancy increase below: Click here
As an aspirant, you probably want to know the job/position that you aim to secure by cracking this competitive exam. Here is a list of the job types:
Best training Institute in Mumbai for SSC CGL | Rakesh Yadav Sir Classes in pune | best training institute SSC CGL Main Exams | mock test training institute in Mumbai |
Find SSC CGL coaching academy by city & locality SSC BY LOCALITY SSC :
CGL Coaching Institutes in Thane West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Andheri West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Borivali West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Dadar East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kalyan West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vashi, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Dadar West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Nerul, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kandivali West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Mira Road, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Virar West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Bhandup West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Andheri East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Borivali East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Mulund West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kharghar, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Dombivali East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vasai West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Malad West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Ghatkopar East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Ghatkopar West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Panvel, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vile Parle East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Chembur, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Parel, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Bandra West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vile Parle West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kandivali East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Thane East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kalyan East, Mumbai
There will be negative marking of 0.5 for each wrong answer in Tier-II. In Tier-I, there is negative marking system of 0.25 for each wrong answer in paper II – English Language & Comprehension and 0.50 for each wrong answer in Paper-I, Paper III and Paper IV of Tier II.
Written Exam for SSC CGL and Most of exams will be conducted in online mode. Only Tier-III, descriptive paper will be conducted offline – pen and paper mode and tier-IV on proficiency test on computer.
SBI Clerks (Junior Associates) are responsible for all the client interactions and related operations. Candidates who are recruited as SBI clerks are designated as cashiers, depositors and other posts that form the face of a particular SBI Bank branch. SBI Clerk recruitment exam consists of 2 stages Preliminary & Mains.
Please Note: There is no interview round for the SBI Clerk posts.
SBI Clerk Preliminary Exam pattern
It is a 100 marks MCQ based paper with a time duration of 1 hour (60 mins). There are 3 sections (subjects) in this exam, those are English Language, Numerical Ability & Reasoning Ability.
SBI Clerk Mains Exam Paper pattern
SBI Clerk Mains is also an MCQ based online exam. It has 4 sections which are English Language, Quantitive Aptitude, Reasoning & Computer Aptitude and General Awareness. There are 190 Questions, with a total score of 200 marks, and a time duration of 160 minutes. There is a negative marking with a deduction of 1/4th marks for every mistake.
What do we offer?
We have a wide range of question types to choose from. To name a few, we have included multiple choice text questions, Multiple choice image questions, Fill in the blanks and free text questions.
Our Reports & Analysis tool allows learners to monitor their progress and to identify competency gaps with added insights.
Our platform also encourages collaboration by allowing learners to ask questions and get answers from the relevant subject matter experts in the designed forums. call dadar branch: 8080160826
There are no interviews for any of the posts under SSC CGL Recruitment of group C-Post. The para 9.2 of the official notification for SSC CGL Recruitment 2019 clearly states that – “9.2 Interview component has been dispensed with. There will, therefore, be no interview.”
Under RRB/RRC Level 1 Posts 2019 Recruitment Process, different educational qualifications are prescribed for various posts as given below:
| S. No. | Name of the Post | Department | Educational Qualification (As on 12th April 2019) |
| 1 | Assistant (Workshop) | Mechanical | 10th pass (OR) ITI from institutions recognised by National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT)/ State Council for Vocational Training (SCVT) (or) equivalent(OR)National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC)granted by NCVT |
| 2 | Assistant Bridge | Engineering | |
| 3 | Assistant C&W | Mechanical | |
| 4 | Assistant Depot (Stores) | Stores | |
| 5 | Assistant Loco Shed (Diesel) | Mechanical | |
| 6 | Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical) | Electrical | |
| 7 | Assistant Operations (Electrical) | Electrical | |
| 8 | Assistant Pointsman | Traffic | |
| 9 | Assistant Signal & Telecom | Signal and Telecommunication (S and T) | |
| 10 | Assistant Track Machine | Engineering | |
| 11 | Assistant TL & AC | Electrical | |
| 12 | Assistant TL & AC (Workshop) | Electrical | |
| 13 | Assistant TRD | Electrical | |
| 14 | Assistant Works | Engineering | |
| 15 | Assistant Works (Workshop) | Engineering | |
| 16 | Hospital Assistant | Medical | |
| 17 | Track Maintainer Grade IV | Engineering |
Note:
13th October is the first day of the first phase of this exam, i.e., prelims. Many students appeared for this exam and the competition will be very tough this time. Therefore, it is necessary that one gets aware about the type of questions being asked in the exam so that you get an idea about how to plan your strategy to attempt the questions in the exam and manage your time accordingly.
| Subject | Good Attempt | Time |
| English Language | 16-19 | 20 |
| Reasoning Ability | 19-22 | 20 |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 17-21 | 20 |
| Total | 53-58 | 60 |
| Topic | No. of Questions | Level |
| Data Interpretation | 11 | Moderate |
| Wrong Number Series | 6 | Moderate |
| Quadratic Equation | 6 | Moderate |
| Arithmetic Word Problems (Profit and Loss, Problem on Ages, SI & CI etc) | 12 | Moderate |
| Total | 35 | Moderate |
The level of reasoning was Moderate. There were 3 sets of puzzles and Seating Arrangement, following are the types
| Topics | No. of Questions | Level |
| Puzzles and Seating Arrangement | 15 | Moderate |
| Coding Decoding | 5 | Easy-Moderate |
| Direction sense | 3 | Moderate |
| Inequality | 5 | Easy-Moderate |
| Alphabet | 1 | Easy-Moderate |
| Comparison Based Questions | 2 | Moderate |
| Miscellaneous | 4 | Moderate |
| Total | 35 | Moderate |
English section was of moderate level. There were only 7 question in the set of Reading Comprehension out of which 1 question was of vocabulary. It is important that candidates choose wisely what to attempt and what to skip. Reading Comprehension was based on an article related to printing press and history of newspapers. There were 3 different types/pattern of Error Detection questions.
| Topic | No. of Questions | Level |
| Reading Comprehension | 7 | Moderate |
| Error Detection | 7 | Easy-Moderate |
| Filler | 5 | Moderate |
| Cloze Test | 6 | Moderate |
| Sentence Improvement | 5 | Moderate |
| Total | 30 | Moderate |
Kindly Send your Valuable Feedback at: ipcitraining@gmail.com
State Bank of India conducts SBI PO exam to select eligible candidates to the post of Probationary Officer.The SBI PO recruitment exam is top notch among the public-sector bank exams in India. It is considered a little difficult compared to other bank entrance exams.
An aspiring candidate appearing for the SBI PO exam has to pass 3 complex stages to clear the recruitment process.
SBI PO Preliminary Examination
It is a 100 marks MCQ based paper with a time duration of 1 hour (60 mins). There are 3 sections (subjects) in this exam. Those are English Language, Numerical Ability & Reasoning Ability.
SBI PO Main Examination
Its consists 2 parts Objective Test (200 marks) and a descriptive test (50 marks).
SBI PO Mains – Objective Test Paper pattern
SBI PO Mains – Objective Test Paper pattern
SBI PO Mains Descriptive Test pattern
SBI PO Final
Aspirants have to score an aggregate high in both parts, of Stage 2, to qualify for this round. SBI arranges these aggregate marks of all applicants in the descending order.
What do we offer?
We offer an exhaustive platform which conducts online examinations to measure the knowledge of the participants on the given exam syllabus. With our platform, students can attempt a wide variety of tests online, at the most convenient time, using any visual device, regardless of the location.
We have a wide range of question types to choose from. To name a few, we have included multiple choice text questions, Multiple choice image questions, Fill in the blanks and free text questions.
Our Reports & Analysis tool allows learners to monitor their progress and to identify competency gaps with added insights.
Our platform also encourages collaboration by allowing learners to ask questions and get answers from the relevant subject matter experts in the designed forums.
The number of vacancies will be determined at the time of Document Verification i.e. about one month before the declaration of the final results. total number of vacancies is approx 1/3 of 2nd final result.
Join for `our new batch for ssc cgl 2019 and 2020,
Internet based Call letter download depends on various factors like Internet Speed, large number of Applicants trying to download the Call Letter at the same time etc. Therefore, if you are not able to download the Call Letter immediately, please retry after a gap of 5 minutes or during off-peak hours during the night.
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The State Bank of India (SBI) has released the marks of candidates of SBI clerk main examination 2018. SBI had last month declared the result of the SBI clerk main examination 2018.
Here is the direct link to check SBI clerk main exam 2018 marks of candidates. SBI clerk main exam was held on August 5. The two-hour forty minute SBI clerk main exam was for 200 marks and divided into four sections: General and financial awareness (50 marks), General English (40 marks), quantitative aptitude (50 marks) and reasoning ability and computer aptitude (60 marks). Candidates were asked to answer 190 questions. Candidates were given 35 minutes each for general/financial awareness and general English and 45 minutes each for quantitative aptitude and reasoning ability section.
The marks obtained in the prelims (Phase-I) was not considered for the selection and only the aggregate marks obtained in the main exam (Phase-II) was considered in the final merit list.
Click here
The SSC JE standard of the questions in Engineering subjects will be approximately of the level of Diploma in Engineering (Civil/ Electrical/ Mechanical/Electronics) from a recognized Institute, Board or University recognized by All India Board of Technical Education. All the questions will be set in SI units. The details of the syllabus are given below:
Paper-I (i) General Intelligence & Reasoning: The Syllabus for General Intelligence would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test may include questions on analogies, similarities, differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationships, arithmetical computations and other analytical functions.
(ii) General Awareness: Questions will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him/her and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity and Scientific Research, etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.
(iii) General Engineering (Civil and Structural), (Electrical & Mechanical):
Part –A Civil Engineering Building Materials, Estimating, Costing and Valuation, Surveying, Soil Mechanics, Hydraulics, Irrigation Engineering, Transportation Engineering, Environmental Engineering. Structural Engineering: Theory of Structures, Concrete Technology, RCC Design, Steel Design.
Part-B Electrical Engineering Basic concepts, Circuit law, Magnetic Circuit, AC Fundamentals, Measurement and Measuring instruments, Electrical Machines, Fractional Kilowatt Motors and single phase induction Motors, Synchronous Machines, Generation, Transmission and Distribution, Estimation and Costing, Utilization and Electrical Energy, Basic Electronics.
Part-C Mechanical Engineering – Theory of Machines and Machine Design, Engineering Mechanics and Strength of Materials, Properties of Pure Substances, 1st Law of Thermodynamics, 2nd Law of Thermodynamics, Air standard Cycles for IC Engines, IC Engine Performance, IC Engines Combustion, IC Engine Cooling & Lubrication, Rankine cycle of System, Boilers, Classification, Specification, Fitting & Accessories, Air Compressors & their cycles, Refrigeration cycles, Principle of Refrigeration Plant, Nozzles & Steam Turbines. Properties & Classification of Fluids, Fluid Statics, Measurement of Fluid Pressure, Fluid kinematics, Dynamics of Ideal fluids, Measurement of Flow rate, basic principles, Hydraulic Turbines, Centrifugal Pumps, Classification of steels.
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts a common written exam (CWE) once every year to hire candidates for the post of clerical cadre across various banks in the country.
IBPS Clerk is an entry-level job in different public sector banks (PSU). In every clerical recruitment it is very important that the candidates are well aware of the regional or local language of the state for which they are applying as IBPS might conduct a regional language proficiency test after the mains examination.
The IBPS Clerk examination is conducted via two common written exams (CWE):
Candidates qualifying both the phases will be finally selected for recruitment.
IBPS CWE Preliminary Exam Pattern:
There are 3 different sections in this exam – English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Ability
IBPS CWE Main Exam Pattern:
IBPS Mains exam has separate sectional timing for each section namely Reasoning & Computer Aptitude, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude and English Language.
What do we offer?
We have a wide range of question types to choose from. To name a few, we have included multiple choice text questions, Multiple choice image questions, Fill in the blanks and free text questions.
Our Reports & Analysis tool allows learners to monitor their progress and to identify competency gaps with added insights. Our platform also encourages collaboration by allowing learners to ask questions and get answers from the relevant subject matter experts in the designed forums.
Link For Study Material: www.ipci.co.in/study-material
Link for online test: test.ipci.co.in
Banking Recruitment: click here
IBPS PO test series 2019 comes with a free mock test which provides detailed solutions & performance analysis. You can improve your overall score in IBPS PO Prelims & Mains Exam by practicing our offline test series.
Prelim | Subject | Questions | Marks | Duration | Mains | Subject | Questions | Marks | Duration |
| Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 minutes | Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude | 45 | 60 | 60 Minutes | ||
| English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 minutes | General / Economy / Banking Awareness | 40 | 40 | 35 Minutes | ||
| Quantitative Aptitude | 35 | 35 | 20 minutes | Data Interpretation & Analysis | 35 | 60 | 45 Minutes | ||
| – | – | – | – | English Language | 35 | 40 | 40 Minutes | ||
| – | – | – | – | Total | 200 | 200 | 140 Minutes | ||
| Total | 100 | 100 | 60 minutes | Descriptive Test (English Language) | 2 | 25 | 30 Minutes |
Date 12-sept-2019 Reasoning lecture by arun sir topic Coding-Decoding click here for View: https://youtu.be/W-351axIK-c
In above link only for IPCI & Prudence Student @dadar mumbai centre and other not required to view.
There are a lot of advantages by attempting the SSC CGL Online Test Series.
There are various features present in our mock tests series that are listed below
CGL Mains Maths Paper Test-3Download
CGL Mains english Test Paper-3Download
CGL Mains Maths Paper Solution Test-3 Download

for more notes books lecture join our personal channel:https://t.me/prudencemumbai
The advertisement prescribes detailed guidelines for uploading the photo and signature .The candidates are requested to refer to relevant clause of the advertisement available on the official IBPS website for the same and ensure that the photo and signature files meet the specifications mentioned in the advertisement. All information regarding photo, Sign and deceleration in particular recruitment advt.
Youtube GS link For Geography lecture by vivek sir at 7 to 8am
Our advertisement clearly prescribes the eligibility criteria in detail. The candidates are requested to kindly refer to the relevant clause mentioned in the advertisement.
Bank Clerk: 18 to 28 year
Bank PO/SO: 20 to 30 year
Some case of special office 35 years with Experience.
The advertisement /notification mentions in detail about the schedule of registration /payment of fees. The candidates are requested to kindly refer to the relevant clause mentioned in the advertisement. Keep in touch with official IBPS website regularly and IBPS Every Year Updates Exam Calendar for online, exam date, Result every year.
| Primary Stage (Class I to V) |
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SSC CPO 2019 Exam will be held on objective mode with MCQs. It will be bilingual i.e. in the languages Hindi and English. It will observe negative marking with as much as 0.25 as penalty for every mistake committed by the candidate. SSC CPO 2019 will comprise of three stages as given below:
| S.No | Subject | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1 | General Intelligence & Reasoning | 50 | 50 | 2 hours |
| 2 | General Knowledge | 50 | 50 | |
| 3 | Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 | |
| 4 | English Comprehension | 50 | 50 |
| Candidate | Height | Chest | |
| Unexpanded | Expanded | ||
| Male (Gen) | 170 | 80 | 85 |
| Belonging to Hilly regions & areas of J&K, North East & Sikkim | 165 | 80 | 85 |
| Scheduled Tribes | 162.5 | 77 | 82 |
| Female (Gen) | 157 | – | – |
| Belonging to Hilly regions & areas of J&K, North East & Sikkim | 155 | – | – |
| Scheduled Tribes | 154 | – | – |
For Male Candidates
For Female Candidates
SSC CPO Medical Test
SSC CPO Paper-2 will be held once you qualify PET/PST Test for SSC CPO 2019 is carryied out.
The final merit list will be determined on the foundation of the performance of the candidate in all the three stages of SSC CPO Exam.
New & Next batch start for SSC CPO with mock PST PET from 30 sept with best faculties @ mumbai centre & Live classes
The Best SSC CGL & CPO classes & Institute in dadar, mumbaiList of Gramin Bank:
| Sr. No. | Name of Regional Rural Bank & Website Link | Sponsor Bank | State |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Allahabad UP Gramin Bank | Allahabad Bank | Uttar Pradesh |
| 2 | Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank | State Bank of India | Andhra Pradesh |
| 3 | Andhra Pragathi Grameena Bank | Syndicate Bank | Andhra Pradesh |
| 4 | Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Arunachal Pradesh |
| 5 | Assam Gramin Vikash Bank | United Bank of India | Assam |
| 6 | Bangiya Gramin Vikash Bank | United Bank of India | West Bengal |
| 7 | Baroda Gujarat Gramin Bank | Bank of Baroda | Gujarat |
| 8 | Baroda Rajasthan Kshetriya Gramin Bank | Bank of Baroda | Rajasthan |
| 9 | Baroda UP Gramin Bank | Bank of Baroda | Uttar Pradesh |
| 10 | Bihar Gramin Bank | UCO Bank | Bihar |
| 11 | Central Madhya Pradesh Gramin Bank | Central Bank of India | Madhya Pradesh |
| 12 | Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank | Andhra Bank | Andhra Pradesh |
| 13 | Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Chhattisgarh |
| 14 | Dena Gujarat Gramin Bank | Dena Bank | Gujarat |
| 15 | Ellaquai Dehati Bank | State Bank of India | Jammu & Kashmir |
| 16 | Gramin Bank of Aryavart | Bank of India | Uttar Pradesh |
| 17 | Himachal Pradesh Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Himachal Pradesh |
| 18 | J&K Grameen Bank | J&K Bank Ltd. | Jammu & Kashmir |
| 19 | Jharkhand Gramin Bank | Bank of India | Jharkhand |
| 20 | Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank | Syndicate Bank | Karnataka |
| 21 | Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank | Union Bank of India | Uttar Pradesh |
| 22 | Kaveri Grameena Bank | State Bank of India | Karnataka |
| 23 | Kerala Gramin Bank | Canara Bank | Kerala |
| 24 | Langpi Dehangi Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Assam |
| 25 | Madhyanchal Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Madhya Pradesh |
| 26 | Madhya Bihar Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Bihar |
| 27 | Maharashtra Gramin Bank | Bank of Maharashtra | Maharashtra |
| 28 | Malwa Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Punjab |
| 29 | Manipur Rural Bank | United Bank of India | Manipur |
| 30 | Meghalaya Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Meghalaya |
| 31 | Mizoram Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Mizoram |
| 32 | Nagaland Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Nagaland |
| 33 | Narmada Jhabua Gramin Bank | Bank of India | Madhya Pradesh |
| 34 | Odisha Gramya Bank | Indian Overseas Bank | Odisha |
| 35 | Pallavan Grama Bank | Indian Bank | Tamil Nadu |
| 36 | Pandyan Grama Bank | Indian Overseas Bank | Tamil Nadu |
| 37 | Paschim Banga Gramin Bank | UCO Bank | West Bengal |
| 38 | Pragathi Krishna Gramin Bank | Canara Bank | Karnataka |
| 39 | Prathama Bank | Syndicate Bank | Uttar Pradesh |
| 40 | Puduvai Bharthiar Grama Bank | Indian Bank | Puducherry |
| 41 | Punjab Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Punjab |
| 42 | Purvanchal Bank | State Bank of India | Uttar Pradesh |
| 43 | Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Rajasthan |
| 44 | Saptagiri Grameena Bank | Indian Bank | Andhra Pradesh |
| 45 | Sarva Haryana Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Haryana |
| 46 | Sarva UP Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Uttar Pradesh |
| 47 | Saurashtra Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Gujarat |
| 48 | Sutlej Gramin Bank | Punjab and Sind Bank | Punjab |
| 49 | Telangana Grameena Bank | State Bank of India | Telangana |
| 50 | Tripura Gramin Bank | United Bank of India | Tripura |
| 51 | Utkal Grameen Bank | State Bank of India | Odisha |
| 52 | Uttar Banga Kshetriya Gramin Bank | Central Bank of India | West Bengal |
| 53 | Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank | Central Bank of India | Bihar |
| 54 | Uttarakhand Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Uttarakhand |
SSC CGL Advance Maths Lecture backup link time 11am to 12:45am :
Website link: https://youtu.be/bo5k6Qr2Gs8
For more call: 8779774040
Part-A : Civil & Structural Engineering:
Civil Engineering Building Materials : Physical and Chemical properties, classification, standard tests, uses and manufacture/quarrying of materials e.g. building stones, silicate based materials, cement (Portland), asbestos products, timber and wood based products, laminates, bituminous materials, paints, varnishes.
Estimating, Costing and Valuation: estimate, glossary of technical terms, analysis of rates, methods and unit of measurement, Items of work – earthwork, Brick work (Modular & Traditional bricks), RCC work, Shuttering, Timber work, Painting, Flooring, Plastering. Boundary wall, Brick building, Water Tank, Septic tank, Bar bending schedule, Centre line method, Mid-section formula, Trapezodial formula, Simpson’s rule. Cost estimate of Septic tank, flexible pavements, Tube well, isolates and combined footings, Steel Truss, Piles and pile-caps. Valuation – Value and cost, scrap value, salvage value, assessed value, sinking fund, depreciation and obsolescence, methods of valuation.
Surveying : Principles of surveying, measurement of distance, chain surveying, working of prismatic compass, compass traversing, bearings, local attraction, plane table surveying, theodolite traversing, adjustment of theodolite, Levelling, Definition of terms used in levelling, contouring, curvature and refraction corrections, temporary and permanent adjustments of dumpy level, methods of contouring, uses of contour map, tachometric survey, curve setting, earth work calculation, advanced surveying equipment.
Soil Mechanics : Origin of soil, phase diagram, Definitions-void ratio, porosity, degree of saturation, water content, specific gravity of soil grains, unit weights, density index and interrelationship of different parameters, Grain size distribution curves and their uses. Index properties of soils, Atterberg’s limits, ISI soil classification and plasticity chart. Permeability of soil, coefficient of permeability, determination of coefficient of permeability, Unconfined and confined aquifers, effective stress, quick sand, consolidation of soils, Principles of consolidation, degree of consolidation, pre-consolidation pressure, normally consolidated soil, e-log p curve, computation of ultimate settlement. Shear strength of soils, direct shear test, Vane shear test, Triaxial test. Soil compaction, Laboratory compaction test, Maximum dry density and optimum moisture content, earth pressure theories, active and passive earth pressures, Bearing capacity of soils, plate load test, standard penetration test.
Hydraulics : Fluid properties, hydrostatics, measurements of flow, Bernoulli’s theorem and its application, flow through pipes, flow in open channels, weirs, flumes, spillways, pumps and turbines.
Irrigation Engineering: Definition, necessity, benefits, 2II effects of irrigation, types and methods of irrigation, Hydrology – Measurement of rainfall, run off coefficient, rain gauge, losses from precipitation – evaporation, infiltration, etc. Water requirement of crops, duty, delta and base period, Kharif and Rabi Crops, Command area, Time factor, Crop ratio, Overlap allowance, Irrigation efficiencies. Different type of canals, types of canal irrigation, loss of water in canals. Canal lining – types and advantages. Shallow and deep to wells, yield from a well. Weir and barrage, Failure of weirs and permeable foundation, Slit and Scour, Kennedy’s theory of critical velocity. Lacey’s theory of uniform flow. Definition of flood, causes and effects, methods of flood control, water logging, preventive measure. Land reclamation, Characteristics of affecting fertility of soils, purposes, methods, description of land and reclamation processes. Major irrigation projects in India.
Transportation Engineering: Highway Engineering – cross sectional elements, geometric design, types of pavements, pavement materials – aggregates and bitumen, different tests, Design of flexible and rigid pavements – Water Bound Macadam (WBM) and Wet Mix Macadam (WMM), Gravel Road, Bituminous construction, Rigid pavement joint, pavement maintenance, Highway drainage, Railway Engineering- Components of permanent way – sleepers, ballast, fixtures and fastening, track geometry, points and crossings, track junction, stations and yards. Traffic Engineering – Different traffic survey, speed-flow-density and their interrelationships, intersections and interchanges, traffic signals, traffic operation, traffic signs and markings, road safety.
Environmental Engineering: Quality of water, source of water supply, purification of water, distribution of water, need of sanitation, sewerage systems, circular sewer, oval sewer, sewer appurtenances, sewage treatments. Surface water drainage. Solid waste management – types, effects, engineered management system. Air pollution – pollutants, causes, effects, control. Noise pollution – cause, health effects, control.
Structural Engineering Theory of structures: Elasticity constants, types of beams – determinate and indeterminate, bending moment and shear force diagrams of simply supported, cantilever and over hanging beams. Moment of area and moment of inertia for rectangular & circular sections, bending moment and shear stress for tee, channel and compound sections, chimneys, dams and retaining walls, eccentric loads, slope deflection of simply supported and cantilever beams, critical load and columns, Torsion of circular section.
Concrete Technology: Properties, Advantages and uses of concrete, cement aggregates, importance of water quality, water cement ratio, workability, mix design, storage, batching, mixing, placement, compaction, finishing and curing of concrete, quality control of concrete, hot weather and cold weather concreting, repair and maintenance of concrete structures.
RCC Design: RCC beams-flexural strength, shear strength, bond strength, design of singly reinforced and double reinforced beams, cantilever beams. T-beams, lintels. One way and two way slabs, isolated footings. Reinforced brick works, columns, staircases, retaining wall, water tanks (RCC design questions may be based on both Limit State and Working Stress methods).
Steel Design: Steel design and construction of steel columns, beams roof trusses plate girders.
Part-B (Electrical Engineering):
Basic concepts : Concepts of resistance, inductance, capacitance, and various factors affecting them. Concepts of current, voltage, power, energy and their units.
Circuit law : Kirchhoff’s law, Simple Circuit solution using network theorems.
Magnetic Circuit : Concepts of flux, mmf, reluctance, Different kinds of magnetic materials, Magnetic calculations for conductors of different configuration e.g. straight, circular, solenoidal, etc. Electromagnetic induction, self and mutual induction.
AC Fundamentals: Instantaneous, peak, R.M.S. and average values of alternating waves, Representation of sinusoidal wave form, simple series and parallel AC Circuits consisting of R.L. and C, Resonance, Tank Circuit. Poly Phase system – star and delta connection, 3 phase power, DC and sinusoidal response of R-Land R-C circuit.
Measurement and measuring instruments: Measurement of power (1 phase and 3 phase, both active and re-active) and energy, 2 wattmeter method of 3 phase power measurement. Measurement of frequency and phase angle. Ammeter and voltmeter (both moving oil and moving iron type), extension of range wattmeter, Multimeters, Megger, Energy meter AC Bridges. Use of CRO, Signal Generator, CT, PT and their uses. Earth Fault detection.
Electrical Machines : (a) D.C. Machine – Construction, Basic Principles of D.C. motors and generators, their characteristics, speed control and starting of D.C. Motors. Method of braking motor, Losses and efficiency of D.C. Machines. (b) 1 phase and 3 phase transformers – Construction, Principles of operation, equivalent circuit, voltage regulation, O.C. and S.C. Tests, Losses and efficiency. Effect of voltage, frequency and wave form on losses. Parallel operation of 1 phase /3 phase transformers. Auto transformers. (c) 3 phase induction motors, rotating magnetic field, principle of operation, equivalent circuit, torque-speed characteristics, starting and speed control of 3 phase induction motors. Methods of braking, effect of voltage and frequency variation on torque speed characteristics.
Fractional Kilowatt Motors and Single Phase Induction Motors: Characteristics and applications.
Synchronous Machines – Generation of 3-phase e.m.f. armature reaction, voltage regulation, parallel operation of two alternators, synchronizing, control of active and reactive power. Starting and applications of synchronous motors.
Generation, Transmission and Distribution – Different types of power stations, Load factor, diversity factor, demand factor, cost of generation, inter-connection of power stations. Power factor improvement, various types of tariffs, types of faults, short circuit current for symmetrical faults.
Switchgear – rating of circuit breakers, Principles of arc extinction by oil and air, H.R.C. Fuses, Protection against earth leakage / over current, etc. Buchholtz relay, Merz-Price system of protection of generators & transformers, protection of feeders and bus bars. Lightning arresters, various transmission and distribution system, comparison of conductor materials, efficiency of different system. Cable – Different type of cables, cable rating and derating factor.
Estimation and costing : Estimation of lighting scheme, electric installation of machines and relevant IE rules. Earthing practices and IE Rules. Utilization of Electrical Energy : Illumination, Electric heating, Electric welding, Electroplating, Electric drives and motors.
Basic Electronics : Working of various electronic devices e.g. P N Junction diodes, Transistors (NPN and PNP type), BJT and JFET. Simple circuits using these devices.
Part- C (Mechanical Engineering):
Theory of Machines and Machine Design
Concept of simple machine, Four bar linkage and link motion, Flywheels and fluctuation of energy, Power transmission by belts – V-belts and Flat belts, Clutches – Plate and Conical clutch, Gears – Type of gears, gear profile and gear ratio calculation, Governors – Principles and classification, Riveted joint, Cams, Bearings, Friction in collars and pivots.
Engineering Mechanics and Strength of Materials
Equilibrium of Forces, Law of motion, Friction, Concepts of stress and strain, Elastic limit and elastic constants, Bending moments and shear force diagram, Stress in composite bars, Torsion of circular shafts, Bucking of columns – Euler’s and Rankin’s theories, Thin walled pressure vessels.
Thermal Engineering
Properties of Pure Substances : p-v & P-T diagrams of pure substance like H2O, Introduction of steam table with respect to steam generation process; definition of saturation, wet & superheated status. Definition of dryness fraction of steam, degree of superheat of steam. H-s chart of steam (Mollier’s Chart).
1st Law of Thermodynamics : Definition of stored energy & internal energy, 1st Law of Thermodynamics of cyclic process, Non Flow Energy Equation, Flow Energy & Definition of Enthalpy, Conditions for Steady State Steady Flow; Steady State Steady Flow Energy Equation.
2nd Law of Thermodynamics : Definition of Sink, Source Reservoir of Heat, Heat Engine, Heat Pump & Refrigerator; Thermal Efficiency of Heat Engines & co-efficient of performance of Refrigerators, Kelvin – Planck & Clausius Statements of 2nd Law of Thermodynamics, Absolute or Thermodynamic Scale of temperature, Clausius Integral, Entropy, Entropy change calculation of ideal gas processes. Carnot Cycle & Carnot Efficiency, PMM-2; definition & its impossibility.
Air standard Cycles for IC engines : Otto cycle; plot on P-V, T-S Planes; Thermal Efficiency, Diesel Cycle; Plot on P-V, T-S planes; Thermal efficiency.
IC Engine Performance, IC Engine Combustion, IC Engine Cooling & Lubrication.
Rankine cycle of steam : Simple Rankine cycle plot on P-V, T-S, h-s planes, Rankine cycle efficiency with & without pump work.
Boilers; Classification; Specification; Fittings & Accessories : Fire Tube & Water Tube Boilers.
Air Compressors & their cycles; Refrigeration cycles; Principle of a Refrigeraton Plant; Nozzles & Steam Turbines Fluid Mechanics & Machinery
Properties & Classification of Fluid : ideal & real fluids, Newton’s law of viscosity, Newtonian and Non-Newtonian fluids, compressible and incompressible fluids.
Fluid Statics : Pressure at a point.
Measurement of Fluid Pressure : Manometers, U-tube, Inclined tube.
Fluid Kinematics : Stream line, laminar & turbulent flow, external & internal flow, continuity equation.
Dynamics of ideal fluids : Bernoulli’s equation, Total head; Velocity head; Pressure head; Application of Bernoulli’s equitation.
Measurement of Flow rate Basic Principles : Venturi meter, Pilot tube, Orifice meter.
Hydraulic Turbines : Classifications, Principles.
Centrifugal Pumps : Classifications, Principles, Performance.
Production Engineering
Classification of Steels : mild steal & alloy steel, Heat treatment of steel, Welding – Arc Welding,
Gas Welding, Resistance Welding, Special Welding Techniques i.e. TIG, MIG, etc. (Brazing & Soldering), Welding Defects & Testing; NDT, Foundry & Casting – methods, defects, different casting processes, Forging, Extrusion, etc, Metal cutting principles, cutting tools, Basic Principles of machining with (i) Lathe (ii) Milling (iii) Drilling (iv) Shaping (v) Grinding, Machines, tools & manufacturing processes.
All books are revised edition in 2019 under Rakesh Yadav Readers Publication with QR Code of Explanation and most of book available in Bilingual, Hindi & English.
| Book Name | Medium | MRP | Student Price | Category | |
| 1 | Study Material English | English | 350 | 260 | ALL Exams |
| 2 | Advance Maths | English | 400 | 300 | SSC |
| 3 | Reasoning Verbal & Non Verbal | Bilingual | 250 | 175 | ALL |
| 4 | General Knowledge 1100+ | English/Hindi | 460 | 345 | SSC, RRB |
| 5 | English Grammar & Vocab | English | 200 | 150 | All Exams |
| 6 | Study Material maths | Bilingual | 250 | 175 | All Exams |
| 7 | Class Notes Maths | English | 330 | 250 | All |
| 9 | Study Material DI | English | 150 | 110 | Bank Exam |
Our new batch start from 14 Oct 2019 welcome to all ssc cgl students for demo lecture @ 7 to 11am…
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SSC CGL:- Prudence Coaching Mumbai || Rakesh Yadav Sir || Careerwill App classes in mumbai || Live Lecture App SSC CGL || Top & Best Result Oriented class in mumbai
IPCI are frequently getting various queries from candidates in connection with Common Recruitment Process. We have compiled repeated similar queries received from candidates along with our responses to upload on the official website of IPCI for information and benefit of all concerned. Most of the queries are raised based on the information already incorporated in the advertisement of Recruitment like SSC(Staff Selection Commission), Banking Exam, Railway Exam, IB or CBI, EPFO, ESIC, NDA, CDS etc.
For More Information fill online form:
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Crack SSC in First Attempt Join Prudence Coaching Centre Mumbai. No.1 Coaching Centre for SSC CGL in Mumbai, Maximum Selection Rate by us and Our Institute. New Batch Start Every month. Prudence Provides 7 free Demo Class for Arithmetic, Advance, General Knowledge, Reasoning & English Language & Grammar. For more details call: 8779774040 | 8080160826.
SSC CGL Off line mock test download the below link:
SSC CGL Mock Test Explanation -62Download





SSC CGL Mock Test Prelim and Main Examination || SSC CHSL Mock test || Multi tasking staff || SSC CGL Notification 2019 ||
Lecture Schedule IPCI & Prudence Mumbai
09-Oct-2019(Wednesday)
| Batch Time | Class Room-L 09-Sept, | Class Room-M | Class Room-S 1-Aug | Class Room-M Offline Lecture |
| 7-8am | GS-Polity Abhishek Sir | |||
| 8-9:30am | Maths Rakesh Sir | Maths Amit Sir | ||
| 9:30-11am | English Jaideep Sir | Maths Rakesh Sir | ||
| 11-12:45pm | Maths Rakesh Sir | English Jaideep Sir | ||
| 1-3pm | History Abhishek Sir | History Abhishek Sir | Maths Amit Sir | |
| 3 -5pm | Maths Rakesh Sir | English Jaideep Sir | ||
| 5-6:30pm | English Jaideep Sir | |||
| 6:30-7pm | Polity Abhishek Sir | |||
| 7-8:45pm | — |
Every year, Staff Selection Commission conducts Combined Graduate Level Exam to recruit various posts in Ministries and Departments of the Government of India and in its Subordinate Offices. This is the biggest opportunity for the Graduates who wish to be a part of reputed government organization.
The overall recruitment process consists of 4 tiers, each tier need to be cleared depending upon the requirement of different posts. Let’s have a look at the SSC CGL 2019 Exam Pattern.
1. This Booklet contains 100 questions in all comprising the following four parts: Part – I : General Awareness [40 Questions] Part – II : General Intelligence & Reasoning [30 Questions] Part – III : Quantitative Aptitude [30 Questions]
2.All questions are compulsory and carry two mark each.
3. Before you start to answer the questions you must check this Booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages (1-11) and see that no page is missing or repeated. If you find any defect in this Booklet, you must get it replaced immediately.
4. For every wrong answer 1/3 marks will be deducted from total marks you get.
5. You will be provided the Answer-Sheet separately by the Invigilator. You must complete the details of Ticket Number,Roll Number and Test Form Number on Side-I of the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start answering the questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which your AnswerSheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘Zero’ mark.
6.Questions of English Medium will be considered for evaluation in case if differs in Hindi Medium.
7. Answers must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding rectangles on Side-II of the Answer-Sheet against the relevant question number by black/blue ball pen only. Answers which are not shown by black/blue ball pen will not be awarded any mark.
8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
9. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render a candidate liable to such action/Penalty as way be deemed fit.
10. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been explained in the OMR sheet from which you should read carefully before answering the questions.
11. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not spend too much time on any question.
12. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. Space for rough work has been provided at the back of the booklet.
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SSC CGL New batch by Prudence coaching Centre Mumbai and Best Coaching Institute in Dadar & Complete Demo Lecture for Staff Selection Commission| Exam Name | SSC CGL 2019 (Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level) |
| Conducting Body | Staff Selection Commission |
| Official Website | ssc.nic.in |
| Exam Type | National Level Exam |
| Mode of Application | Online |
| Mode of Exam | Online |
| Medium of Exam | Hindi and English |
| Exam Dates (2018-19) | CGL 2019-20 Tier I: 02.03.2019 to 19.06.2019 CGL 2019-20 Tier II & III: 22.06.2020 to 25.06.2020 CGL 208-19 Tier III: 29.12.2019 |
| Eligibility | Indian citizenship & bachelor’s degree in relevant discipline |
| Duration | Tier 1 – 60 minutesTier 2 – 120 minutesTier 3 – 60 minutesTier 4 – 45 minutes |
| Section | Tier 1 – 4 Sections Tier 2 – 4 Papers |
SSC CGL Exam Coaching in Mumbai, result oriented Coaching Classes for SSC CGL, Best Faculty, Test series, Study material, SSC CGL exam preparation tier I & II full Notes.
Rakesh Yadav Sir classes in mumbai, Arun Sir classes Reasoning, Career Will app classes.
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SSC CGL Classes for Tier I and II in Andheri || Borivali || Virar || Best Exam Institute in Panvel || Vashi || Mankhurd || Rakesh Yadav Sir Maths Books ||
You may undergo various professional courses as per service requirement and certificates of equivalent qualifications from various Universities are being awarded on successful completion of courses. You will get “Graduation Equivalent Certificate” on retirement after completion of 15 years of service.
Qualified in 10+2 examination with Maths & Physics and at least one of these subjects; Chemistry/Biology/Computer science from an educational board recognized by Central/State Government.
The age for SSR candidate should be between 17-20 years on the day of enrolment.
We will provide the direct link to download CDS 2 2019 result PDF. However, test-takers can also follow the steps mentioned below to check their CDS 2 result 2019:
Hello dear prudence coaching institute will provides SSC CGL Mock Test -60 for prelims examination and test contains four section Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Knowledge and English Language. each section having 25 question and carry 2 mark and negative .5 marks. our test also available on mock www.ipci.co.in.
SSC CGL Mock Test Exaplanation-60Download
Top Most Institute in Mumbai for SSC CGL Railway Banking And State Govt Exam
CTET is the most respected exams and jobs as a teacher in middle school & High school (Primary and Secondary) teacher. every year exam conducting for CTET & State TET entrance test is mandatory for teaching jobs in Indian government schools from Class I to Class VIII. There are two papers: Paper 1, for teachers of Classes I to V, and Paper 2 for Classes VI to VIII. The TET is conducted by both the central government and the state governments of India. Most states conduct their own TET.
People with professional teaching qualifications, including the B.T.C (D.El.Ed), B.Ed, and B.El.Ed, are eligible to take the test.
Click here for Previous Paper Environment & Heredity
SSC CGL Calendar 2019 and 2020 out, Best classes for SSC CGL CHSL in mumbai dadar || SSC CGL Complete lecture in Mumbai , SSC CGL Exam Preparation Institute dadar || Rakesh Yadav Sir Math Careerwill App || Prudence Coaching institute in Mumbai || SSC CGL Mains Exam Preparation ||
In the given back link on 19 sep-2019 for General Knowledge by Abhishek Sir at 6:30 pm to 8 pm click here:
Above Link only useful for SSC(staff Selection Commission) CGL, CHSL, MTS, RRB NTPS, CDS, AFCAT etc. except banking students.
Click here to watch complete lecture on compatible device: https://youtu.be/0LAyQrvlMK4
English link 16 sept 2019 at 5 to 6:30pm by Jaideep Sir fro SSC CGL/CPO and Banking examination.
New Batch announcement SSC CGL || CPO || CISF || CAPFs || ASI || 30-Sept-2019
Call: 8080160826 || 8779774040
SSC CPO Recruitment -2019https://ipci.co.in/ssc-cpo-central-police-organization-recruitment-important-date-2019/
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has released the admit card for combined graduate level (CGL) tier 1 exam 2019. Candidates who have registered for the SSC CGL Tier 1 exam can download their admit cards online from the regional websites of SSC.
SSC CGL Tier 1 exam 2019 will be held from March 3 to 9, 2020. We have provided the direct links to download admit card for all regions here:
Admit card for Karnataka and Kerala region
Admit Card for Southern Region
Admit Card for North Eastern region
Admit card for Western region (Mumbai)
Admit card for Madhya Pradesh Region
Admit card for North Western region
main websitte: Click here
The State Bank of India (SBI) on Tuesday released the Admit Card for Junior Associate (Clerk) preliminary examination on its official website. The SBI Clerk admit card has been released for the Prelims Exam 2020 to recruit 8000 Customer Support & Sales (clerk) in different offices of SBI across the country.
The SBI had invited applications from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment as Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) in clerical cadre in State Bank of India. The candidates should download their call letter and an “acquaint yourself booklet” by entering their registration & Password:
Click here for download:
https://ibpsonline.ibps.in/sbijassdec19/clopea_feb20/login.php?appid=6c0550ad907fc56519e7e63c4fb7e3c3
The SSC CHSL Teir1, 2, 3 exam call letter is released through online mode. Thus, candidates need to know how to download the admit card. The steps to download the SSC CHSL 2020 Call Letter are as follows:
1st Step: Visit the Official Website – ssc.nic.in
2nd Step: Now click on the tab ‘Admit Card’ present on the top of the page.
3rd Step: A page will open with a list of 9 SSC Regional website. Click on the appropriate regional link from which you have submitted the application form.
4th Step: The respective regional official website will open. Now, click on the SSC CHSL Tier 1 Admit Card link present on the page. (Link to be activated once the admit card is released)
5th Step: Enter your Roll Number/ Registration ID, Name and Date of Birth. Click on the button ‘Submit’.
6th Step: The SSC CHSL Admit Card will be displayed. Check the details and download the admit card for future reference.
More Help Call: 80 80 160 826

SSC CGL 2020 Tier-1 will be conducted tentatively from 2nd to 11th March 2020. The exam will be conducted online comprising of 4 sections with about 100 questions in total and with maximum marks of 200. The entire exam is needed to be completed in a time span of 60 minutes.
The sections asked in SSC CGL Tier-I Exam are:
Find the detailed exam analysis of the SSC CGL 2019-20 Tier-1 Exam held on 3rd March 2020 (Shift-1). The paper was conducted online in the Objective type MCQ format. So, let’s look at the type of questions asked in this exam, difficulty level and number of good attempts.
| SSC CGL Tier-I 2019-20 Online Exam Analysis held on 3rd March 2020 (Shift-1) | ||
Category (Number of Questions/Marks) | Topics | Difficulty Level (Good Attempts) |
| Quantitative Aptitude (25/50) | Number Systems, Decimals and Fractions, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, Trigonometry
| Moderate (17 to 20) |
English Language and Comprehension (25/50) | Spot the Error, Fill in the Blanks, Synonyms/ Antonyms, Mis-spelt words, Idioms & Phrases, One Word Substitution, Improvement of Sentences, Sentence Rearrangement, Cloze Test
| Easy to Moderate (18 to 20) |
General Intelligence & Reasoning (25/50) | Analogies, Classification, Analogy, Coding-Decoding, Puzzle, Matrix, Word Formation, Venn Diagram, Direction and Distance, Blood Relations, Series, Non-Verbal Reasoning (Paper-folding, Mirror Image) | Easy to Moderate (20 to 22) |
(25/50) | Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity, Awards, Indian Constitution, and general Science
| Easy to Moderate (18 to 20) |
| Total 100 Objective MCQs | Easy to Moderate (70 to 80) | |
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SSC CGL Mock Test | NTPC Mock test practice | RBI & SBI Mock Test | Mock test Prelim and Mains Exam Every Saturday & Sunday | Best Mock test Centre in Mumbai | Mock test ssc cgl in mumbai @8080160826
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Shorthand writing is a art to understand the strokes , circles , hook , symbols .etc . And express it into our own way in the simple form.
The shorthand writing is very easy to write and to understand . In shorthand one must has to practice.
Shorthand is very interested because we learn new form of writing and to feel it and easy to express .
1: A writer of shorthand
2: A person employed chiefly to take and transcribe dictation
3:A person whose job is to write down the words that someone says by using a special type of writing (called shorthand)
The best Practice Booklet for SSC Stenographer Computer based examination and test is compiled under guidance by Rakesh Yadav Sir or Prudence Coaching. it is useful for all stenography student appearing for SSC Steno. Computer based Exam 2020. Steno. sample paper click here and solution of sample mock paper in your booklet.
SSC Stenographer Mock test | SSC CGL Mock test | SSC CHSL Mock Test
Live Online Classes for Banking SSC CGL RRB NTPC CDS & Degree Entrance Course
you cover the complete syllabus of Courses & Subject wise (Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, General Awareness and English section) including fundamental concepts, important questions, and latest exam patterns.
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SSC CHSL 2019-20 Tier-I exam will be an Objective Multiple Choice Exam which will be conducted online. The exam comprises of four sections having 100 questions (25 questions in each section) which will account for a total of 200 marks (maximum 50 marks in each section). The time duration of Tier-1 exam will be 60 minutes. The section-wise details of the exam are shown in the table given below:
Dates of SSC CHSL Computer Based Exam (Tier-I) | Parts – Subjects | Number of Questions/ Maximum Marks | Time Duration (For all four Parts) |
March 2020 | Part I – English Language (Basic Knowledge) | 25/50 | 60 Minutes (80 Minutes for candidates eligible for scribes) |
Part II – General Intelligence | 25/50 | ||
Part III – Quantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill) | 25/50 | ||
Part IV – General Awareness | 25/50 | ||
TOTAL |
| 200 |
SSC CHSL Syllabus | CHSL Tier III Exams details | CHSL Paper pattern | LDC DEP JSA SA Exam classes
SSC CHSL 2019-20 Tier-II will be a Descriptive Paper of 100 Marks in Pen and Paper Mode. The duration of the Descriptive Paper would be for one hour (20 minutes compensatory time will also be provided to the candidates eligible for scribes). The Paper would comprise writing of an Essay of 200-250 words and a Letter/ Application of approximately 150-200 words. The section-wise details of the exam are shown in the table given below:
Dates of SSC CHSL 2019-20 Descriptive Paper (Tier-II) | Max Marks | Exam Duration |
28th June 2020 (Pen and Paper Mode) | 100 | 1 Hour (20 minutes compensatory time will also be provided to the candidates eligible for scribes) |
Skill Test is mandatory for Data Entry Operators. Skill Test/ Typing Test for the qualified candidates will be conducted on computers provided by the Commission or its authorized agency. Skill Test/ Typing Test will be conducted in the cities where Regional Offices of the Commission are located or as decided by the Commission.
Skill Test | Speed | Time |
Data Entry Operator | Data Entry Speed of 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressions per hour on Computer. The ‘Speed of 8000 key depressions per hour on computer’ will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words/ key depressions as per the given passage | The duration of the Test will be 15 (Fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2000-2200 key-depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the Computer |
Data Entry Operator in the Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C&AG) | The ‘speed of 15000 key depressions per hour on Computer’ will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words/ key depressions as per the given passage | The duration of the Test will be 15 (Fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 3700-4000 key-depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the Computer |
New Batch start for Bank Exam SSC Exam Railway Exam CDS & Other Competitive Exams
The online examinations for the next Common Recruitment Process for RRBs (CRP RRBs IX) and PSBs for recruitment of Group “A”-Officers (Scale-I, II & III), Group “B”-Office Assistant (Multipurpose), PSBs Probationary Officer, Clerk and SO will be conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) tentatively in September to Jan 2021 (Prelim & Main Exam). The interviews for recruitment of Group “A”- Officers (Scale-I, II & III) under the same process will be coordinated by Banks and IBPS in consultation with appropriate authority tentatively in the month of End of march 2021.
IBPS Exam date for Officer & Clerk 2020
Pitman shorthand is a system of shorthand for the English language developed by Englishman Sir Isaac Pitman (1813–1897), who first presented it in 1837. Like most systems of shorthand, it is a phonetic system; the symbols do not represent letters, but rather sounds, and words are, for the most part, written as they are spoken.]As of 1996, Pitman shorthand was the most popular shorthand system used in the United Kingdom and the second most popular in the United States.
One characteristic feature of Pitman shorthand is that unvoiced and voiced pairs of sounds (such as /p/ and /b/ or /t/ and /d/) are represented by strokes which differ only in thickness; the thin stroke representing “light” sounds such as /p/ and /t/; the thick stroke representing “heavy” sounds such as /b/ and /d/. Doing this requires a writing instrument responsive to the user’s drawing pressure: specialist fountain pens (with fine, flexible nibs) were originally used, but pencils are now more commonly used.
Pitman shorthand uses straight strokes and quarter-circle strokes, in various orientations, to represent consonant sounds. The predominant way of indicating vowels is to use light or heavy dots, dashes, or other special marks drawn close to the consonant. Vowels are drawn before the stroke (or over a horizontal stroke) if the vowel is pronounced before the consonant, and after the stroke (or under a horizontal stroke) if pronounced after the consonant.
the Commission has released the exam date of Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Examination (Tier-I), 2019 result. The SSC CGL 2019 Tier 2 will be held between November 2 and 5, 2020. The SSC is likely to release the admit card for the same at least a week before the scheduled time.
The official notice reads, “The above schedule is subject to the prevailing conditions and government guidelines issued from time to time regarding the handling of the COVID-19 pandemic.”

Original link:
https://ssc.nic.in/SSCFileServer/PortalManagement/UploadedFiles/CGL_2019_english_26082020.pdf
H
IPCI will provide all type of online test series for all competitive prelim & mains examination on every Sunday. today’s ssc cgl prelims test series is lived and interested students join ipci online platform www.ipci.co.in/onlinemocktest to attend comprehensive test.
hello dear students,
today, ipci is published free ibps online mock test series for all students. this mock test is attempt to check yourself progress with actual questions, latest pattern, explanation etc.
Online test link: https://ipci.co.in/onlinemocktest/mod/quiz/view.php?id=44
IBPS Recruitment 2020:
https://ipci.co.in/ibps-po-recruitment-notification-out-2020-for-1167-post/
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New course for SSC CGL & CHSL, Prudence Coaching Centre Mumbai Rakesh Yadav Sir, Arun Sir Reasoning, Jaideep Sir English grammar, Classes for SSC CGL in Kurla mumbai, SSC CGL inquiry, SSC CGL Class fee, SSC CGL Classes in in dadar west, Institute ssc in bandra,
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) released Tier 3 Admit Card for the Combined Graduate Level CGL Recruitment 2019. Candidates who have registered for the following vacancy can download Tier 3 Admit Card. SSC CGL Tier 3 Admit Card can download the admit card through the online mode. Candidates can check the SSC Tier 3 admit card only through online mode. @ssc.nic.in
SSC CGL Tier 3 Admit Card from the below Provided Table.
| State/UT | Region/ Sub Region | Download Tier 3 Admit Card |
| Rajasthan, Delhi, Uttarakhand | North Region | Available Now |
| Maharashtra, Gujarat, Goa | Western Region | Available NOW |
| Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh | MP Sub-Region | Available NOW |
| West Bengal, Orrisa, Jharkhand, A&N Island, Sikkim | Eastern Region | Available Now |
| Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland, Mizoram | North Eastern Region | Available Now |
| Andhra Pradesh, Puducherry, Tamilnadu | Southern Region | Available Now |
| Karnataka, Kerala | KKR Region | Available Now |
| Haryana, Punjab, J&K, Himachal Pradesh | North Western Region | Available Now |
| Uttar Pradesh & Bihar | Central Region | Available Now |
Dear Students
our upcoming classes is started from 9th January 2020 in new year and batch timing for SSC CGL, CHSL and Railway Examinations at 7 to 12pm to all subjects. time and subjects: 7am to 8am General knowledge, 8 to 9am English, 9 to 10am Reasoning and 10 to 12pm Maths (Arithmetic & Advance) for more details call at dadar centre 8779774040.
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In India if one knows Shorthand at 80/100wpm, then one can apply for Stenographer in many Government Departments, viz.,
Career Counselling for students?
In current times, career counselling is a need as most students pick commonly known domains as their career option.
Career counselling is an effort for students‘ career guidance right from their school about the available career options as per their interest and stream of academics
To provide them understanding and knowledge on the available streams and choices as per their inclination in the subjects and career focus.
• Science is the most popular and favourite career option for the majority of the parents and students.
• Science stream offers many lucrative career options such as engineering, medical, IT and you can even opt for research roles.
• The best advantage of taking science stream is, it keeps your options open. You might switch from science to commerce or science to arts. But it is not possible to do the other way around.
• Taking science stream equips you with excellent problem-solving abilities.
• Science and math offer a flexible foundation which enables students to accomplish highly respected and well-paid jobs.
• Science is fun, amazing and fascinating. As Edward Teller rightly said
“The science of today is the technology of tomorrow.”
If technology fascinates you and you have a flair for numbers, then taking science after 10th would be a wise option.
– You can opt for Physics, Chemistry, Maths (PCM).
– If you want to make a mark for yourself in the medical field, you can opt for Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology (PCM-B).
– Now there are many students who don’t like Maths. Either they are afraid of Maths or Maths doesn’t interest them. Don’t worry, if you want to become a doctor, then knowing Maths is not necessary. You can easily opt for Physics, Chemistry, Biology (PCB).
There are multiple career options available for science stream after 10th class. If you have any doubts regarding what after 10th you can contact us and get your doubts cleared.
It will really help you in choosing the right career stream.
We are there to help and guide you.
• Commerce is the second most popular career option after science.
If you love numbers, finances, economics etc., then finance is the best option for you.
• It offers a wider variety of career options such as Chartered Accountants, MBA, investment in banking sectors etc.
• You acquire commercial knowledge which is very important for the business.
• You have to be familiar with the subjects such as Accountancy, Finance, Economics etc.
• You must be good with numbers, data and have a curiosity in Finance, economics.
• Commerce as a subject is gaining popularity in India and many students are studying and making a living out of it.
If you have an affinity for numbers, business, economics then commerce is the stream for you.
If you want to shape your career in economics and business world, then commerce is the right career for you.
There are a number of options available for commerce stream after 10th class.
If you have any doubts regarding whether to opt for commerce stream you can choose the smartest way by getting your career counselling done from an expert. Proper career guidance after 10th class is extremely necessary for a hassle-free career.
It will really help you in choosing the right career stream.
We are there to help and guide you.
• Nowadays arts/humanities are very high in demand and more and more students are opting for it.
• Arts is now emerging as a sought after career choice. It provides students with an array of career opportunities.
• It offers many lucrative career options such as Journalism, languages, history, psychology etc.
• Design, Language Arts, Performing arts, Humanities are well-paid career options.
• Arts subject encourage creativity and self-expression.
• Students who take up art stream develop critical thinking. It also helps you increase your leadership qualities.
Art teaches you to deal with the world around you.
~ Alan Parker.
If you are a student who is creative and wants to dive deep into humanity, then arts is the stream for you.
There are multiple options available for Arts stream after 10th class. If you have any confusion you can get your career counselling done. A career counsellor will provide you with proper career guidance and guide you in the right direction.
These are the few good career options which you can choose after 10th class.
Listing some Diploma courses and their details –
| Name of the Course | Course Details | Duration of the Course | Career Scope |
| Art Teacher Diploma | The course is basically designed to train the candidates in the fundamental and basic principles of visual and design experience | 2 years | After the successful completion of the course, the Diploma holders in Art Teaching are eligible to become an Arts Teacher |
| Commercial Art Diploma | The course will help the students to understand the concepts of selling goods and services. The course is completely different from fine art. | 2 to 3 years | After the completion of the course, the students will be eligible to secure jobs in Advertising Companies, Art Studios, Publishing Houses and Fashion Houses. Students can also join Bachelor of Fine Arts (BFA) course through Lateral Entry mode. |
| Diploma in Stenography | In this course, the students will be equipped in taking short-hand dictations and perform clerical duties. | 1 year | These students will have more scope to get a job as Stenographer in the government sector and the private sector. |
| Diploma in 3D Animation | The course will enable the candidate to obtain all the necessary skills related to 3D Animation. | 18 months to 2 years (varies from institute to institute) | These students can get employment as 3D Animator or Animator in Animation Companies. The scope of employment for high-skilled candidates is more. |
| Diploma in Beauty Care | It is one of the most preferred courses among girls. Through this course, the participants will be trained in beautician skills. | 4 months | After the successful completion of course, the students can start their own beauty parlour. |
| Diploma in Cosmetology | The course will help the participants to have an in-depth understanding of wide range of cosmetics. | 5 months | After the successful completion of course, the students can become a beautician or can start their own beauty parlour. They can also secure employment as Salesman in companies that manufacture cosmetics. |
| Diploma in Cyber Security | One of the contemporary courses that will enable the students to acquire skills related to ethical hacking. | 1 year | After the successful completion of course, the students will have chances to secure job as an Ethical Hacker in government agencies or private organizations. |
| Diploma in Agriculture and Farm Management(Animal Husbandry) | The course enables the students to understand various techniques of farming, types of soils etc. | 2 years | Students can join B.Tech in Agriculture Engineering through lateral entry mode after the successful completion of Diploma. |
| Diploma in Hotel Management and Catering Technology | The course will help the participants to meet the industry needs for competent hospitality trade. | 2 years | With this diploma, students are eligible to take up various jobs like Catering Officer, Catering Supervisors & Assistants, Cabin Crew, Hospitality Executive etc. |
| Diploma in Commercial Practice | The course deals with the promotion, sale or supply of service or product to a consumer. The students will be trained in necessary skills associated to it. | 3 years | This diploma will help students to secure a job as Commercial Account Manager, Commercial Executive, Business Junior Head, Branch Commercial Assistant Manager etc. |
| Diploma in Dental Mechanics | It is a Dentistry course that trains the students in designing dental structures and makes them more knowledgeable about dental health. | 2 years | After the course, students will be eligible to become a: Dentist Assistant Dental Surgeon Dental Technician Research Assistant |
| Diploma in Plastics Technology | The course trains the students in selecting the right type of material to make a plastic product. Students will be also trained in handling machinery for making plastic products. | 3 years | Students can either go for further studies in Plastic Technology (B.Tech) or secure employment as: Plastic Part Mould Design EngineerProject EngineerIndustrial EngineerProduct Design Engineer |
| Diploma in Ceramic Technology | It is one of the emerging disciplines that train the students in properties, manufacture, design and applications of ceramic materials. | 3 years | Students can either join B.Tech in Ceramic Technology in the lateral entry or secure employment as a Ceramic Engineer. |
| Diploma in Engineering | Colleges offer Diploma in Engineering (Polytechnic courses) in various branches of engineering. | 3 years | B.Tech Lateral Entry mode or jobs in the specified field. |
| Diploma in Fire Safety Engineering | The course trains the students in precautions that must be taken during a fire accident. | 6 months | Fire Safety Officer |
| Diploma in Fashion Technology | The course offers practical knowledge of fashion technology and design. | 3 years | Fashion Designer Costume Designer Textile Designer Bridal wear Designer Stylist |
Directions:(Q.1 to 5) study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1) If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
1) यदि सभी प्रतीकों को व्यवस्था से हटा दिया गया है, तो दी गई व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से ग्यारहवीं तत्व क्या होगा?
a) 9
b) G
c) D
d) 5
e) P
2) How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
2) दी गई व्यवस्था में ऐसे कितने प्रतीकों हैं जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक वर्णमाला द्वारा पीछा किया जाता है और तुरंत एक संख्या से पहले।
a) More than three
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
e) One
3) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
3) निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था चौदहवें के बाईं तरफ से दी गई छोर के छठे स्थान है
a) P
b) *
c) β
d) Z
e) 4
4) What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
4) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था के आधार पर निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या होना चाहिए?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
a) Ω 2 β
b) 6 % +
c) 6 % K
d) Ω X Z
e) & 8 +
5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
5) निम्न पांच में से चार उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में अपनी स्थिति के आधार पर एक निश्चित तरीके से समान हैं और इसलिए एक समूह बनाते हैं। वह कौन है जो उस समूह से संबंधित नहीं है?
a) T Ω 3
b) @ % 7
c) G 9 D
d) β 3 U
e) $ 9 Q
Directions (Q.6-10) : Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे स्वर हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को व्यंजन द्वारा तुरंत आगे किया जाता है और स्वर के बाद तुरंत।
a) None
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
e) Two
7) How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
7) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में वर्णित वर्णमालाओं की श्रृंखला में कितने ऐसे जोड़ी हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच उनके दोनों अक्षर (आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
8) On the basis of above series of alphabets DECK is written as BABE and BARS is written as CHSR, then how will JUMP be written?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
8) उपरोक्त श्रृंखलाओं के आधार पर DECK को BABE के रूप में लिखा गया है और BARS को CHSR के रूप में लिखा गया है, फिर JUMP कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
a) LIFJ
b) PRTV
c) LRFV
d) PITJ
e) None of these
9) On the basis of above series of alphabets if PJ is related to GI, EA is related to DO, then NF is related to:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
9) वर्णमालाओं की उपरोक्त श्रृंखला के आधार पर यदि PJ से GI संबंधित है, EA से DO संबंधित है, तो NF संबंधित है
a) JL
b) OL
c) TL
d) TO
e) None of these
10) Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the ninth from the left end of the above arrangement?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
10) उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से नौवें के बाईं ओर चौथे स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा है?
a) V
b) I
c) U
d) M
e) None of these
Directions (Q.11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) Which of the following is ninth to the left of twenty-one from the left end of the above arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से इक्कीस बायीं तरफ नौवां है?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
e) None of these
12) How many such 5’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by an odd digit and immediately preceded by an even digit ?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
12) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 5 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद विषम संख्या होता है और तुरंत पहले सम संख्या ।
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
13) How many such 1’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
13) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 1 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक पूर्ण वर्ग है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
14) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value more than four?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
14) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत अंक से पहले किया जाता है जिसमें चार से अधिक संख्यात्मक मान होते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
15) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement which of the following will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
15) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी संख्या सम को भी हटा दिया गया है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से दसवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 7
e) 9
16) Which of the following will come in place of the question mark?
16) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा होगा
ZX YV WS ? PJ
a) TO
b) TN
c) UO
d) SO
e) TP
17) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ABKC using each letter only once in each word? (All the four letters are to be used in the word)
17) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द एबीकेसी पत्रों के साथ प्रत्येक अक्षर में प्रत्येक बार एक बार केवल एक शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं? (सभी चार अक्षर शब्द में उपयोग किए जाने हैं।)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
18) Which of the following will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
18) निम्न में से कौन सी प्रश्न अंग्रेजी में वर्णानुक्रमिक क्रम के आधार पर निम्नलिखित अंक में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आएगा?
ZX US QO ? HF CA
a) LJ
b) MK
c) NL
d) KI
e) KJ
19) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘OLBT’ using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?
19) सभी अक्षरों का इस्तेमाल करते हुए ‘OLBT’ पत्रों के साथ कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं, लेकिन प्रत्येक शब्द में प्रत्येक अक्षर में केवल एक बार?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
20) If each vowel in the word BROUGHT is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be the fourth from the left?
20) अगर शब्द BROUGHT में प्रत्येक स्वर अंग्रेजी की वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है और प्रत्येक व्यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर से प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है, और उसके बाद वर्णित वर्णमाला वर्णानुक्रम में बाएं से दायां किए गए हैं , निम्न में से कौन बाएं से चौथा होगा?
a) V
b) P
c) G
d) Q
e) S
21) If each alternate letter in the word ‘MENTION’ starting with M is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letter is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?
21) यदि ‘MENTION’ शब्द में प्रत्येक वैकल्पिक अक्षर अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और बाकी प्रत्येक अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है तो कितने अक्षर अधिक दिखाई देंगे नई व्यवस्था में एक बार से?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) Four
22) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LABOUR’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
22) ‘LABOUR’ में कितने जोड़े पत्र हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच शब्द (उनके आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) के रूप में कई अक्षर हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
23) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘EWF’ using all the letters only once in each word?
23) प्रत्येक शब्द में केवल एक बार पत्रों का प्रयोग करके ‘EWF’ पत्रों की मदद से कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
24) What should come next in the letter series given below?
24) नीचे दिए गए पत्र श्रृंखला में क्या होना चाहिए?
Z Z Y Z Y X Z Y X W Z Y X W V Z Y X W V U Z Y X W V U T Z Y X W V U T
a) U
b) Z
c) R
d) T
e) None of these
25) Which of the following will come in place of question mark?
25) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा होगा?
AC DG HL ? SY
a) QU
b) MR
c) NS
d) NU
e) MS
26) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word?
26) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द ‘RCA’ से प्रत्येक अक्षर में एक बार शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Directions (Q.27 to 30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
27) How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of less than two?
27) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने 2 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक अंक से पहले दिया जाता है जिसमें दो से कम का एक संख्यात्मक मान होता है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
28) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square).
28) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक पूर्ण वर्ग का पीछा किया जाता है? (1 भी एक वर्ग है)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
29) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the right end of the arrangement?
29) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी अंक नष्ट किए जाते हैं, तो निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के सही अंत से आठवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 9
e) 7
30) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the eighteenth digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
30) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से अठारहवीं अंक के बाईं ओर छठे है?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 2
d) 6
e) None of these
Q1. (a) According to question, the new sequence would be:
2 X T 3 Z U 4 O P 9 Q G D 5 W J 6 8 K 7.
9 is 11th from the right.
Q2. (c) Such combination are 3*Z; 9$Q and 5#W
Q3. (c) 6th to the left 14th from the left means (14-6=) 8th from the left, ie,
Q4. (b)
Q5. (e)
Q6. (e) Such combinations are RUI : KEA
Q7. (d) Q S R U I V (4)
Q8. (a)
D E C K B A R S
+1 +1 -1 +1 +1 +1 -1 +1
B A B C C H S R
Similarly,
J U M P
+1 +1 -1 +1
L I F J
Q9. (c)
P +3 G
J -3 I
E +3 D
A -3 O
Therefore,
N +3 T
F -3 L
Q10. (b) 4th to the left of ninth from the left means 5th from the left, ie I.
Q11. (c) Ninth to the left of twentyfirst from the left end = (21-9=) 12th from the left end = 6
Q12. (d) 158, 152, 156
Q13.(b) 14
Q14.(c) 84, 74
Q15. (a) New arrangement 1 5 1 5 3 5 7 9 5 1 1 5 7 Hence, 10th from the right end is 5
Q16. The first set of letters follows -1, -2, -3, -4 and the second ones -2, -3, -4, -5
Q.17 (b) BACK
Q.18 (a) The series is going in reverse alphabetical order. In every pair there is a gap of one letter. Their after following rule follows between the consecutive pairs of letters:
Z -5 U -5 Q -5 L -4 H -5 C
X -5 S -4 0 -5 J -5 -4 F -5 A
Q.19 (a) BOLT
Q.20 (b) B R O U G H T
A Q P V F G S
Alphabetically – A F G P Q S V
Fourth from the left is P
Q.21 (c) M E N T I O N
N D O S J N O
N and O appear more than once in the new arrangement
Q.22 (c) L A B O U R
LO and AB are such pairs
Q.23 (b).’FEW’ is the only word possible
Q.24 (e) Z, ZY, ZYX, ZYXW, ZYXWV, ZYXWVU, ZYXWVUT, ZYXWVUTIS
Q.25 (b) First letters follow +3, +4, +5, +6. Second letters follow +4, +5, +6, +7
Q.26 (c) CAR and ARC
Q.27 (b) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.28 (c) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.29 (c) 1 5 7 5 1 3 9 5 9 1 5 3 7 3 1 5 9
Q.30 (a) 6th to the left of 18th from left = (18-6=) 12th from left = 9
Directions:(Q.1 to 5) study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1) If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
1) यदि सभी प्रतीकों को व्यवस्था से हटा दिया गया है, तो दी गई व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से ग्यारहवीं तत्व क्या होगा?
a) 9
b) G
c) D
d) 5
e) P
2) How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
2) दी गई व्यवस्था में ऐसे कितने प्रतीकों हैं जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक वर्णमाला द्वारा पीछा किया जाता है और तुरंत एक संख्या से पहले।
a) More than three
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
e) One
3) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
3) निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था चौदहवें के बाईं तरफ से दी गई छोर के छठे स्थान है
a) P
b) *
c) β
d) Z
e) 4
4) What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
4) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था के आधार पर निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या होना चाहिए?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
a) Ω 2 β
b) 6 % +
c) 6 % K
d) Ω X Z
e) & 8 +
5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
5) निम्न पांच में से चार उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में अपनी स्थिति के आधार पर एक निश्चित तरीके से समान हैं और इसलिए एक समूह बनाते हैं। वह कौन है जो उस समूह से संबंधित नहीं है?
a) T Ω 3
b) @ % 7
c) G 9 D
d) β 3 U
e) $ 9 Q
Directions (Q.6-10) : Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे स्वर हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को व्यंजन द्वारा तुरंत आगे किया जाता है और स्वर के बाद तुरंत।
a) None
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
e) Two
7) How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
7) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में वर्णित वर्णमालाओं की श्रृंखला में कितने ऐसे जोड़ी हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच उनके दोनों अक्षर (आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
8) On the basis of above series of alphabets DECK is written as BABE and BARS is written as CHSR, then how will JUMP be written?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
8) उपरोक्त श्रृंखलाओं के आधार पर DECK को BABE के रूप में लिखा गया है और BARS को CHSR के रूप में लिखा गया है, फिर JUMP कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
a) LIFJ
b) PRTV
c) LRFV
d) PITJ
e) None of these
9) On the basis of above series of alphabets if PJ is related to GI, EA is related to DO, then NF is related to:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
9) वर्णमालाओं की उपरोक्त श्रृंखला के आधार पर यदि PJ से GI संबंधित है, EA से DO संबंधित है, तो NF संबंधित है
a) JL
b) OL
c) TL
d) TO
e) None of these
10) Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the ninth from the left end of the above arrangement?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
10) उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से नौवें के बाईं ओर चौथे स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा है?
a) V
b) I
c) U
d) M
e) None of these
Directions (Q.11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) Which of the following is ninth to the left of twenty-one from the left end of the above arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से इक्कीस बायीं तरफ नौवां है?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
e) None of these
12) How many such 5’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by an odd digit and immediately preceded by an even digit ?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
12) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 5 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद विषम संख्या होता है और तुरंत पहले सम संख्या ।
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
13) How many such 1’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
13) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 1 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक पूर्ण वर्ग है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
14) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value more than four?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
14) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत अंक से पहले किया जाता है जिसमें चार से अधिक संख्यात्मक मान होते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
15) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement which of the following will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
15) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी संख्या सम को भी हटा दिया गया है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से दसवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 7
e) 9
16) Which of the following will come in place of the question mark?
16) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा होगा
ZX YV WS ? PJ
a) TO
b) TN
c) UO
d) SO
e) TP
17) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ABKC using each letter only once in each word? (All the four letters are to be used in the word)
17) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द एबीकेसी पत्रों के साथ प्रत्येक अक्षर में प्रत्येक बार एक बार केवल एक शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं? (सभी चार अक्षर शब्द में उपयोग किए जाने हैं।)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
18) Which of the following will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
18) निम्न में से कौन सी प्रश्न अंग्रेजी में वर्णानुक्रमिक क्रम के आधार पर निम्नलिखित अंक में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आएगा?
ZX US QO ? HF CA
a) LJ
b) MK
c) NL
d) KI
e) KJ
19) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘OLBT’ using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?
19) सभी अक्षरों का इस्तेमाल करते हुए ‘OLBT’ पत्रों के साथ कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं, लेकिन प्रत्येक शब्द में प्रत्येक अक्षर में केवल एक बार?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
20) If each vowel in the word BROUGHT is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be the fourth from the left?
20) अगर शब्द BROUGHT में प्रत्येक स्वर अंग्रेजी की वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है और प्रत्येक व्यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर से प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है, और उसके बाद वर्णित वर्णमाला वर्णानुक्रम में बाएं से दायां किए गए हैं , निम्न में से कौन बाएं से चौथा होगा?
a) V
b) P
c) G
d) Q
e) S
21) If each alternate letter in the word ‘MENTION’ starting with M is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letter is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?
21) यदि ‘MENTION’ शब्द में प्रत्येक वैकल्पिक अक्षर अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और बाकी प्रत्येक अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है तो कितने अक्षर अधिक दिखाई देंगे नई व्यवस्था में एक बार से?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) Four
22) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LABOUR’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
22) ‘LABOUR’ में कितने जोड़े पत्र हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच शब्द (उनके आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) के रूप में कई अक्षर हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
23) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘EWF’ using all the letters only once in each word?
23) प्रत्येक शब्द में केवल एक बार पत्रों का प्रयोग करके ‘EWF’ पत्रों की मदद से कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
24) What should come next in the letter series given below?
24) नीचे दिए गए पत्र श्रृंखला में क्या होना चाहिए?
Z Z Y Z Y X Z Y X W Z Y X W V Z Y X W V U Z Y X W V U T Z Y X W V U T
a) U
b) Z
c) R
d) T
e) None of these
25) Which of the following will come in place of question mark?
25) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा होगा?
AC DG HL ? SY
a) QU
b) MR
c) NS
d) NU
e) MS
26) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word?
26) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द ‘RCA’ से प्रत्येक अक्षर में एक बार शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Directions (Q.27 to 30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
27) How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of less than two?
27) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने 2 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक अंक से पहले दिया जाता है जिसमें दो से कम का एक संख्यात्मक मान होता है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
28) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square).
28) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक पूर्ण वर्ग का पीछा किया जाता है? (1 भी एक वर्ग है)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
29) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the right end of the arrangement?
29) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी अंक नष्ट किए जाते हैं, तो निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के सही अंत से आठवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 9
e) 7
30) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the eighteenth digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
30) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से अठारहवीं अंक के बाईं ओर छठे है?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 2
d) 6
e) None of these
Q1. (a) According to question, the new sequence would be:
2 X T 3 Z U 4 O P 9 Q G D 5 W J 6 8 K 7.
9 is 11th from the right.
Q2. (c) Such combination are 3*Z; 9$Q and 5#W
Q3. (c) 6th to the left 14th from the left means (14-6=) 8th from the left, ie,
Q4. (b)
Q5. (e)
Q6. (e) Such combinations are RUI : KEA
Q7. (d) Q S R U I V (4)
Q8. (a)
D E C K B A R S
+1 +1 -1 +1 +1 +1 -1 +1
B A B C C H S R
Similarly,
J U M P
+1 +1 -1 +1
L I F J
Q9. (c)
P +3 G
J -3 I
E +3 D
A -3 O
Therefore,
N +3 T
F -3 L
Q10. (b) 4th to the left of ninth from the left means 5th from the left, ie I.
Q11. (c) Ninth to the left of twentyfirst from the left end = (21-9=) 12th from the left end = 6
Q12. (d) 158, 152, 156
Q13.(b) 14
Q14.(c) 84, 74
Q15. (a) New arrangement 1 5 1 5 3 5 7 9 5 1 1 5 7 Hence, 10th from the right end is 5
Q16. The first set of letters follows -1, -2, -3, -4 and the second ones -2, -3, -4, -5
Q.17 (b) BACK
Q.18 (a) The series is going in reverse alphabetical order. In every pair there is a gap of one letter. Their after following rule follows between the consecutive pairs of letters:
Z -5 U -5 Q -5 L -4 H -5 C
X -5 S -4 0 -5 J -5 -4 F -5 A
Q.19 (a) BOLT
Q.20 (b) B R O U G H T
A Q P V F G S
Alphabetically – A F G P Q S V
Fourth from the left is P
Q.21 (c) M E N T I O N
N D O S J N O
N and O appear more than once in the new arrangement
Q.22 (c) L A B O U R
LO and AB are such pairs
Q.23 (b).’FEW’ is the only word possible
Q.24 (e) Z, ZY, ZYX, ZYXW, ZYXWV, ZYXWVU, ZYXWVUT, ZYXWVUTIS
Q.25 (b) First letters follow +3, +4, +5, +6. Second letters follow +4, +5, +6, +7
Q.26 (c) CAR and ARC
Q.27 (b) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.28 (c) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.29 (c) 1 5 7 5 1 3 9 5 9 1 5 3 7 3 1 5 9
Q.30 (a) 6th to the left of 18th from left = (18-6=) 12th from left = 9
Industrial Training Institute (ITI)
The main objective of these institutes is to develop a skilled workforce in the country. There are many ITIs across India both in public and private sectors providing professional training to students. Students are provided with the National Trade Certificate(NTC) after successful completion of the courses provided by ITIs.
Some of the courses are as follows.
Tool and Die Maker Engineering
Diesel Mechanic Engineering
Fitter Engineering
Turner engineering
Information Technology & E.S.M. Engineering
Machinist Engineering
Draughtsman (Mechanical) Engineering
Pump Operator
Motor Driving-cum-Mechanic Engineering
Dress making
Secretarial Practice
Fruit and Vegetable Processing
After completing 12th with science stream, there are a variety of options available for an undergraduate course. Students who have an interest in technical learning, they can choose engineering courses and the rest can choose from the courses listed below.
Science is one of the popular streams offering a wide range of technical courses. Here is the list of UG engineering courses for students who have completed their secondary education in science stream.
* You can also check the List of B. tech. Lateral Courses for diploma holders
‘What after 12th?’ is the common question among the generation of students studying in 12th every year the questions hit lakhs of students.
The confusion prevails among them concerning career prospects, job opportunities and yes, their passion, their preference.
Counselors say that the lack of proper information about the courses available in India and their career prospects, is somewhere responsible.
Science, Commerce and Arts are the options available in which students can find a suitable course to pursue after 12th.
Choosing a course shall never be a convenient option rather it should be a highly motivating choice for the students.
Interests, motivation, and goals are prime factors students must consider while choosing a course from the range of courses available in India to pursue after 12th.
Students can choose a course from top domains including –
Click here: https://ssc.digialm.com/EForms/configuredHtml/2207/64629/login.html
New Batch Start from May 1st Week.
Our aim for career counseling is to help students and professionals choose a field that is in tune with their skills and their job expectations.
With professional help candidates find ease at choosing the right career and perform their level best, which ultimately helps them succeed.
Career Counselling helps understand the career options that they have, and how to pursue them.
Career Counselling helps understand their own strengths and weaknesses with regard to their present course or profession, and lets them know what career they would be suited for.
Some signs that indicate that you should get help from a career counsellor today:
You are clueless about your goals in life.
You’ve just completed class 10th and are looking forward to selecting a new stream.
Now that class 12th is over, what options do you have for colleges or work opportunities?
You are now a college graduate but you’re not even close to deciding what to do next?
You’re in a job, maybe even doing well but you’re still unsatisfied.
You know what you want but feel lost with so many options.
You’ve got the talent but lack focus.
New Stenographer/Shorthand Online & Offline Batch Start From 19 April-21, Batch Time 5:30 to 6:30pm. In The particular batch start from foundation level to advance level. shorthand/steno. faculty by Omkar Dhage is the best level tutor for stenography. for more information call: 8080160826.
A system of fast writing that uses lines and simple signs to represent words and phrases.
Like Gregg shorthand, Pitman shorthand is phonemic: with the exception of abbreviated shapes called logograms, the forms represent the sounds of the English word, rather than its spelling or meaning. Unlike Gregg it is also partly featural, in that pairs of consonsant phonemes distinguished only by voice are notated with strokes differing only in thickness. There are twenty-four consonants that can be represented in Pitman’s shorthand, twelve vowels and four diphthongs. The consonants are indicated by strokes, the vowels by interposed dots.

Common words are represented by special outlines called logograms (or “Short Forms” in Pitman’s New Era). Words and phrases which have such forms are called grammalogues. Hundreds exist and only a tiny number are shown above. The shapes are written separately to show that they represent distinct words, but in common phrases (“you are”, “thank you”, etc.) two or three logograms may be joined together, or a final flick added to represent the.

The consonants in Pitman’s shorthand are pronounced bee, pee, dee, tee, jay, chay, gay, kay, vee, eff, thee, ith, zee, ess, zhee, ish, em, el, en, ray ar, ing, way, yay, and hay. When both an unvoiced consonant and its corresponding voiced consonant are present in this system, the distinction is made by drawing the stroke for the voiced consonant thicker than the one for the unvoiced consonant. (Thus s is ⟨)⟩ and z is ⟨)⟩.) There are two strokes for r: ar and ray. The former assumes the form of the top right-hand quarter of a circle (drawn top-down), whereas the latter is like chay ⟨/⟩, only less steep (drawn bottom to top). There are rules governing when to use each of these forms.
The long vowels in Pitman’s shorthand are: /ɑː/, /eɪ/, /iː/, /ɔː/, /oʊ/, and /uː/. The short vowels are /æ/, /ɛ/, /ɪ/, /ɒ/, /ʌ/, and /ʊ/. The long vowels may be remembered by the sentence, “Pa, may we all go too?”, and the short vowels may be remembered by the sentence, “That pen is not much good”
A vowel is represented by a dot or a dash, which can be written either lightly or heavily depending on the vowel needed. As this gives only four symbols, they can be written in three different positions – either at the beginning, middle or end of a consonant stroke – to represent the 12 vowels.
The dots and dashes representing long vowels are darker than the ones representing short vowels. For example, say is written as “)•”, but seh (if it did exist) would be written as “)·”; see is written as “).,
{\displaystyle ie\;\;\;^{\lor }\qquad oi\;\;\;^{\mathfrak {7}}\qquad ow\;\;\;_{\land }\qquad ew\;\;\;_{\cap }}There are four diphthongs in Pitman’s shorthand /aɪ/, /ɔɪ/, /aʊ/, /juː/, as in the words “I enjoy Gow’s music.” The first three appear as small checkmarks; the “ew” sound is written as a small arch. Both “ie” and “oi” are written in first position, while “ow” and “ew” are written in third position. In the same way, the whole outline is placed above, on or through the paper’s ruled line. If the diphthong is followed by a neutral vowel, a little flick is added.
Offline/Online Lecture start from 2 Nov. for SSC CGL, Steno. IBPS, RRB NTPC
for more details fill enquiry form:
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SSC Exam Calendar 2021 New Released: SSC has released new dates for SSC CGL, SSC CHSL, SSC JE, SSC MTS, SCC CPO, SSC JHT, SSC Stenographer Grade C& D, SSC Constable GD & Executive Exams for the year 2021. Staff Selection Commission (SSC) released the new examination calendar for the year 2021 at its official website – ssc.nic.in and has added new exam dates.
The examination calendar carries forth the important dates of all the important exams to be conducted by the commission in the year 2021. This is one of the easiest and convenient way that will help the SSC aspirants to check the dates and prepare as per the exam schedule. Date of Advertisement, Opening & Closing Date of Application and Date of Examination is included in the calendar with different columns along with the name of the examination maintained in a row
| Exam Name | Application Start – Closing Date | Date of Exam |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 (Tier-I)Click here for more info | 22nd October 2019 to 22nd November 2019 | 3rd to 9th March 2020 (CBE) |
| Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination-2019 (Tier-I) | 3rd December 2019 to 10th January 2020 | 17 to 19 March 2020 Conducted12th to 16th October 202019th to 21st October 202026th October 2020 |
| Junior Engineer (Civil, Electrical & Mechanical) Examination – 2019 (Paper-I) | 13th August 2019 to 12th September 2019 | 27th to 30th October 2020 |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 (Tier-II) | – | 2nd to 5th November 2020 |
| Examination for Selection Posts Phase-VIII/ 2020Click here for more info | 21st February to 20th March 2020 | 6th, 9th and 10th November 2020 |
| Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’ Examination – 2019Click here for more info | 20th September 2019 to 18th October 2019 | 16th Nov to 18th Nov 2020 |
| Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination-2020 (Paper-I) | 29th June 2020 to 25th July 2020 | 19th November 2020 |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 (Tier-III) | – | 22nd November 2020 |
| Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and CAPFs Examination-2020 (Paper-I) | 17th June to 16th July 2020 | 23rd Nov to 26th Nov 2020 |
| Constable (Executive) in Delhi Police Examination, 2020 | 1st August 2020 to 7th September 2020 | 27th Nov, 30th Nov, 1st Dec to 3rd Dec, 7th Dec to 11th Dec and 14th December 2020 |
| Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical and Quantity Surveying and Contract) Examination-2019 (Paper-II)Click here for more info | – | 31st January 2021 |
| Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination-2019 (Tier-II) | – | 14th Feb 2021 (Des) |
| Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination-2020 (Paper-II) | – | 14th Feb 2021 (Des) |
| Junior Engineer (Civil, Electrical & Mechanical) Examination – 2020 (Paper-I) | 1st Oct to 30th Oct 2020 | 22nd to 25th March 2021 |
| SI in Delhi Police, CAPFs and ASI in CISF Examination -2019 (Paper-II) | – | 26th March 2021 |
| Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’ Examination-2020 | 10th Oct to 4th Nov 2020 | 29th to 31st March 2021 |
| Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination-2020 (Tier-I) | 6th Nov to 15th Dec 2020 | 12th Apr to 27th Apr 2021 |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2020 (Tier-I) | 21st Dec 2020 to 25th Jan 2021 | 29th May to 7th June 2021 |
| Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and CAPFs Examination-2020 (Paper-II) | – | 12th July 2021 |
| Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Examination-2020 (Paper-I) | 2nd Feb to 18th March 2021 | 1st to 20th July 2021 |
| Constable (GD) in CAPFs, NIA, SSF and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles Examination, 2020 | 25th Mar to 10th May 2021 | 2nd to 25th Aug 2021 |
Note: CBE Stands for Computer Based Exam
The above schedule is subject to the prevailing conditions and Government guidelines issued from time to time regarding handling of the Covid-19 pandemic. We have compiled the important information and notifications related to all the SSC Exam mentioned above in Exam Calendar. Let’s have a look at all the Exam information in brief:
Shorthand is an abbreviated symbolic writing method that increases speed and brevity of writing as compared to longhand, a more common method of writing a language.
Course Duration: 4 Months Foundation
Batch Time: 7pm to 8pm
FEE and Admission Procedure Call: 8080160826
New batch for stenography and shorthand typing
SSC CGL CHSL MTS NTPC SBI IBPS and other Competitive Examinations.
Lecture mood Live online and Offline Class room. Top faculties and updated study material. For more visit our dadar Centre.
SSC CGL | CET Exam | IBPS | Banking | NTPC | Live Lecture | Classes in Dadar for Competitive Exams
Court reporters – also referred to as short hand reporters – are responsible for keeping written records of legal proceedings, whether in government, court, or private settings. The verbatim documentation in criminal, civil and other court proceedings requires professionals who are highly skilled and trained in court reporting, which usually involves stenography.
Court reporters may also find a wealth of professional opportunities in the fields of closed and real time captioning services, webcasting, and Communications Access Realtime Reporting (CART) reporting, all of which require expert stenographic skills. Voice writing, which involves speaking into a computer that then translates the words into written transcripts, is also another important field within court reporting.
IPCI going to start complete online zoom live batch for ssc cgl, Banking, NTPC and other competitive exams aspirants. Batch time are completely flexible for both students for those are working and normal students. Faculties details, Batch Time, fee and other details on website and telegram group within a few day.
New batch SSC CGL || Banking Exams || CHSL || MTS || Live Classes for CDS || Institute for competitive exams ||
Friends, Students and Parents,
Very warm welcome to all – In the situation of Covid 19, We have some time which we can successfully give for building our own self and on the same lines we are announcing the next batch of ENGLISH SPEAKING on 1st August 2021
We majorly focus on the basic methods to understanding, listening and speaking ENGLISH.
Focus is given and provided on easy tricks to speak with immediate thinking and speaking correctly.
Along with the same we look on Individual confidence building, communication and presentation skills.
Guidance is provided on Day to day phrases and occasions – also interview preparation.
The course validity is available through app – EXAM INSIGHT application for an year
On live lectures will run on alternate days.
https://youtu.be/PJc85SDhW30
English Speaking Batch starting on 1st August 2021 at 8pm on Exam Insight Application – Install from Playstore
STENOGRAPHY IS ALL ABOUT CONSISTEBCY
Consistency is the key to success . Consistency leads to habits .Habits form the action we take every day . Action leads to success . If you want to achieve success in anything you must be consistence about it .
Stenography also require consistency . Stick to it for 2 years with consistency hard work in the right direction and you will be through.
Now – what to do
• Do typing daily
• Transcribe daily- study daily – divide time as per the need.
• It should be full preparation for any exam which comes on your way.
• Apply in all vacancies even clerk or stenographer
• Appear with full preparation or if not prepared test yourself
• Keep yourself busy and occupied in the process
• Read newspaper or gk magazines
• Listen to the news daily
• Lay down your own daily target and achieve those
• At the end of the day analyse or audit yourself whether you have utilised your time effectively .
• If you are able to manage your day ,you can manage your life . Nobody can stop you from going ahead –only you can
Live English Speaking Course by Rujuta Kambli
A Transcription of a conversation or speech is a written text of it , based on a recording or notes . In this stage , first you have to transcribe the dictated notes and then type the transcription on a Computer .
– In stenography, transcription is the life –line for speed writers. Transcription is an important as the blood in our veins. Our body minus the blood is just a bundle of flesh.
– Transcription is the daily progress report about how one fares in a shorthand class of a particular range of speed and what is his worth for the competitive test.
– Transcription must be done daily . After taking dictation of the transcription , it must be first read thoroughly well after the class . Typing must be extremely neat .
– The student should develop a speechless love for his transcription because it is his/her art/skill ,it is his/her bread giver . The transcription produced by him/her should be like the rose among flowers whose fragrance should attract the employer .You should vow that “I shall do my transcription daily as I take my food daily .
– And I shall be second to none in the art/skill of producing fool –proof transcription “.
– The mistake should be properly marked with red ball pen.
But acquire so much accuracy in your transcription the percentage of mistake is never more then 0.5%
1) Treat it as test and not a formality
• Every transcription that we do daily shows us the status (mirror) about the progress of our
stenography .
• It needs to be treated as a test and needs to be taken seriously .
• We should write the dictation on a proper shorthand not-book with a sharp pencil or a pen
.
2) Read the dictation before you start typing
• Make it a point that every dictation needs to be read before you start typing .
• The reason is when we read it before typing, we understand he context and since the words are
fresh in our memory , we are able to apply our mind on difficult and substituted words.
• When we transcribe and type , t became smooth/fast we don’t have to go back again and again .
3) Try to understand the meaning
• The transcription should preferably be typed in double space and a print taken on a paper.
• Make a habit of understanding the meaning of the sentence /matter before you type.
• This will facilitate in prompt typing and also will have very less chance of missing the line/s .
• Also be careful about the punctuation .4) Mark the mistake honesty
• It is advisable to check and mark each mistake honestly without any concession, preferable with a red pen so that the same is clearly visible.
5) Take the mistake in the right spirit
• We learn a lot from daily transcription .
• It helps in continuous improvement in our output .
• Let’s not get discourage and not leave the transcription of a passage which is tough , as the
tough passage gives us an opportunity to learn more new words .
6) Adequate practice of words and phrases
• It is suggested to keep a physical record of all the transcription for future reference and monitor the progress .
• After we understand each and every mistake ,we need to do adequate practice of new words and phrases in the transcription .
• It is also suggested tore-write the same passage of transcription minimum 3-4 times or till we are sure of writing it perfectly
Why we need to polish upon speaking in English?
Is it really important to know how to speak in English – to understand English – to communicate in English..?
Yes my dear friends and students – along with your skills and technical ability it is important for one to know English. It is also considered as – Fluency in speaking English is directly proportional in increased salaries.
Expressing and articulating in English attracts better opportunities and job openings.
Thousands of graduates are forced to work on frontline sales, customer services, call centers, and even as delivery professionals. they understand the fact that they can earn well and this too because of believing that fluency in speaking English can achieve a professional upgrade. so if you are one of them do enroll to polish your skills.
https://youtu.be/swoR3ciDY5A
| Commencement of Call letter Download | 22 – 07 – 2021 |
| Closure of Call letter Download | 14 – 08 – 2021 |
IBPS RRB Office Assistant Call letter download
Topics Covered with details are mentioned below:
-Grammar Part -Vocabulary Part -Communication Skill -Presentation Skill -Body Language -Interview Preparations -Group Discussions -Personality Development -Concluding/Greeting ways -Daily conversations -English Phrases -English translations For registration Download the EXAM INSIGHT APP from play store:
Overview of the course All modules in the self development session. Interview - Job related/Corporate/Govt positions Other Benefits and details. The main Objective for scession: How to mentally prepare for Insterview.
IPCI going to start complete online zoom live batch for ssc cgl, Banking, NTPC and other competitive exams aspirants. Batch time are completely flexible for both students for those are working and normal students. Faculties details, Batch Time, fee and other details on website and telegram group.
New batch SSC CGL || Banking Exams || CHSL || MTS || Live Classes for CDS || Institute for competitive exams ||SBI Live Prepration
English Speaking by Rujuta Kambli: How to self introduce yourself at meeting, in Interview and with Friends:
There are many way to introduce yourself in interview, at meeting and with friends Circle.
https://youtu.be/eAzHEnE9kLo
English Speaking Course mumbai | Self Introduction for Job Interview
Complete Guidence For English Speaking Join us: https://t.me/liveenglisheducator
NRA CET 2021-2022 Common Eligibility Test by NRA – SSC, IBPS & RRB Vacancy CET Exam 2021 Syllabus, Pattern & Notification
Common Eligibility Test is a national-level combined competitive exam which will be conducted by a newly set up multi-agency body National Recruitment Agency to shortlist candidates at the primary (Tier-I) level for Non-Gazetted, non-technical Group ‘B’, Group ‘C’ posts of the central government.
NRA CET 2021 Key Highlights
-NTA CET exam will start from 2021 onwards.
-CET will be a single preliminary exam
-There will be three levels of CET Exams (10th, 12th & Graduate)
-NRA CET Scorecard valid for 3 years
-Get Jobs in State Govt, PSU, Private Companies based on CET Score.
-NRA is an autonomous body
-CET Syllabus & Pattern would be decided by NRA
-The CET score will be shared with all the central government recruiting agencies.
-Two CET Exam per year
-Minimum 1 exam center in every district.
-Unlimited Number of Attempts to improve CET score.
NRA CET Score Card Valid For:
-Staff Selection Commission (SSC),
-Railway Recruitment Board (RRB), and
-Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Eligibility for 10th Pass Jobs CET Exam
-Nationality – Candidates must be citizens of India
-Age Limit – Candidates should be aged between 18 and 23 years
Educational Qualification – Candidates must have passed Class 10 from a recognized board. Candidates appearing for their qualifying examination (Class 10) are not eligible for the exam
Eligibility for 12th Pass Jobs CET Exam
-Nationality – Candidates must be citizens of India
-Age Limit – Candidates should be aged between 20 and 25 years –Educational Qualification – Candidates must have passed the Class 12th/ Senior Secondary Board Exam from a recognized board.
Eligibility for Graduate Level Jobs CET Exam
-Nationality – Candidates must be citizens of India
-Age Limit – Candidates should be aged between 20 and 32 years
-Educational Qualification – the candidate must be a Graduate Degree from a recognized University/Institution.
NRA CET Exams Details | Govt. Exams CET | SSC CGL CHSL |
At present time stenographer is the most demanding job in the government. sector and competition is quite low. the best preparation time for a student to stenographer course after 12th completed. The stenography course is in three different languages English(Primary), Hindi(Secondary) and Local Language like marathi, Gujrati etc.Course
Duration: 4 to 5 months.
Age Eligibility: 18 and onwards.
Job Profile: Steno post in High Court, Menistrial Office, GST Dept. State Govt. Office.Min Salary: 35000.
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Stenographer Classes | Shorthand Course Details | the best Institute for Shorthand |
A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 27 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
SSC Stenographer Exam Pattern for computer Based test
The Computer Based Test of SSC Stenographer comprises three sections: General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness and English Language and Comprehension. The General Intelligence & Reasoning and General Awareness sections carry 50 questions each while the English Language and Comprehension section comprise 100 questions. Total marks allotted to General Intelligence & Reasoning and General Awareness sections are 50 each while the English Language and Comprehension section carry 100 marks. Candidates will be given two hours to complete the exam.
SSC Stenographer Marking Scheme
The marking scheme is given below.
SSC Stenographer Exam Pattern for Skill Test
Candidates for this stage are shortlisted based on their performance in the skill test. In this test, candidates will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English or Hindi which they need to type at the speed of 100 words per minute (w.p.m) for the post of Stenographer Grade C and 80 w.p.m for Stenographer Grade D post. Candidates need to type the dictation on the computer.
STENOGRAPHY IS ALL ABOUT CONSISTENCY
Consistency is the key to success . Consistency leads to habits .Habits form the action we take every day . Action leads to success . If you want to achieve success in anything you must be consistence about it .
Stenography also require consistency . Stick to it for 2 years with consistency hard work in the right direction and you will be through.
A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria:
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 27 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
NRA CET 2021-2022 Common Eligibility Test by NRA – SSC, IBPS & RRB Vacancy CET Exam 2021 Syllabus, Pattern & Notification
Important Points:
-NRA CET 2021 Key Highlights
-NTA CET exam will start from 2021 onwards.
-CET will be a single preliminary exam
-There will be three levels of CET Exams (10th, 12th & Graduate)
-NRA CET Scorecard valid for 3 years
-Get Jobs in State Govt, PSU, Private Companies based on CET Score.
-NRA is an autonomous body
-CET Syllabus & Pattern would be decided by NRA
-The CET score will be shared with all the central government recruiting agencies.
-Two CET Exam per year
-Minimum 1 exam center in every district.
-Unlimited Number of Attempts to improve CET score.
Features:
Efficient, committed and excellent organization
-Healthy & competitive environment
-Highly qualified, experienced and dedicated faculty
-Innumerous short-cuts and tricks
-Periodic motivational counseling
-Regular doubt remedial classes
-Lectures on each and every topic
-Scientifically designed, sufficiently clear and precise up to date study material
-Sufficient number of mock test papersite
#ssccgl #ibps #sscgd #ibpspo #IBPS SO #CDS #NDA @ipcimain
For more details call: 8080160826
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IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure:
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is conducting Common Written Examination (CRP PO/MT) for the recruitment of Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee vacancies in Public Sector Banks which will be conducted online. IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure details are mentioned below.
Selection Process:
The IBPS PO/MT selection process will be carried out in three stages, the first one is Preliminary Examination, second stage is Main Examination & third stage is Common Interview conducted by IBPS.
Online Examination:
Examination will be conducted in two tier i.e. the online examination will be held in two phases, preliminary and main which consists of objective type questions. Total marks of the Preliminary exam is 100 and duration is 1 hour & total marks on Main exam is 200 marks and duration is 2 hours. There will be Negative Marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. If a question is left blank, there will be no negative marking for that question. All the tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi. The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method. Scores up to two decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations. Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview.
Common Interview:
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the examination for CRP PO/MT-VIII will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Bank in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CRP Main exam and interview will be 80:20 respectively. The combined final scores of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in CRP PO/MT-VIII and Interview. A candidate should qualify both in the CRP and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process.
Allotment:
On completion of the interview process, depending on the vacancies to be filled in during the financial year 2018-19 based on the business needs of the Participating Organisations and as reported to IBPS, candidates shortlisted will be provisionally allotted to one of the Participating Organisations, based on merit-cum-preference keeping in view the spirit of Govt. Guidelines on reservation policy, various guidelines issued by Govt. of India/ Others from time to time, administrative exigency, etc.
In the event of two or more candidates having obtained the same score, merit order is decided as per date of birth (the candidate senior in age is placed before/ above the candidate junior in age), as per the prevailing practice.
IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure:
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is conducting Common Written Examination (CRP PO/MT) for the recruitment of Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee vacancies in Public Sector Banks which will be conducted online. IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure details are mentioned below.
Selection Process:
The IBPS PO/MT selection process will be carried out in three stages, the first one is Preliminary Examination, second stage is Main Examination & third stage is Common Interview conducted by IBPS.
Online Examination:
Examination will be conducted in two tier i.e. the online examination will be held in two phases, preliminary and main which consists of objective type questions. Total marks of the Preliminary exam is 100 and duration is 1 hour & total marks on Main exam is 200 marks and duration is 2 hours. There will be Negative Marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. If a question is left blank, there will be no negative marking for that question. All the tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi. The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method. Scores up to two decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations. Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview.
Common Interview:
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the examination for CRP PO/MT-VIII will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Bank in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CRP Main exam and interview will be 80:20 respectively. The combined final scores of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in CRP PO/MT-VIII and Interview. A candidate should qualify both in the CRP and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process.
Allotment:
On completion of the interview process, depending on the vacancies to be filled in during the financial year 2018-19 based on the business needs of the Participating Organisations and as reported to IBPS, candidates shortlisted will be provisionally allotted to one of the Participating Organisations, based on merit-cum-preference keeping in view the spirit of Govt. Guidelines on reservation policy, various guidelines issued by Govt. of India/ Others from time to time, administrative exigency, etc.
In the event of two or more candidates having obtained the same score, merit order is decided as per date of birth (the candidate senior in age is placed before/ above the candidate junior in age), as per the prevailing practice.
-Efficient, committed and excellent organization
-Healthy & competitive environment
-Highly qualified, experienced and dedicated faculty
-Innumerous short-cuts and tricks
-Periodic motivational counseling
-Regular doubt remedial classes
-Lectures on each and every topic
-Scientifically designed, sufficiently clear and precise up to date study material
-Sufficient number of mock test papersite
-Efficient, committed and excellent organization
-Healthy & competitive environment
-Highly qualified, experienced and dedicated faculty
-Innumerous short-cuts and tricks
-Periodic motivational counseling
-Regular doubt remedial classes
-Lectures on each and every topic
-Scientifically designed, sufficiently clear and precise up to date study material
-Sufficient number of mock test papers
SSC CGL Exam Syllabus: Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Combined Graduate Level Examination will be conducted in phases. Tier I & Tier II Exam syllabus details are given below…..
Syllabus for Combine Graduate Level Tier-I Examination:
A. General Intelligence & Reasoning : It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern –folding & un-folding, Figural Pattern – folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.
B. General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.
C. Quantitative Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart
D. English Comprehension: Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested.
Note: The questions in Parts A, B, & D will be of a level commensurate with the essential qualification viz. Graduation and questions in Part C will be of 10th standard level.
Syllabus for Combine Graduate Level (Tier-II ) Examination:
Paper-I : Quantitative Ability : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart
Paper-II : English Language & Comprehension: Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.
Paper-III : Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation & Compiler in RGI. Collection Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data – Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions.
Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency – mean median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.
Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range, quartile deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation;Measures of relative dispersion.
Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.
Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression lines; Spearman’s rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).
Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes’ theorem. Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability functions; Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial , Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable (discrete).
Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and non-probability sampling techniques(simple random sampling, stratified sampling, multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only); Sample size decisions.
Statistical Inference – Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals.
Analysis of Variance – Analysis of one-way classified data and two-way classified data.
Time Series Analysis – Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by different methods,
Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods.
Index Numbers – Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.
Paper IV: General Studies (Finance and Economics) for the post of Assistant Audit Officer in Indian Audit & Accounts Department under CAG.
Part A: Finance and Accounts-(80 marks)
1. Fundamental principles and basic concept of Accounting.
Financial Accounting: Nature and scope, Limitations of Financial Accounting, Basic concepts and Conventions, Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
Basic concepts of accounting: Single and double entry, Books of original Entry,
Bank Reconciliation, Journal, ledgers, Trial Balance, Rectification of Errors,
Manufacturing, Trading, Profit & loss Appropriation Accounts, Balance Sheet
Distinction between Capital and Revenue Expenditure, Depreciation Accounting,
Valuation of Inventories, Non-profit organisations Accounts, Receipts and Payments and Income & Expenditure Accounts, Bills of Exchange, Self Balancing Ledgers.
Part B: Economics and Governance-(120 marks)
2. Comptroller & Auditor General of India- Constitutional provisions, Role and responsibility
3. Finance Commission-Role and functions
4. Basic Concept of Economics and introduction to Micro Economics
Definition, scope and nature of Economics, Methods of economic study and Central problems of an economy and Production possibilities curve
5. Theory of Demand and Supply
Meaning and determinants of demand, Law of demand and Elasticity of demand, Price, income and cross elasticity; Theory of consumer’s behaviour Marshallian approach and Indifference curve approach, Meaning and determinants of supply, Law of supply and Elasticity of Supply.
6. Theory of Production and cost
Meaning and Factors of production; Laws of production- Law of variable proportions and Laws of returns to scale.
7. Forms of Market and price determination in different markets
Various forms of markets-Perfect Competition, Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition and Oligopoly ad Price determination in these markets
8. Indian Economy
Nature of the Indian Economy Role of different sectors-Role of Agriculture, Industry and Services-their problems and growth;
National Income of India-Concepts of national income, Different methods of measuring national income.
Population-Its size, rate of growth and its implication on economic growth
Poverty and unemployment- Absolute and relative poverty, types, causes and incidence of unemployment.
Infrastructure-Energy, Transportation, Communication.
9. Economic Reforms in India
Economic reforms sice 1991; Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation and Disinvestment.
10. Money and Banking
Monetary/ Fiscal policy- Role and functions of Reserve Bank of India; functions of commercial Banks/ RRB/ Payment Banks Budget and Fiscal deficits and Balance of payments Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.
11. Role of Information Technology in Governance.
SSC CGL Course Details | Mock Test | Live Classes & Institite
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A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 30 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
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SSC MTS Syllabus Details: Staff Selection Commission (SSC) recruits Group C posts of Multi Tasking Staff (MTS) in Different States and Union Territories. The following are the Syllabus details to apply for the SSC MTS Vacancies.
Syllabus:
Paper-I: Questions on ‘General Intelligence and Reasoning’ will be non-verbal considering the functions attached to the post. Questions on Numerical Aptitude and General English will be simple, of a level that an average matriculate will be in a position to answer comfortably. Questions on General Awareness will be also of similar standard.
General Intelligence: It would include questions of non-verbal type. The test will include questions on similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, figure classification, arithmetical number series, nonverbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.
English Language: Candidates’ understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested.
Numerical Aptitude: This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers, Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, etc.
General Awareness: Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.
NOTE: For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability and opting for SCRIBE there will be no component of Maps/Graphs/Diagrams/Statistical Data in the General Intelligence & Reasoning / General Awareness Paper.
Paper-II: The Paper will be set in English and Hindi and to the extent possible in other languages mentioned in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution, to test basic language skills commensurate with the educational qualification prescribed for the post. Candidates will be required to write one short essay/letter in English and Hindi each. Candidates can opt to write the essay/letter in any Indian languag included in the 8th schedule of Constitution.
Hello Dear students Logical Reasoning Quiz-2 is live on your Exam Insight Mobile App and Website. the quiz-2 is completely based on coding-decoding topic which is most important for your all upcoming competitive examination. the number of question in this quiz is 15 with report of correct or not and the most important thing for attempting quizzes to accuracy of answer to the question with stipulated time. Click here to join Quiz:
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STENOGRAPHY IS ALL ABOUT CONSISTENCY
Consistency is the key to success . Consistency leads to habits .Habits form the action we take every day . Action leads to success . If you want to achieve success in anything you must be consistence about it .
Stenography also require consistency . Stick to it for 2 years with consistency hard work in the right direction and you will be through.
A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 27 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
Hello Dear students
Today’s English Quiz is live on your Exam Insight Mobile App and Website. the English Quiz is cover all news, upcoming event and their theme related question which is related to all competitive examinations.
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SSC CGL Exam Pattern & Syllabus 2020-21
Tier-1 Exam Pattern:
An exam is objective type and will be conducted online.
The question paper will be divided into 4 sections: (1) General Intelligence & Reasoning, (2) General Awareness / General knowledge, (3) Quantitative Aptitude and (4) English Comprehension.
There are 100 questions for 200 marks and the exam duration will be 60 minutes.
There will be negative marking of 0.50 marks for each wrong answer.
Tier-2 Exam Pattern:
The exam is objective type and will be conducted online.
There are 4 papers, (Paper-1) Quantitative Ability, (Paper-2) English Language and Comprehension, (Paper-3) Statistics and (Paper-4) General Studies (Finance & Economics).
Paper-1 & 2 is compulsory for all posts and Paper-3 is only for the post of “Statistical Investigator Gr. II” & “Compiler” and Paper-4 is only for the post of “Assistant Audit Officer”.
Each paper carries 200 marks and exam duration is 2 hours for each paper.
There will be negative marking for each wrong answer, negative marking of 0.50 marks in Paper-1, Paper-3 & Paper-4 and negative marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-2.
Tier-3 Exam Pattern:
The exam carries 100 marks and exam duration is 60 minutes and exam duration will be 80 minutes for “VH” and “Cerebral Palsy” candidates
Candidates need to write Essay / Précis / Letter / Application Writing etc.
.Exam is a descriptive type and will conduct offline.
IRDAI – to Set up Hubs on Motor, Property Insurances and Sets Norms for Surety Cover
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has decided to set up two hubs, one on motor insurance at ‘Institute of Insurance and Risk Management (IIRM), the other on property insurance at ‘National Insurance Academy (NIA)’ to promote loss prevention measures in the general insurance industry. IRDAI also decided to form an advisory committee under the chairmanship of the NIA director to create a repository of past risk inspection reports and develop standard survey/inspection report formats.
Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) and New India Assurance continued to be identified by Insurance Regulator and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) for 2021-22.
Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India has inaugurated “Digi Zone”, at Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai, Maharashtra, as part of its effort to enhance its digital footprint. LIC’s Digi Zone can be used by the customers to purchase policies online, pay the premium and avail of other services.
Ministry of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs (Budget Division), has maintained the status quo and retained the Interest Rate of Small Savings Scheme unchanged for the 4th Quarter (Q4) for the Financial Year 2021-22 (FY22) (i.e. from January 2022 to March 2022) same as Q3 FY22, due to the rising cases of COVID-19 variant Omicron and elevated level of inflation.
The interest rates on various small savings instruments such as Public Provident Fund (PPF), National Savings Certificate (NSC), term deposits in post offices, etc remain unchanged from Q2 FY21 (around 7 quarters). Click here for Interest Rates on Small Savings Instruments for Q4 FY22.
Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) Fullerton India and One97 Communications, parent company of Paytm, have joined hands to provide lending products to merchant partners and consumers.Under this partnership, Paytm Postpaid/buy-now-pay-later or innovative merchant loan products will be offered to consumers on the Paytm platform while utilising Fullerton’s risk assessment capabilities, and understanding of the segment.
Indian Government offered a USD 500 million Line of Credit (LOC) to help Sri Lanka for purchase of petroleum products as it is struggling with fuel and energy crisis.This support is extended through a letter by Union Minister Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) to the Foreign Minister of Sri Lanka, Prof. Gamini Lakshman Peiris.
In January 2022, Nippon Life India Asset Management Limited (NAM India), the asset manager of Nippon India Mutual Fund (NIMF) launched a New Fund Offer (NFO) for Nippon India Nifty Auto Exchange Traded Fund (ETF). It is India’s First Auto sector ETF.
NPCI Bharat BillPay Limited (NBBL), the wholly-owned subsidiary of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), launched a Unified Presentment Management System (UPMS), which will enable users to set up standing instructions on their recurring bill payments across all modes of digital payments.
The bills will be automatically fetched from the billers and presented to customers for their action, in terms of auto-debit and bill payment management.
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and Reliance Jio collaborated to announce the introduction of Unified Payment Interface (UPI) Autopay for the telecom industry.Through this collaboration, Reliance Jio has become the 1st telecom company to launch a UPI autopay facility for both prepaid and postpaid subscribers.
NPCI sets standardized limits for cash withdrawals and mini statements on AePS transactions In order to make Aadhaar enabled Payments Systems (AePS) more standardized, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has introduced limits for cash withdrawals and mini statements which needs to implement by the acquiring banks by January 15, 2022. As per the guidelines, the acquiring banks will have to implement a maximum limit of five approved cash withdrawal transactions per customer per terminal per day.
Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN) got the Category I licence for inter-state trading in electricity in India, which was granted by the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC). SJVN has a portfolio of more than 16,000 megawatt (MW), out of which 2,016.5 MW is under operation.
An entity or person applying for a Category `I` trading licence should have net worth of Rs 50 crore and should have maintained minimum current ratio and liquidity ratio of 1:1.
Shrinithi Capital Private (Pvt) Limited (Ltd), a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) which primarily focuses on commercial vehicle & two-wheeler loans, tied-up with IndoStar Capital Finance Ltd to focus on co-lending facilities.
Yes Asset Management has been renamed as the White Oak Capital Asset Management with effect from 12th January 2022. In line with this, Yes Mutual Fund has been renamed as White Oak Capital Mutual Fund.In November 2021, the White Oak Capital group announced the completion of the transaction to acquire the mutual fund business of Yes Bank.
The Torus Kling Blockchain IFSC, an equal joint venture between Cosmea Financial Holdings and Kling Trading India signed a MoU with India INX to launch the first Bitcoin and Ethereum Futures exchange traded funds (ETFs) in India.
These funds will become India’s first crypto backed futures outside of the United States (US).
Marwadi Financial Services has joined hands with NSDL Payments Bank to offer 3-in-1 savings bank account with features of savings, demat (Dematerialised Account) and trading accounts to boost its customer experience. This partnership will also allow NSDL Payments Bank to access Marwadi’s clients and expand its customer base.
Indifi Technologies has joined hands with Alphabet’s UPI (Unified Payments Interface)-based payment app, Google Pay (GPay), to offer instant loans to eligible small merchants on the GPay platform.The loans will be in the range of Rs 2.5 to Rs 3 lakh.
Alphaniti, a Fintech company, partnered with IIFL Securities to allow investors to invest and trade in stock offerings.
The aim of the partnership is to allow direct investments by offering high-quality products at affordable costs through big data, deep domain expertise and technology for both India and the US markets across multiple asset classes.
Paytm Money, a wholly owned subsidiary of the digital finance platform ‘Paytm’, has launched India’s first intelligent messenger named ‘’Pop’’ to provide instant updates to track users’ investments in the stock market. “Pop” provides specific information related to their stock, portfolio analysis, market news, and important market movements all in one place and easily available to its users.
E-commerce platform Snapdeal has partnered with Bank of Baroda (BOB) Financial Solutions Limited, a subsidiary of BoB, and National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to launch a co-branded contactless RuPay credit card.
MobiKwik, a mobile wallet Fintech company, partnered with NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd. (NBBL) to launch ‘ClickPay’ service to its customers. With this, the customers of MobiKwik can pay recurring online bills, such as mobile, gas, water, electricity, DTH, insurance and loan EMIs using their mobile phone.
National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) has emerged as the world’s largest derivatives exchange for the third consecutive year in 2021 in terms of the number of contracts traded, based on the statistics maintained by the Futures Industry Association (FIA).As per the statistics maintained by the World Federation of Exchanges (WFE) for 2021, the NSE exchange was ranked 4th by the number of trades in cash equities.
Hitachi Payment Services partnered with Indipaisa to develop a new Fintech platform for India’s 63 million Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).The objective of the partnership is to offer a high- quality digital platform for fintech services at affordable prices for the Indian MSME market.
Max Life Insurance Company Limited (Max Life) has partnered with Policybazaar.com to offer its ‘Max Life Smart Secure Plus Plan’ on Policybazaar platform as an independent Insurance cover to homemakers. At present homemakers in India are allowed for term insurance cover only as an add-on to their earning spouse’s cover.
FAARMS, the Agri-tech start-up, partners with Reliance General Insurance Company Ltd. (RGICL) and introduced customized digital insurance solutions for the rural population especially the farmers. The partnership will enable the farmers and any individual from rural areas to easily access and choose from a range of health and cattle insurance on the FAARMS app through their smartphones.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved Fino Payments Bank for commencing international remittance business under the Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS). The approval will enable the customers of Fino Payments Bank to receive money sent from foreign countries. The money remitted by family members abroad can be directly withdrawn at the nearest micro-ATM or Aadhaar-Enabled Payment Services (AEPS) enabled Fino Bank’s neighbourhood merchant point.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a framework for facilitating small-value digital payments in offline mode using cards, wallets, mobile devices, etc, to push digital transactions in rural and semi-urban areas.The upper limit of an offline payment transaction was fixed at Rs 200, with a total limit on a payment instrument be at Rs 2,000 at any point in time.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted a Scheduled Payment Bank status to Airtel Payments Bank by including it into the Second Schedule to the RBI Act, 1934. With this inclusion, it becomes the 4th payment bank to get this status. This status will help Airtel Payments Bank to explore new central and state government business opportunities, including participation in government-issued Request for Proposals (RFP), and primary auctions, along with participation in government-operated welfare schemes.
To provide liquidity in the secondary market, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the market-making scheme to promote retail participation in Government Securities (G-Secs) by providing prices/quotes to Retail Direct Gilt Account Holders (RDGAHs) enabling them to buy/sell securities under the RBI Retail Direct (RBI-RD) Scheme.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cancelled the Certificate of Authorisation (CoA) of two Payment System Operators (PSOs) – Muthoot Vehicle & Asset Finance, and Eko India Financial Services for non- compliance with regulatory requirements.The CoA was cancelled by RBI on 31st December 2021, in the exercise of the powers conferred on it under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the eligibility criteria for entities to be categorised as ‘Specified User’ of Credit Information Companies (CICs). The eligible criteria are issued under clause (j) of Regulation 3 of the CICs (Amendment) Regulations, 2021.In November 2021, RBI notified CICs (Amendment) Regulations, 2021 to amend the CICs Regulations, 2006.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the threshold limit for Banks to maintain the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) on deposits and other ‘extension of funds’ received from non-financial small business customers from Rs 5 crore to Rs 7.5 crore.
In January 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sets up a separate internal department for fintech (Financial technology) by subsuming the fintech division of DPSS (department of payment and settlement systems), Central Office (CO). to facilitate innovation, and help identify, address challenges and opportunities in the fintech sector.
The department will be administratively attached to the centralised administrative division (CAD) of RBI.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the validity of its directions by 4 months for Sri Guru Raghavendra Sahakara Bank Niyamitha, Bengaluru (Karnataka) i.e., till May 10, 2022 from January 11, 2022.The directions have been issued under Section 35A read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation (BR) Act, 1949.
RBI brought the bank under Directions in the interest of depositor protection on January 2, 2020, the validity of which was extended from time to time.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the Annual Report of the Ombudsman Schemes for 2020-21, which has been prepared for the 9-month period, i.e., July 1, 2020, to March 31, 2021, in alignment with the change in the Financial Year of RBI from ‘July – June’ to ‘April – March’ with effect from July 1, 2020.The Annual Report covers the activities under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006 (BOS), the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies, 2018 (OSNBFC) and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions, 2019 (OSDT).
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the RBI – Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) for September 2021, as per the index the digital payments increased by 39.64 percent to 304.06 as against 217.74 in September 2020. It is the index launched by RBI in January 2021 with March 2018 as the base period (ie. DPI score for March 2018 is set at 100) to identify the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. The index will be released semi-annually with a lag of 4 months.
It is the index launched by RBI in January 2021 with March 2018 as the base period (ie. DPI score for March 2018 is set at 100) to identify the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. The index will be released semi-annually with a lag of 4 months.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the following regulations after exercising its powers conferred under the Factoring Regulation Act, 2011.
It permits all existing non-deposit taking Non-Banking Finance Company-Investment and Credit Companies (NBFC-ICCs) with asset size of Rs 1,000 crore and above to undertake factoring business, subject to certain conditions.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted an Overnight variable rate reverse repo (VRRR) auction for Rs 50,000 crore under liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) to infuse liquidity, instead of its usual fixed-rate overnight reverse repo window, as Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection tightened liquidity this week.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) offered overnight liquidity to the banking system of India with Rs.75,000 crore against banks bid of around Rs 1.37 lakh crore through variable rate repo (VRR) auction under Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and 25th January 2022 will be the date of reversal.
Reserve Bank of India imposed several restrictions on Indian Mercantile Cooperative Bank Limited, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh including a cap of Rs 1 lakh on withdrawals.RBI issued the directions in the exercise of powers vested in it under sub section (1) of Section 35 A read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies), 1949.
SBI PO Syllabus details:
SBI PO Syllabus is of Three Phases 1. Preliminary Examination 2. Main Examination and 3. Group Exercises & Interview.
I. Preliminary Examination: This Exam is consisting of 3 Sections as follows…
1. English Language
2. Quantitative Aptitude
3. Reasoning Ability
II. Main Examination: This is consisting of 2 papers as
a. Objective paper: This paper consists of 4 sections such as
1. Test of Reasoning & Computer Aptitude.
2. Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation.
3. Test of General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness.
4. Test of English Language.
b. Descriptive Paper: This paper is consisting of Letter Writing and Essay.
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Website : https://ipci.co.in/
LOANS ISSUED BY BANKS
| LOANS ISSUED BY | RECEIVED BY | AMOUNT | KEY NOTES |
| Reserve Bank of India | Sri Lanka | US$ 900 million | Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended over US$ 900 million loan facilities to Sri Lanka, comprising Asian Clearing Union (ACU) settlement of over USD 500 million and currency Swap of USD 400 million.This funding will aid Sri Lanka to overcome forex crisis and shortage of almost all essential commodities due to a shortage of dollars to pay for the imports.It will be utilized to build up its depleted foreign reserves and for food imports. |
| World Bank | West Bengal | USD 125 million (around Rs 1,000 crore) | To support its effort towards social protection service access to the poor and vulnerable groups.The loan will be sanctioned under the ‘WB Building State Capability for Inclusive Social Protection’ operation which will strengthen the access to social assistance and targeted service for poor and vulnerable groups. The Headquarters of World Bank is Washington, D.C., United States. |
RBI & World bank Loan
| BANKS | SIGNED WITH | KEY NOTES |
| HDFC Bank and Excelpoint Systems India Pvt. Ltd. | STPINEXT | AIC STPINEXT Initiatives (STPINEXT), a special purpose vehicle of Software Technology Parks of India (STPI), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), has signed two Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs), one with HDFC Bank and the other with Excelpoint Systems India Pvt. Ltd. to enhance the tech startup ecosystem in India. Both HDFC Bank and Excelpoint Systems will support the startups through technical guidance and assistance, mentoring, pitching to investors, funding support, and market connect & access. |
| Karnataka Vikas Grameena(KVG) Bank (KVGB) | Mecwin Technologies(Tech) Ltd | A Regional Rural Bank (RRB), Karnataka Vikas Grameena(KVG) Bank (KVGB), has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based Mecwin Technologies(Tech) Ltd to introduce farmer-friendly solar-powered pump-sets using bank finance. Solar-powered pump-sets will replace diesel pump- sets resulting in reduced carbon emissions. The headquarters of Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank (KVGB) is Dharwad, Karnataka |
| Indian Bank | Edelweiss Financial Services and ECL Finance | Edelweiss Financial Services and ECL Finance signed a co- lending agreement with Indian Bank to expand services under priority sector lending (PSL). The co-lending agreement will help in expanding the portfolio of lending products and will ultimately increase credit access. The Headquarters of Indian Bank is Chennai, Tamil Nadu. |
| National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) | Arthimpact Digital Loans (ARTH) | Signed a partnership agreement to provide end-to-end fintech (financial technology) solutions to support self-help groups (SHGs). ARTH will provide credit, payments and insurance solutions support to micro-MSME enterprises. |
| ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC) | First Trust Advisors | ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC) signed an agreement with First Trust Advisors, an US-based company to launch a global Fund of Funds (FoF). Under the agreement, the ICICI Prudential AMC will launch a strategic metal & energy equity FoF. It invests in offshore funds of First Trust Advisors.The ICICI Prudential strategic metal & energy equity FoF will open for subscription on January 17 and will close on January 31, 2022. |
| Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) | Gujarat International Finance Tec-city – Special Economic Zone (GIFT SEZ) Limited | A wholly-owned subsidiary of GIFT-City, to improve customer’s overall financial services offerings. KMBL and GIFT SEZ will jointly work on promoting the GIFT International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) jurisdiction for Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) structures, holding seminars and knowledge series, ease of doing business along with Global Custody Services. The headquarters of Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) is Mumbai, Maharashtra. |
| NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) | TerraPay | NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL), international arm of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with TerraPay, the Netherlands-based global payments infrastructure company.This partnership will allow Indians with an active UPI (Unified Payments Interface) ID to receive real-time, international payments into their bank accounts via TerraPay’s fully regulated, secure, scalable and efficient channel. |
MoU Between Banks
Aspirants must go through SSC CGL previous year question papers to prepare themselves well, since, there is very little time left to prepare for the SSC CGL exam 2020-21. SSC CGL previous year papers will indicate the nature of questions being asked in the exam, gives the idea of SSC CGL syllabus and the changing trend of SSC CGL question paper. Complete paper to download link below:
(a) 100m (b) 120m(c) 140m (d) 160m
25. Which of the following set of instructions will take him to a position which is North from his starting point?
(a) FEB (b) BAD (c) FDC (d) None of these
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a)
Here providing syllabus for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) i.e. Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Junior Time Keeper, Trains Clerk, Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Traffic Assistant, Goods Guard, Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Senior Clerk cum Typist, Junior Account Assistant cum Typist, Senior Time Keeper, Commercial Apprentice and Station Master in various Zonal Railways and Production Units of Indian Railways.
The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:
a. Mathematics:
Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics etc.
b. General Intelligence and Reasoning:
Analogies, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.
c. General Awareness:
Current Events of National and International Importance, Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and World, Flagship Government Programs, Flora and Fauna of India, Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) reconstituted 20 members Market Data Advisory Committee (MDAC) to recommend policy measures in areas like securities market data access and privacy.The MDAC will be chaired by S.Sahoo.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) amended the SEBI (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018, called the SEBI (Settlement Proceedings) (Amendment) Regulations, 2022 and has reduced the timeline for filing settlement applications to just 60 days from the current 180 days to make the system more efficient.
National Stock Exchange (NSE) has received approval from Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to launch derivatives on Nifty Midcap Select Index. The index will be available for trading from 24 January, 2022.Nifty Midcap Select Index intends to track the performance of a focused portfolio of 25 stocks within the Nifty Midcap 150 index.
Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) Ventures Limited, a wholly owned subsidiary of CDSL has received approval from Securities and Exchange Board of India’s (SEBI) for setting up Accreditation Agency for a period of 3 years with effect from 1st February 2022 for accreditation of eligible Investors.‘Accredited Investors’ (AIs) may avail flexibility in minimum investment amount (lower ticket
size) or concessions from specific regulatory requirements applicable to investment products with certain conditions for specific products or services.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) sanctioned financial assistance of around ₹650 crore to AU Small Finance Bank (AUSFB) and Jana Small Finance Bank (JSFB). The Small Finance Banks will use this assistance to support small-sized non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and micro finance institutions (MFIs) and micro entrepreneurs.
The headquarters of Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
Pencilton, a teen-focused fintech company in partnership with Transcorp has launched PencilCard, India’s 1st debit card with National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) for teens. PencilCard is an NCMC – compliant RuPay debit card specially designed for the teenager which will serve as an all-in-one card (debit card, metrocard & bus card) for multiple needs for both online & offline payments.
State Bank of India (SBI) listed its 1st USD 300 million Formosa bonds on India International Exchange IFSC (India INX). SBI became the first Indian entity to raise money through Formosa Bond.Through the issuance, India INX became the first Exchange in IFSC (International Financial Services Centre) to list Formosa Bonds issued by SBI.
SBI (State Bank of India) Cards and Payment Services Limited (SBICPSL) has collaborated with Paytm to enable their cardholders to tokenize their cards on devices and make payments through Paytm.
Currently, only cards issued in the Indian Territory are enabled on Paytm network but this partnership enables SBI Cardholders to transact through Paytm network in international locations.The card tokenization facility is available only on Android NFC (near field communication) devices.
On 30th December 2021 Paisabazaar.com, the digital marketplace for consumer credit partnered with Axis Bank to launch a pre-qualified program for unsecured loans on its platform.The pre-qualified program involves deep technology and analytics collaboration with banks and non-bank financiers, enabling customers to view customized and pre-qualified lending offers.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that SBI (State Bank of India), ICICI (Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India) and HDFC (Housing Development Finance Corporation Limited) banks will continue to be identified as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
Therefore, they will have to maintain additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital ratios in the same manner prescribed in 2020.
SBI (State Bank of India) General Insurance Company Ltd launched a campaign titled ‘#BahaneChhodoTaxBachao’ to increase awareness around the need to buy health insurance to save tax.It will also highlight the other benefits of opting for health insurance.The campaign is in a quirky Vox Pop format featuring anchor Rudraksh Singh aka Rudy.
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), a multilateral development bank has committed USD 150 million to invest in the development of data centres that mostly serve emerging Asia through the Keppel Data Centre Fund II (KDCF II), a closed-end private equity vehicle managed by Alpha Investment Partners Limited (Alpha).
Airtel Payments Bank and Park+ have collaborated to offer FASTag-based smart parking solutions to marquee commercial and residential properties across India.This partnership will utilize the reach of Airtel Payments Bank to digitise the parking ecosystem using FASTag associated with the vehicle.
Park+ is backed by Sequoia Capital and Matrix Partners, and is engaged in automating parking spaces through FASTag.
RBL Bank and Google announced a strategic collaboration to improve the bank’s customer experience strategy through the digital platform, Abacus 2.0. This collaboration will enable better customer data management and analytics.
Axis Bank has partnered with MinkasuPay to offer a biometric authentication solution for net banking payments in merchant apps using Fingerprint or Face ID, without the need for usernames, passwords, and One-Time Passwords (OTPs).This Solution will reduce the time of payment from 50-60 seconds to just 2-3 seconds and also increase the transaction success rate.
On 11th January 2022 LazyPay, a Buy Now Pay Later (BNPL) solution by PayU Finance, announced its partnership with SBM Bank India to launch LazyCard, a prepaid payment instrument backed by a credit line that works on the Visa payment network.
Axis Bank issued industry’s 1st letter of credit (LC) on the Secured Logistics Document Exchange (SLDE), a government-backed blockchain-enabled platform (launched in July 2021). The deal, which was executed digitally on the SLDE platform, involved ArcelorMittal Nippon and Lalit Pipes & Pipes Limited (LPPL) (Axis bank’s client). The bank released an LC on behalf of LPPL.
UCO Bank (formerly United Commercial Bank Ltd) in partnership with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched the ‘UCO Bank RuPay Select Contactless Debit Card’ with a host of benefits for its premium/HNI (High Networth Individuals) customers.This launch was made on the occasion of the 79th Inauguration Day of the bank i.e. January 6, 2022.
Fintech company Lendingkart announced a co-lending partnership with Canara Bank to provide low- cost business loans of up to Rs. 10 lakh to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs).The aim of the partnership is to broaden the support provided to the MSME borrowers for enhancing financial inclusion under the Reserve Bank India’s (RBIs) Priority Sector initiative.
using ‘zero touch’ technology.
Federal Bank and Equirus Wealth in collaboration with SCUBE Capital, a global fund management company based out of Singapore, have launched a ‘US dollar offshore fund’ for their customers. Only the customers of Federal Bank (both NRI (Non-Resident Indian) and Resident) could invest in the fund. It offers a portfolio return (internal rate of return (IRR)) guidance of ~ USD 6.50 percent per annum with a fund tenor of 3 years from the date of fund closure with an option to extend by one year.
Ujjivan Small Finance Bank (SFB) launched ‘Platina Fixed Deposit’ (FD), offering interest of 15 basis points (bps) higher than the regular term deposit rates provided by Ujjivan SFB.The Platina FD is a non- callable deposit, where partial & premature withdrawal is not applicable.While the interest amount can be received on monthly, quarterly or at the end of the maturity period.
The Headquarters of Ujjivan Small Finance Bank (USFB) is Bangalore, Karnataka.
City Union Bank (CUB), the oldest Private Sector Bank in India, in association with smart-tech-enabled preventive healthcare platform GOQii has launched CUB Easy Pay Debit Card in a Fitness Watch, a wearable & contactless RuPay On-The-Go payment solution, powered by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).On 24th January 2022, V.R.Venkatachalam, chancellor of Sri Ramachandra Institute of Higher Education and Research received the 1st watch in Chennai.
The headquarters of City Union Bank (CUB) Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the Government of India’s approval for the amalgamation of the Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative Bank (PMC Bank) with Unity Small Finance Bank limited (USFBL), the 12th SFB of India.
The amalgamation came into force from 25th January 2022 and on the same day all the branches of the PMC Bank were allowed to function as the branches of USFBL.
The Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) has set up new Bank Note Printing Lines at Currency Note Press (CNP), Nashik in Maharashtra; and Bank Note Press (BNP), Dewas in Madhya Pradesh as a part of its modernization initiatives. The bank note printing line at CNP Nashik was virtually inaugurated by Meera Swarup, Special Secretary & Financial Adviser, Ministry of Finance.
Analogy means ‘correspondence’. In the questions based on analogy, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. Analogy tools are therefore meant to test one’s ability to reason -how far you are able to compare and comprehend the relationship that exists between two objects, things or figures. Verbal analogy measures the ability to understand the relationship between two given words or group of letters, presented in abbreviated form. See the following example.
Moon : Satellite :: Earth : Planet
This abbreviated form conveys the idea that moon is related to satellite in the same way as the earth is related to planet.
Look for the Kinds of Relationship
There are many possibilities in establishing a relationship. Here are some useful points on the basic knowledge required for the test.
Worker and Product
Eg: Carpenter : Furniture : : Mason : Wall
Carpenter makes Furniture and Mason builds a Wall.
Author : Book
Editor : Newspaper
Architect : Design
Farmer : Crop
Butcher : Meat
Judge : Justice
Chef : Food
Poet : Poem
Choreographer : Ballet
Teacher : Education
Cobbler : Shoes
Tailor : Clothes
Worker and Tool Relationship
Eg: Woodcutter : Axe : : Soldier : Gun
Axe is the tool used by a Woodcutter, likewise a Soldier uses a Gun to shoot.
Author : Pen
Doctor : Stethoscope
Astronomer : Telescope
Farmer : Plough
Barber : Scissors
Gardener : Harrow
Butcher : Chopper
Painter : Brush
Blacksmith : Anvil
Sculptor : Chisel
Bricklayer : Trowel
Surgeon : Scalpel
Carpenter : Saw
Tailor : Needle
Cobbler : Awl
Tool and Action
Eg: Pen : Write : : Knife : Cut
Pen is used for Writing and Knife is used for Cutting
Axe : Grind
Spade : Dig
Auger : Bore
Shovel : Scoop
Chisel : Carve
Spoon : Feed
Gun : Shoot
Spanner : Grip
Loudspeaker : Amplify
Steering : Drive
Microscope : Magnify
Sword : Slaughter
Oar : Row
Worker and Working Place
Eg: Farmer : Field : : Doctor : Hospital
A Farmer works on a Field while a Doctor works in a Hospital.
Artist : Theatre
Pilot : Cockpit
Actor : Stage
Sailor : Ship
Clerk : Office
Scientist : Laboratory
Driver : Cabin
Teacher : School
Engineer : Site
Umpire : Pitch
Lawyer : Court
Worker : Factory
Mechanic : Garage
Warrior : Battlefield
Product and Raw Material
Eg: Cloth : Fibre : : Petrol : Crude Oil
Cloth is made of Fibre and Petrol is extracted from Crude oil.
Book : Paper
Omlette : Egg
Butter : Milk
Paper : Pulp
Furniture : Wood
Road : Asphalt
Fabric : Yarn
Rubber : Latex
Jaggery : Sugarcane
Shoes : Leather
Metal : Ore
Sack : Jute
Oil : Seed
Quantity and Unit
Eg: Length : Metre : : Distance : Light Year
Metre is the unit of Length and Light year is the unit of Distance.
Angle : Radians
Power : Watt
Current : Ampere
Pressure : Pascal
Energy : Joule
Resistance : Ohm
Force : Newton
Time : Seconds
Mass : Kilogram
Volume : Litre
Potential : Volt
Work : Joule
Instrument and Measurement
Eg: Barometer : Pressure :: Speedometer : Speed
Barometer is used to measure Pressure. Speedometer is used to measure Speed.
Ammeter : Current
Rain Gauge : Rain
Anemometer : Wind Velocity
Screw Gauge :Thickness
Balance : Mass
Seismograph:Earth-quakes
Hygrometer : Humidity
Sphygmomanometer: Blood Pressure
Thermometer: Temperature
Study and Topic
Eg: Botany : Plants : : Ornithology : Birds
Botany is the study of Plants, Ornithology is the study of Birds.
Anthropology: Man
Orography : Mountains
Astrology : Future
Palaeontology : Fossils
Conchology : Shells
Pedology :Soil
Cardiology : Heart
Pathology :Diseases
Entomology : Insects
Semantics :Language
Haematology: Blood
Seismology :Earth-quakes
Nephrology : Kidney
Taxonomy :Classification
Oology : Eggs
Zoology : Animals
Animal and Young Ones
Eg: Cat : Kitten : : Dog : Puppy
Kitten is the young one of a Cat and Puppy is the young one of a Dog.
Butterfly: Catterpillar
Lion : Cub
Cow : Calf
Man : Child
Duck : Duckling
Pig : Piglet
Frog : Tadpole
Stallion : Colt
Hen : Chicken
Sheep : Lamb
Horse : Pony
Swan : Cygnet
Male and Female
Eg: Son : Daughter : : Nephew : Niece
Drone : Bee
Lion : Lioness
Dog : Bitch
Stag : Doe
Gentleman : Lady
Tiger : Tigress
Horse : Mare
Uncle : Aunt
Word and Synonym
Eg: Mend : Repair : : House : Home
Abode : Dwelling
Fierce : Violent
Abduct : Kidnap
Happy : Glad
Ban : Prohibition
Presage : Predict
Blend : Mix
Solicit : Request
Brim : Edge
Substitute : Replace
Dissipate :Squander
Aborigine : Native
Word and Antonym
Eg: Ignore : Notice : : Friend : Foe
Advance : Retreat
Gentle : Harsh
Best : Worst
Gradual : Abrupt
Cruel : Kind
Initial : Final
Chaos : Peace
Kindle : Extinguish
Create : Destroy
Lend : Borrow
Cordial : Hostile
Robust : Weak
Deep : Shallow
Sink : Float
Word and Intensity
Eg: Anger : Rage : : Joy : Ecstasy
Rage is greater degree of Anger and Ecstasy is greater degree of Joy.
Crime : Sin
Refuse : Deny
Error : Blunder
Sink : Drown
Famous : Renowned
Unhappy : Sad
Quarrel : War
Wish : Desire
Q.1- Q.5 Complete the following analogy pair.
Q.1 Iron : copper :: zinc: ?
1)Ceramic
2)Carbon
3)Silver
4)Coke
5)None of these
Q.2 Menu : Food :: Catalogue : ?
1)Rack
2)Newspaper
3)Library
4)Books
5)None of these
Q.3 Botany : Plant :: Entomology : ?
1)Snakes
2)Insects
3)Birds
4)Germs
5)None of these
Q.4 Gun : Shoot :: Axe
1)Grind
2)Grip
3)Magnify
4)Feed
5)None of these
Q.5 Anaemia : Blood :: Anarchy : ?
1)Lawlessness
2)Government
3)Monarchy
4)Disorder
5)None of these
Q.6-Q.10 There is certain relation between 2 given words on one side of : : of & one word is given on another side of :: while another word is to be found from the given alternative having the same relation with this word as the given pair . Select correct alternative
Q.6 Mountain : Valley : : Genius : ?
1)Brain
2)Idiot
3)Think
4)Intelligence
5)None of these
Q.7 House : Garbage : : Ore : ?
1)Rubbish
2)Gangue
3)Sand
4)Dregs
5)None of these
Q.8 King : Throne :: Rider : ?
1)Seat
2)Horse
3)Saddle
4)Chair
5)None of these
Q.9 Imprison : Jail :: Exile : ?
1)Country
2)Depart
3)Banish
4)Punishment
5)None of these
Q.10 Reluctant : Keen :: Remarkable : ?
1)Usual
2)Restrained
3)Striking
4)Evocative
5)None of these
Q.11-Q.20 There is certain relation between 2 given words on one side of : : of & one word is given on another side of :: while another word is to be found from the given alternative having the same relation with this word as the given pair . Select correct alternative
Q.11 21 : 3 :: 574 : ?
1)23
2)82
3)97
4)113
5)None
Q.12 335 : 216 :: 987 : ?
1)867
2)868
3)872
4)888
5)None
Q.13 149 : 238 :: 159 : ?
1)169
2)248
3)261
4)268
5)None
Q.14 68 : 130 :: ? : 350
1)210
2)216
3)222
4)240
5)None
Q.15 8 : 28 :: 27 : ?
1)55
2)63
3)64
4)65
5)None
Q.16 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?
1)901
2)1009
3)9889
4)9999
5)None of these
Q.17 7584 : 5362 : : 4673 : ?
1)2367
2)2451
3)2531
4)4521
5)None of these
Q.18 3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ?
1)2154
2)3562
3)5487
4)5784
5)None of these
Q.19 25: 37 : : 49 : ?
1)41
2)56
3)60
4)65
5)None of these
Q.20 5 :124 : : 7 : ?
1)125
2)248
3)342
4)343
5)None of these
Q.21 MAD : JXA : : RUN : ?
1)ORK
2)OSQ
3)PRJ
4)UXQ
5)None
Q.22 CAT : DDY : : BIG : ?
1)CLL
2)CLM
3)CML
4)CEP
5)none
Q.23 COMPUTER :fqprxvht :: LANGUAGE : ?
1)oxpixdig
2)ocqicyig
3)ocqixcjg
4)ocqixcig
5)None
Q.24 FILM : ADGH : : MILK : ?
1)ADGF
2)HDGE
3)HDGF
4)HEGF
5)NONE
Q.25 corden :zrogbq : : ? : pxivro
1)mulmul
2)sulsul
3)munmun
4)srspql
5)None
Q.26 GHF : CDB :: EFD : ?
1)ABJ
2)CBD
3)IJH
4)AJB
5)AKB
Q.27 AKJ :GNH :: EMD : ?
1)CLB
2)CLD
3)AKB
4)EMF
5)CDB
Q.28 HNP : PDA :: DLP : ?
1) PJG
2) CDP
3) CLP
4) PME
5) PHE
Q.29 AFHO : GBDM : : CHFM : ?
1)GBLD
2)GBJO
3)GPLD
4)GBDM
5)IBDE
Q.30 AOE : ? :: GMA : NKM
1)KLM
2)KLF
3)OBM
4)KLO
5)KMN
ANSWERS
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. E
Three type of question contain in alphabet:
1) Alphabet with Alphabet Code (Place Interchange)
2) Alphabet with Numeric/ Symbol code
3) Sentence Code

All questions are based on alphabet series. The alphabets are assigned to 26 letters of the English alphabet in alphabetical order. In this case, first pattern is related to the second given answer, in the same way the second word or pattern is related to the other given word. e.g.
The word MUMBAI is written as NVNCBJ, in the same way ABILITY is written as ___?
MUMBAI शब्द NVNCBJ के रूप में लिखा गया है, उसी तरह ABILITY के रूप ___ में लिखा गया है?
(a) ENTALM
(b) BCJMJUZ
(c) LDMSBK
(d) TALEMN
(e) None of these
Q.1. In a certain code ‘MOUSE’ is written as ‘PRUQC’. How will ‘SHIFT’ written in that code?
Q.1 एक निश्चित कोड ‘MOUSE’ को ‘PRUQC’ के रूप में लिखा गया है उस कोड में ‘SHIFT’ कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
(a) VKIRD
(b) VKIDR
(c) VJIDR
(d) VIKRD
(e) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q.2. In a certain code FLOWERS is written as EKNVDQR. How is SUPREME written in that code?
प्रश्न 2: भाषा FLOWERS को EKNVDQR के रूप में लिखा गया है। उस कोड में ‘SUPREME’ कैसे लिखा जाएगा??
(a) TQDROLD
(b) RTODQLD
(c) TQDDROL
(d) RTOQDLD
(e) None of these
Ans:(d)
Q.3. ‘CF’ is related to ‘HK’ in the same way as ‘MP’ is related to
प्रश्न 3. ‘CF’ से ‘HK’ संबंधित है, जैसा कि ‘MP’ से संबंधित ____
(a) SU
(b) RT
(c) RU
(d) ST
(e) RS
Ans: (c)
Q.4. In a certain code DREAMING is written as BFSEFMHL. How is TREATISE written in that code?
प्रश्न 4. एक निश्चित कोड DREAMING को BFSEFMHL के रूप में लिखा गया है। TREATISE को कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
(a) USFBDRHS
(b) BFSUDRHS
(c) BFSUSHRD
(d) BDQSDRHS
(e) None of these
Ans:(b)
Q.5. In a certain code MAIN is written as ‘9364’ and DEAR is written as ‘8532’. How is MEND written in that code?
प्रश्न 5. एक निश्चित कोड MAIN को ‘9364’ रूप में लिखा गया है और DEAR को ‘8532’ रूप में लिखा है MEND कोड में लिखा जाता है?
(a) 9548
(b) 9458
(c) 9538
(d) 9528
(e) None of these
Ans:(a)
Q.6. If ‘P’, denotes ‘-‘ ; ‘Q’ denotes ‘÷’ ; ‘R’ denotes ‘x’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘+’, then
Q.6। यदि ‘P’, ‘-‘; ‘Q’ का अर्थ ‘÷’; ‘R’ denotes ‘x’ और ‘W’ denotes ‘+’, फिर
48 Q 12 R 10 P 8 W 4 = ?
(a) 56
(b) 40
(c) 52
(d) 44
(e) None of these
Ans:(e)
Q.7. In a certain code language ‘green grass everywhere’ is written as ‘ dik pa sok’ and ‘cow eats grass’ is written as ‘nok ta pa’. How is ‘cow’ written in that code language?
Q.7. एक निश्चित कोड भाषा में ‘हरी घास हर जगह’ को ‘दिक पे सोक’ के रूप में लिखा जाता है और ‘गाय खाती घास’ को ‘नोक ते पे’ के रूप में लिखा जाता है। उस कोड भाषा में ‘गाय’ कैसे लिखा जाता है?
(a) nok
(b) ta
(c) nok or ta
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans:(c)
Q.8. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ in that code?
Q.8. एक निश्चित कोड PAGE को ‘3% @’ के रूप में लिखा गया है, SORE को 8©9@ के रूप में लिखा गया है उस कोड में ‘PEAS’ कैसे है?
(a) 3@©8
(b) 3@%9
(c) 3@%8
(d) 3%@8
(e) None of these
Ans:(c)
Q.9. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s birthday?
प्र .9. स्नेहा को सही ढंग से याद है कि उनके पिता का जन्मदिन 16 जून से पहले है, लेकिन 11 जून के बाद उनके छोटे भाई को सही ढंग से याद है कि उनके पिता का जन्मदिन 13 जून के बाद है, लेकिन 18 जून से पहले और उनके बड़े भाई को सही ढंग से याद है कि उनके पिता का जन्मदिन सम तारीख पर है। जून में क्या तारीख निश्चित रूप से उनके पिता का जन्मदिन है?
(a) Sixteenth
(b) Twelfth
(c) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans:(e)
Q.10. Each vowel in the word DROWNED is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and then, the letters so arrived are arranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the left end in the new arrangement?
Q.10. DROWNED शब्द में प्रत्येक स्वर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में अगले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और प्रत्येक व्यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में पिछले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और उसके बाद वर्णों की संख्या वर्णमाला क्रम में व्यवस्थित की गई है। इनमें से कौन सी नई व्यवस्था में बाएं छोर से दूसरा होगा?
(a) C
(b) V
(c) F
(d) P
(e) None of these
Ans:(a)
Q.11 In a certain code, GARNISH is written as RGAINHS. How Will GENIOUS be written in that code:
Q.11 एक निश्चित कोड में, GARNISH को RGAINHS के रूप में लिखा गया है। उस कोड में GENIOUS कैसे लिखा जायेगा
(a) NEGOISU
(b) NGEOIUS
(c) NGESUOI
(d) NEGSUOI
(e) None of these
Ans:(e)
Q.12 In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as MOCUPRET, in the same way PRODUCTS is written as
प्र .12. एक निश्चित कोड COMPUTER को MOCUPRET रूप में लिखा जाता है, उसी प्रकार से PRODUCTS को इस प्रकार लिखा गया है
(a) UDSTCORP
(b) ORPUDSTC
(c) PUDSTCOR
(d) RODUCTSP
(e) None of these.
Ans :(b)
Q.13 In the word MELDRAMATIC, position of 1st and 7th letter is interchanged, similarly 2nd to 8th and so on till after arrangement. What is the position of 5th element from the right end?
Q.13 शब्द MELDRAMATIC में, 1 और 7 वें स्थान की स्थिति बदलती है, इसी प्रकार से 2 से 8 वें और पुन: व्यवस्थित होने के बाद तक। तो निम्न में से कौन सा अंत से 5 वें तत्व की स्थिति क्या है?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) K
(d) M
(e) None of these
Ans:(a)
Q.14 If “red means white” “White means black” “Black means yellow” “Yellow means green” “Green means blue” “Blue means indigo” then which of the following will represent the color of the sunflower.
Q.14 यदि “लाल का अर्थ है सफेद” “सफेद का मतलब काला है” “काला का मतलब पीला है” “पीला मतलब हरा है” “ग्रीन का अर्थ है नीला” “ब्लू का अर्थ है इंडिगो” तो निम्न में से कौन सा सूर्यफूल के रंग का प्रतिनिधित्व करेगा।
(a) Sky
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Blue
(e) None of these
Ans:(b)
Q.15 If in the word, DOCUMENT, all the vowels are first arranged alphabetically followed by the entire consonant arranged alphabetically then which letter is fifth from right?
प्र.15 यदि शब्द, DOCUMENT में, सभी स्वर पहले वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित किए जाते हैं और इसके बाद पूरे व्यंजन को वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित किया जाता है, जिसके बाद से वह पत्र पांचवां है?
(a) U
(b) D
(c) M
(d) N
(e) None of these
Ans:(b)
Direction (Q.16 to 20) Study the following arrangement of code carefully and answer the question given below:
In a certain code, “you are good” is coded as “1 3 4” “They go house” is coded as “7 5 8” “We are house” is coded as “8 3 9”.
एक निश्चित कोड में, “you are good” को “1 3 4” के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है “They go house” को “7 5 8” के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है “We are house” को “8 3 9” के रूप में कोडित किया गया है|
Q.16) Which of the following code is for “They”?
Q.16) निम्न में से कौन सा कोड “They” के लिए है?
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e)7 or 5
Q.17) What does code “8” stands for?
Q.17) “8” क्या है?
(a) House
(b) they
(c) you or good
(d) None of these
(e) cant’ be determined
Q.18) what is the code for “they go”
Q.18) “they go” के लिए कोड क्या है
(a) 7 5
(b) 4 5
(c) 1 7
(d) None of these
(e) cant’ be determined
Q.19) what is code for “you mountain”
Q.19) ” you mountain ” के लिए कोड है
(a) 7 3
(b) 1 8
(c) 4 2
(d) 5 3
(e) 7 1
Q.20) what is code for “vast fight”
Q.20) क्या “vast fight” के लिए कोड है
(a) * #
(b) * 9
(c) l 4
(d) 7 0
(e) 7 +
Ans: Q.16 (e) Q.17(a) Q.18(a) Q.19(c) Q.20 (a)
Direction (Q.21 to 25): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered a), b), c) and d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark e) none of these as the answer.

Conditions:
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol, both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last element are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’
शर्तेँ:
(i) यदि समूह का पहला तत्व एक प्रतीक है और अंतिम तत्व एक अंक है, तो कोड बदलना चाहिए।
(ii) यदि समूह का पहला तत्व अंक है और अंतिम तत्व एक प्रतीक है, तो दोनों को अंकों के कोड के रूप में कोडित किया जाना है।
(iii) यदि पहले और आखिरी तत्व दोनों सम अंक हैं तो दोनों को ‘एक्स’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाना है|
(iv) यदि पहले और अंतिम तत्व दोनों विषम अंक हैं, तो दोनों को ‘वाई’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाना है|
Q.21) 4%@93*
(a) PMFTIB
(b) PMFTIP
(c) BMFTIB
(d) XMFTIX
(e) None of these
Q.22) $1896©
(a) RQJTNH
(b) HQJTNR
(c) RQJTNR
(d) YQJTNY
(e) None of these
Q.23) 2*#836
(a) YBEJIY
(b) ABEJIN
(c) NBEJIA
(d) XBEJIX
(e) None of these.
Q.24) 8732@9
(a) TGIAFJ
(b) YGIAFY
(c) JGIAFT
(d) XGIAFX
(e) None of these.
Q.25) 7#$%35
(a) GERMIU
(b) UERMIG
(c) GERMIG
(d) XERMIX
(e) None of these.
Ans: Q.21(b) Q.22(a) Q.23(d) Q.24(c) Q.25(e)
Alphabet series consists of letters of the alphabet placed in a specific pattern. If you keep in your mind the order of the letters with their respective numbers it will help you answer the questions quickly above alphabet series:

E.g.: what will be the next term in
BKS, DJT, FIU, HHV, ?
(1) IJX
(2) IGX
(3) JGW
(4) IGU
(5) JGU
Answer: (3). In each term, the first letter is moved two steps forward, the second letter one step backward and the third letter one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the next term. So, the missing term is JGW.
LETTER SERIES
This type of question usually consists of a series of small letters which follow a certain pattern. However some letters are missing from the series. These missing letters are then given in a proper.sequence as one of the alternatives. The candidate is required to choose this alternative as the answer:
E.g.: aab_aaa_bba_
(1) baa
(2) abb
(3) bab
(4) aab
(5) bbb
In each of the following questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one term missing. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q.1) cmw, hrb, ——, rbl, wgq, blv
(1) mwg
(2) lvf
(3) lwg
(4) mxg
(5)wmx
Q.2) DKY FJW HIU JHS ——
(1) KGR
(2) LFQ
(3) KFR
(4) LGQ
(5) None of these
Q.3). —— siy oeu kaq gwm csi
(1) wne
(2) wnb
(3) vne
(4) vme
(5) None of these
Q.4) BXJ ETL HPN KLP ——
(1) NHR
(2) MHQ
(3) MIP
(4) NIR
(5) None of these
Q.5) QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ——
(1) XVZ
(2) ZYA
(3) YXW
(4) VWX
(5) AZY
Q.6) P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ——
(1) Y17O
(2) X17M
(3) X17O
(4) X16O
(5) None of these
Q.7) D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ——, ——
(1) K-12, M-13
(2) L-12, M-14
(3) L-12, N-14
(4) K-12, M-14
(5) K-12, N-14
Q.8) G, H, J, M, ——, V
(1) T
(2) S
(3) R
(4) U
(5) Q
Q.9) OTE PUF QVG RWH ——
(1) SYJ
(2) TXI
(3) SXJ
(4) SXI
(5) QWD
Q.10) BD GI LN QS ——
(1) TV
(2) VW
(3) WX
(4) WY
(5) VX
Directions(Q.11 to 15): In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.
Q.11) ba_ba_bac_acb_cbac
(1) aacb
(2) bbca
(3) ccba
(4) cbac
(5) None of these
Q.12) adb_ac_da_cddcb_dbc_cbda
(1) bccba
(2) cbbaa
(3) ccbba
(4) bbcad
(5) None of thes
Q.13) a_ba_cbaac_aa_ba
(1) ccbb
(2) cabc
(3) cbcb
(4) bbc
(5) None of these
Q.14) bc bb_aabc (1) acac (2) babc (3) abab (4) aac (5) None of these Q.15) b – b – bb – – bbb – bb – b (1) bbbbba (2) bbaaab (3) ababab (4) aabaab (5) None of these Directions(Q.16 to 30): In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative Q.16) b_cd_d_bcc_cdb (1) dbbbc (2)dccbd (3)bddcb (4)beccb (5) None of these Q.17) a b _b_cbacba_ba_cabcb (1)bccb (2)acbc (3)caba (4)cbbb (5) None of these Q.18) ac_c_cb_acbcacbca_bc (1)abbb (2)bacc (3)babc (4)bbcc (5) None of these Q.19) a_c_baab_cb
(1) bcca
(2)abbc
(3)abab
(4)aabb
(5) None of these
Q.20) ab_ c c_ffe (1) dadde (2)baded (3)abdee (4)abcde (5) None of these Q.21) _b c a b c a b c _ a b c a_ b
(1) a b a c
(2)a b c a
(3)a a b c
(4)b b c a
(5) None of these
Q.22) b_ab_b_a a b _ b
(1)a a b b
(2)a b b b
(3)a b b a
(4) b a a
(5) None of these
Q.23) bc, cde ,de, efg, fg, ?
(1)ijk
(2)ghi
(3)fgh
(4)hij
(5) None of these
Q.24) a _ _ b abba a bb a b a
(1) abab
(2)abba
(3)aabb
(4)aaab
(5) None of these
Q.25) ab _ babc_ ab_ b _ bcb_ b
(1)c b c a a
(2)c a b a c
(3)a b c b a
(4) a c a c a
(5) None of these
Q.26) a_ ba_c_aad_aa_ea
(1) babbd
(2)babbc
(3)babba
(4)bbba
(5) None of these
Q.27) b_ccacca_ba_bbc_bc_a
(1) acbca
(2)bacab
(3)baabc
(4)abaaa
(5) None of these
Q.28) b_ccacca_ba_bbc_bc_a
(1) acbca
(2)bacab
(3)baabc
(4)abaaa
(5) None of these
Q.29) ab_bbc_c _ ab_ ab _ c
(1) bccab
(2)cacab
(3)cacac
(4)cbabc
(5) None of these
Q.30) tu_rt_s _ usrtu
(1) rsurts
(2)rtusru
(3)rsutrr
(4)rsurtr
(5) None of these
Directions(Q.31 to 50): In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative
Q.31) ABC, PQR, DEF, STU, ?
(1) IJK
(2) GKL
(3) VWX
(4) GHI
(5) None of these
Q.32) AMDN, GMJN, ?, RMUN
(2) MMPN
(3) OMRN
(4) ONSU
(5) None of these
Q.33)NMT, POV, ROX,?
(1) TSZ
(2)TPZ
(3)TSY
(4)TRZ
(5) None of these
Q.34) HFD, BZX, VTR,?
(1) TRP
(2) KIH
(3) PNL
(4) GEC
(5) None of these
Q.35) C -3, E – 5, G – 7, I- 9, ?,
(1) M -18, K- 14
(2) X-24, M-21
(3) K- 11, M-13
(4) O – 15, X – 24
(5) None of these
Q.36) AFI, JOR, MRU,?
(1)RJL
(2)GJN
(3) HMP
(4)PMO
(5) None of these
Q.37) ELFA, GLHA, ILJA,?, MLNA
(1) OLPA
(2)KLMA
(3) LLMA
(4)KLLA
(5) None of these
Q.38) FGHJKLNOPRS?
(1) T
(2)M
(3)Q
(4)U
(5) None of these
Q.39) X, Q, K, F,?
(1) B
(2)C
(3)D
(4)E
(5) None of these
Q.40) BEAG, DGCI, FIEK, ?
(1) HKGM
(2)HGKJ
(3)HKLJ
(4)HMIE
(5) None of these
Q.41) ABEF, IJMN, ?
(1) QRVU
(2)QRUV
(3)QRVW
(4)QSVU
(5) None of these
Q.42) KJL, ONP, SRT, ?
(1)WVX
(2)VWX
(3)WXV
(4)VUW
(5) None of these
Q.43) AN, BO, CP, DQ, ?
(1)EG
(2)ER
(3)EH
(4)EF
(5) None of these
Q.44) PBD, REH, THL, ?
(1)UVW
(2)MNO
(3)UVX
(4)VKP
(5) None of these
Q.45) ML, NO, KJ, PQ, IH, ?
(1)RS
(2)GI
(3)RH
(4)RK
(5) None of these
Q.46) Y X Z X W Y W V X V _ _
(1)U W
(2)VW
(3)VU
(4)WU
(5) None of these
Q.47) b- 0, y-3, c- 8, x – 15, d-24, ?
(1) e-48
(2) w-35
(3) w – 39
(4) v-30
(5) None of these
Q.48) AZ,CX, FU, ?
(1)IR
(2)IV
(3)JQ
(4)KP
(5) None of these
Q.49) ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ? ,MLNA
(1)KLMA
(2)KLLA
(3)OLPA
(4)LLMA
(5) None of these
Q.50) ACE, BDF, CEG, ?
(1)DEH
(2)DFE
(3)DEF
(4)DFH
(5) None of these
Answers
1) 1 2)4 3)5 4)1 5)3 6)3 7)3 8)5 9)4 10)5
11)3 12)2 13)2 14)1 15)3 16)3 17)3 18)4 19)2 20)1
21)1 22)2 23)2 24)1 25)1 26)3 27)3 28)3 29)3 30)1
31)4 32)2 33)1 34)3 35)3 36)3 37)4 38)1 39)1 40)1
41)2 42)1 43)2 44)4 45)1 46)1 47)3 48)2 49)4 50)4
Classification refers to categorization, the process in which ideas and objects are recognized, differentiated, and understood.
There are three types of Classifications basically asked in the examination.
i) Numeric Based
ii) Alphabet Based
iii) General Intelligence
I) Numeric Type:
All questions are based on numeric term. In this case, basic questions are given about number (prime, even or odd number, composite number), square of the number or a cube of the number, multiplication or division. Four of the same will be based on the above pattern but one of them will not belong to that and the same will be the answer. For e.g.:
Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
Q.1 a) 19
b) 17
c) 13
d) 27
e) 37
Answer: (d) Solution: In the above case, all are prime number
Q.2 a) 52
b) 39
c) 91
d) 117
e) 27
Answer: (e) Solution: In the above case, all are multiples of 13, except 27.
Q.3 a) 4
b) 36
c) 16
d) 64
e) 84
Answer: (e) Solution: In the above case, all are square of the number, except 84.
Q.4 a) 15
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35
e) 12
Answer: (e) Solution: In the above case, all are divisible by 5, except 12
Direction (Q.1 to 4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way; form a group which one does not belong to that group.
Q.1) a) 12
b) 21
c) 51
d) 72
e) 82
Q.2) a) 24
b) 32
c) 27
d) 36
e) 15
Q.3) a) 56
b) 35
c) 49
d) 42
e) 51
Q.4) a) 343
b) 64
c) 75
d) 27
e) 216
Solutions:
1.(e) All are divisible by 3, except 82
2.(b) All are divisible by 3, except 32
3.(e) All are divisible by 7, except 51
4.(c) All are the cubes, except 75
II) Alphabet Based
In this case, all questions are based on alphabetic term. This will be classified in terms of differences in the alphabetic form.
For e.g.:
Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
a) BE
b) GJ
c) LO
d) QT
e) US
Answer: (e) In the above case, there are differences of three letters in between the two alphabets as per the alphabetical series in all the four options, but fifth option is different from all the four given options.
a) AD
b) EI
c) JN
d) OS
e) TX
Answer: (a) In the above case, there are differences of four letters in between the two alphabets as per the alphabetical series in all the four options, except (a)
Direction (Q.1 to 2) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way; hence form a group which one does not belong to that group.
Q.1) a) PQR b) CDE c) HIJ d) KLM e) TSU
Q.2) a) EVW b) FUV c) JQR d) LOP e) STV
Answer.1 (e): Rest in all the cases the alphabets are arranged in continuous order
Answer.2 (e): In this case, all the letter that is second and third are in a continuous order, but in the fifth option the letter are not arranged as the same is done in all the other four options.
III) General Intelligence
In this case, all questions are based on general awareness and ability. This will be classified in the differences of the object, cities, colors, etc.
Direction (Q.1 to 5) Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
Q.1) a)sitar b)guitar c)sarod d)violin e)flute.
Q.2) a)Jupiter b)Mars c)Earth d)Uranium e)Moon
Q.3) a)Wood b)Table c)Chair d)Sofa e)Bench
Q.4) a)Blue b)Red c)Yellow d)Violet e)Grey
Q.5) a)April b)July c) September d)November e)June
Answer:
1.(e) In the above given question, all are musical instrument but all the four can be played by hand, except flute which can be played by mouth
.
IV Pair Type Odd Man Out
In this case, all questions are based on the pair type as if one is related to the other. It would be by means of transport, communication etc.
For eg:
1. a) Car-Road
b) Ship-Sea
c) Aero plane-Pilot
d) Rocket-Space
e)Train-Track
Answer: (c) In the above case, all the transports are related by ways but in Option C it is related to driving
Practice Test-1
Answers: 1. (3) 2.(3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (5) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (5) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (1) 16.(2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (5) 25. (2)
Explanatory:
Direction (Q.1 to 25) Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
1. (1) Painting (2) Art (3) Sculpture (4) Drawing (5) Music
2. (1) Mountain (2) Plateau (3) Valley (4) Peak (5) Hill 3. (1) Dynamics (2) Mechanics (3) Electronics (4) Optics (5) Physics
4. (1) Consumer (2) Customer (3) Buyer (4) Purchaser (5) Retailer
5. (1) Jasmine (2) Coriander (3) Lotus (4) Lily (5) Rose
6. (1) Moth (2) Bee (3) Lizard (4) Cockroach (5) Aphid
7. (1) Kiwi (2) Eagle (3) Emu (4) Penguin (5) Ostrich
8. (1) Swimming (2) Diving (3) Driving (4) Sailing (5) Fishing
9. (1) Pupil (2) Iris (3) Cornea (4) Medulla (5) Retina
10. (1) Sahara (2) Thar (3) Gobi (4) Sunderbans (5) Kalahari
11. (1) Skull (2) Pelvis (3) Fibula (4) Appendix (5) Vertebra
12. (1) Cap (2) Turban (3) Helmet (4) Veil (5) Hat
13. (1) Snore (2) Slumber (3) Yawn (4) Doze (5) Dream
14. (1) Epicentre (2) Seismology (3) Focus (4) Crater (5) Ritcher scale
15. (1) Curious (2) Humour (3) Wise (4) Angry (5) Mighty
16. (1) Flat (2) Bunglow (3) House (4) Temple (5) Palace
17. (1) Sweet (2) Cold (3) Sour (4) Bitter (5) Salty
18. (1) Paper (2) Pencil (3) Eraser (4) Ink (5) Sharpener
19. (1) Cotton (2) Rice (3) Wheat (4) Gram (5) Barley.
20. (1) Cricket (2) Baseball (3) Football (4) Billiards (5) Badminton
21. (1) 17 (2) 44 (3) 21 (4) 66 (5) 19
22. (1) DFI (2) MOQ (3) BDG (4) RTW (5) IKN
23. (1) 341 (2) 679 (3) 385 (4) 495 (5) 561
24. (1) 250 (2) 150 (3) 125 (4) 116 (5) 105
25. (1) BdE (2) XpD (3) HQu (4) MkV (5) PtZ
Answers Key:
1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (5) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (5) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3)
Explanatory Answers:
1. Except music all others can be seen where as music is to listen.
2. All except valley are elevated features.
3. All others are branches of physics.
4. All other terms refer to someone who buys something.
5. All except corriander are flowers.
6. All except lizard are insects.
7. All except eagle are flightless birds.
8. All except driving are activities performed in water.
9. All except medulla are parts of the eye, While medulla is a part of the brain.
10. All except Sunderbans are deserts while Sunderbans is a delta.
11. All except appendix are bones, while Appendix is an organ.
12. All except veil cover the head while veil covers the face.
13. All except yawn are actions in sleep.
14. All except crater are associated with earthquakes.
15. All others are related to state of mind or sense.
16. Except temple, all are places for living
17. Except cold all others refer to taste.
18. Except ink all others are solids.
19. Except (1) all are edible.
20. All except billiards are outdoor games.
21. In all other numbers we find the sum of the two digits to be an even number.
22. In all other groups the difference between the positions of the 2nd and the 3rd letters in the alphabet is 3.
23. In all other numbers the last digit is the difference between the 1st and the 2nd digits.
24. Except 116 all other numbers are divisible by 5.
25. In all other groups the middle letter is small.
SSC CGL IBanking-Insurance Exams | RRB NTPC | CET | Entrace Examination Coaching Institute
Directions (Q.1-5) : These questions are based on the five words given below:
FUR ACT BID DYE COW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
Q.1 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the third letter of the word which is second from the left among the given words?
Q.2 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to the previous letter and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowel appear?
Q.3 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be the second from the right?
Q.4 If the last letter in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words will be formed in which two or more vowels appear? (same or different vowels)
Q.5 If the positions of the first and the second letter of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
Directions (Q.6-10): The following questions are based on the five words given below:
PLY SET RID ANY TWO
Q.6 If first alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet as per the English alphabetical order, how many words having more than one vowel (same or different vowels) will be formed?
Q.7 If each letter in each word is arranged in alphabetical order (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged as compared to the original set of words?
Q.8 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to the previous letter and each vowel is changed to the next letter as per the English alphabetical order, in how many words thus formed will no vowel appear?
Q.9 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the right?
Q.10 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between the first letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
Q.11 Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words? Doctor, Fever, Medicine, Medical Shop
Q.12 Arrange the following words according to the dictionary:
a. Grasp
b. Granite
c. Grass
d. Graph
e. Grape
Q.13 Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
a. Child
b. Doctor
c. Illness
d. Medicine
e. Hospital
Q.14 Arrange the numbers into ascending order:
a. 864253
b. 842563
c. 825643
d. 834562
e. 852463
Q.15 Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, which is most like the set given in the question.
Given Set: (2, 10, 58)
Directions (Q.16-20): In each of the following questions find the odd word/letters/number pair/figure from the given alternatives.
Q.16
Q.17.
Q.18.
Q.19.
Q.20.
Directions (Q.21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
219 742 936 587 853
Q.21 If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, which of the following will be the product of the first and the second digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.22 One is subtracted from the first digit and two is subtracted from third the digit of each of the numbers. What will be the difference between the first digit of the highest number and the third digit of the lowest number?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.23 What will be the resultant if the third digits of the highest number is divided by the first digit of the lowest number?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.24 If the positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, what will be sum of all the digits of the second highest number thus formed?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.25 If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will form the lowest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.26 1 is subtracted from each odd digits and 1 is added to each even digit in the number 4873529. which of the following will be the difference between the second digit from the left and the third digit from the right of the new number thus formed:
Q.27 if it is possible to make only meaningful word from the first, fifth, seventh and Eighth letters of the word SPONTANEOUS, Then the second letter from the left is your answer. if no such can be formed then your answer is X and if more than such word can be formed your answer is Y.
Q.28 How many such pairs are there in the number 935126 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
Q.29 A mountains would necessarily have
Q.30 How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘5391246’ in both backward & forward direction, each of which has as many digits between them in the number when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
ANSWERS:
1-1 2-1 3-3 4-2 5-1 6-4 7-3 8-5 9-2 10-1 11-2 12-3 13-1 14-3 14-1 15-3 16-1 17-4 18-4 19-4 20-3 21-2 22-5 23-1 24-1 25-2 26-3 27-5 28-5 29-3 30-3
Current Affairs Section provides latest International & national news with categorised section like National News, International News, Sports, New Appointments, and Obituary with about static General Knowledge. It is useful for all competitive exams such as UPSC, Sate PCS, Banking, IBPS, SSC, Railway, and other degree diploma entrance exams. Download complete pdf from given link:
The Commission has scheduled to conduct following examinations in the months of April, May and June 2022 as per the given schedule:
Name of Examination Paper/ Stage Schedule of Examination
Source to Click here
SSC Tier-I & Tier-II Mock Test-www.examinsight.in
we have provided SSC CHSL questions papers of previous years. Previous year papers are beneficial for exam preparation. Candidates can solve past years papers and analyze their performance. Furthermore, they can also get to know about the paper pattern, marking scheme, types & difficulty level of questions asked in the exam.
Previous Paper Download: Telegram Channel https://t.me/examinsightlive
SSC CHSL MOCK PREVIOUS PAPER-2021 ONLINE
Complete Paper discussion for SSC CHSL-2021 maths by RD Sir.
Here providing syllabus for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) i.e. Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Junior Time Keeper, Trains Clerk, Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Traffic Assistant, Goods Guard, Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Senior Clerk cum Typist, Junior Account Assistant cum Typist, Senior Time Keeper, Commercial Apprentice and Station Master in various Zonal Railways and Production Units of Indian Railways.
The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:
Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics etc.
Analogies, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.
Current Events of National and International Importance, Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and World, Flagship Government Programs, Flora and Fauna of India, Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.
Contact No. : 080801 60826 /087797 74040
JSSC Excise Constable Online Form 2022
Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission (JSSC) has published notification for the recruitment of Jharkhand Excise Constable Competitive Examination (JECCE) 2022. Those Candidates who are interested in the vacancy details & completed all eligibility criteria can read the Notification & Apply Online.
Application Fee
Important Dates
Age Limit (as on 01-08-2022)
Qualification
For call: 8080160826
| Vacancy Details | |
| Post Name | Total |
| Excise Constable | 583 |
For call: 8080160826
The State Common Entrance Test (CET) Cell releases the syllabus for the MH CET law 2022 exam. It will contain the subject-wise topics that candidates need to follow to prepare for 3-year and 5-year LLB programs. In addition, it will also have the subject-wise weightage, which will tell the candidate which topics to focus on more. The MH CET law 2022 syllabus for the 5-year LLB will be of intermediate level, whereas the syllabus for the 3-year LLB will be of graduation level.
Candidates should prepare the following topics to score well in the English section of MHCET Law 2021 question paper:
The questions in the legal aptitude and legal aptitude section will be around the following topics:
To score well in this section, candidates should prepare the topics as under:
The section will be based on the following topics:
The section will be based on topics from Class 10th Mathematics syllabus as under:
| Basic Mathematics Syllabus | |
|---|---|
| Profit and loss | Speed, distance, and time |
| Algebra | Average |
| Permutation and combination | Venn diagrams |
| Geometry | Probability |
| Triangles | Percentage |
| Numbers | Trigonometry |
SSC CGL Tier 1 Answer Key 2021: The Staff Selection Commission has released the answer key of the Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier 1)-2021. Candidates who have appeared for the examination can download their answer key from the official website of SSC at ssc.nic.in. The Commission has conducted the Tier-I of Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2021 from April 11 to 21, 2022 at different centres all over the country.
Visit the official website of the Staff Selection Commission at ssc.nic.in.
– On the homepage, click on the ‘Answer Key’ option.
– Click on the link that reads, “Uploading of Tentative Answer Keys along with Candidates’ Response Sheets (s) of Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier-I) – 2021.”-
– Enter your Roll number and password As per Admission Certificate and click on submit option.
– Your SSC CGL Tier 1 Answer Key 2021 will appear on the screen.
SSC CGL Upcoming Batch Offline and Live Both from Dadar Mumbai Branch.
I&B Ministry Announces Merger of Film Media Units with NFDC
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) has transferred the mandate for the production of documentaries and short films, the organization of film festivals and the preservation of films to
the National Film Development Corporation (NFDC), a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) working under the ministry.
This resulted in the merger of the four film media units, including the Films Division, the Directorate of Film Festivals, the National Film Archives of India (NFAI) and the Children’s Film Society of India under the NFDC.
• This step is a move towards reducing the overlap of various activities and ensuring better utilization of public resources by bringing all these activities under a single management.
The Central Government has also designated Rs. 1304.52 crore till 2026 for film production and preservation, film festivals, and providing financial incentives for audio-visual productions with foreign countries, which will be managed by the NFDC through its Film Facilitation Office.
Key Points:
i. The ownership of the assets available with these units will remain with the Central government. ii.The Films Division, established in 1948, was the first state film production and distribution unit to produce documentaries and news magazines for publicity of government programmes and cinematic representation of Indian history.
• Its mandate has been completely transferred to the NFDC with effect from April 1, 2022. The Production Vertical for the Production of Documentaries in the NFDC will be named “Films Division.”
iii. The Directorate of Film Festivals was set up by the Centre to organize national and international film festivals and the National Film Awards.
• Some of the major upcoming film festivals to be organized by the NFDC are the Mumbai International Film Festival, the International Film Festival of India at Goa, and the Children’s Film Festival.
iv. Children’s Film Society India was entrusted with the production of children’s films and television programmes in Indian languages under the central government.
v. The National Film Archive of India was established as a media unit to acquire and preserve cinema and to classify, document, and undertake research related to films.
vi. National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) is the central agency for film financing, production, and distribution under MIB. It already has the mandate of producing feature films.
BEZA signs deal with Adani group for Indian Economic Zone in Chattogram, Bangladesh
The Bangladesh Economic Zones Authority (BEZA) signed a non-binding agreement called term-sheet with Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ Ltd.,) in Mumbai,Maharashtra to establish
an Indian Economic Zone under the government-to- government (G2G) engagement in Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujib Shilpa Nagar (BSMSN) in Mirsarai of Chattogram, Bangladesh.
i. The Indian Economic Zone will provide a range of facilities for Indian investors in Bangladesh.
ii. The agreement was the follow up of June 2015 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish an Indian economic zone.
iii. The Indian Economic Zone is being built on 857 acres of land with an estimated cost of Taka 964 crore supported by an Indian Line of Credit worth USD 115 million.
iv. The project involves land development, construction of connecting roads, security system, water supply, telecommunication, and water treatment plant facilities for the Indian companies investing in Bangladesh.
v.Among the Government to Government economic zones being set up in Bangladesh, the Indian Economic Zone is going to be the second largest one after the Japanese Economic Zone.
About Bangladesh:
Capital – Dhaka
Currency – Bangladeshi taka
President – Abdul Hamid
Prime minister –Sheikh Hasina Wazed
About Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited of India(APSEZ Ltd): Managing Director – Rajesh Adani
Chief Executive Officer (CEO) – Karan Adani
Journalist Aarefa Johari wins Chameli Devi Jain Award for 2021
A journalist from Mumbai, Aarefa Johari was awarded with the Chameli Devi Jain Award for an Outstanding Woman Mediaperson 2021. It was announced by the Media Foundation.
• Aarefa Johari works for ‘Scroll.in’ in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• In 2020, Neetu Singh got this award. She is associated with ‘Goan Connection’ media house.
• Jury – Nirupama Subramania, Githa Hariharan and Ashutosh
About Chameli Devi Jain Award:
i. It is the annual prestigious recognition in the field of Journalism for women media persons journalist in India who have reported on themes such as social development, politics, equity, gender justice, health, war and conflict, and consumer values.
ii. Chameli Devi Jain was a freedom fighter and a community reformer. She became the first Jain woman to go to prison during India’s independence struggle.
iii. The award was instituted in 1980 by Verghese and the family of Chameli Devi.
Instituted-1981
Australian Women’s Cricket Team Were Crowned As The Champions Of 2022 ICC Women’s Cricket
The 12th edition of the ICC (International Cricket Council) Women’s Cricket World Cup was held in New Zealand from March to April 2022. In which the Australian women’s cricket team were crowned as the champions of the 2022 ICC Women’s Cricket by defeating England women’s cricket team in the finals by 71 runs in Hagley Oval, Christchurch, New Zealand.
• The Australian women’s team was awarded 1.32 million United States Dollar (USD) and the Runner-up team (England women’s team) won USD 600,000.
• The Australian women’s team wins ICC world cup for the 7th time, most by any women’s cricket team.
Performer Of The Tournament:
i. Alyssa Healy (Australia) has been named as the ‘Player of the Tournament’ for scoring 509 runs in 9 matches, she is the first player to score 500-plus runs in a single edition of the Women’s One-Day International (ODI) World Cup.
• Rachael Haynes (Australia) scored 497 runs in this tournament, which is the second-highest tally in a 2022 Women’s World Cup.
ii. Also, Alyssa Healy has been named as the player of the match for scoring 170 runs off 138 balls and it stands as the highest score in the final of any ICC Cricket World Cup (in both men’s or women’s) surpassing Adam Gilchrist’s (Australia) 149 runs vs Sri Lanka in 2007.
iii. Sophie Ecclestone (England) was named as the highest wicket-taker for claiming 21 wickets in 9 matches.
Records In The 2022 ICC (International Cricket Council) Women’s World Cup:
i. Alyssa Healy became the first cricketer in history to score a century in the semi-final and final of the same World Cup.
ii. It is the fifth time (2022, 2005, 1997, 1982 and 1978) that the Australian women’s team have lifted the trophy staying undefeated throughout the tournament.
Records By Indian women’s cricket team:
i.Jhulan Goswami (Bowler) of India became the highest wicket-taker in the World Cup Tournament bagging overall of 43 wickets.Indian bowler Jhulan Goswami achieved this with 40 wickets in 31 matches, beating Australia’s Lyn Fullston’s 39 wickets in Women World cup tournaments.
ii. Indian women’s team ODI skipper Mithali Raj broke the record for most matches captained (24 matches) in the ICC Women’s World Cup, surpassing former Australian counterpart Belinda Clark (23 matches).
iii. Mithali Raj became the third cricketer (including men’s and women’s) and the first woman to play in 6 ODI World Cups.
SBI Signs MoU with The BSF to Provide Curated Benefits
The State Bank of India (SBI) and the Border Security Force (BSF) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to provide special benefits to serving and retired BSF personnel, as well as family pensioners, through the Central Armed Police Salary Package (CAPSP) Scheme.
This partnership intends to benefit and provide financial security for BSF personnel and their families by providing a variety of specialized benefits through CAPSP, which ensures that they and their family have easy access to banking services.
Features of the MoU:
i. The MoU ensures extensive benefits for the security forces, including complimentary Personal and Air Accidental Insurance (Death) Cover, additional cover in case of on-duty death, and Permanent Total Disability/Partial Disability Cover.
ii. The MoU will support child education and the marriage of girl children of deceased BSF personnel.
iii. Retired personnel will be eligible for complimentary Personal Accidental (Death) Insurance, irrespective of age, whereas family pensioners will be eligible for a bouquet of benefits.
iv. SBI will offer a zero-balance savings bank account with a host of complimentary benefits and a waiver of service charges to the BSF personnel considering their selfless services rendered to nation building.
v. It will also provide attractive interest rates and concessions on processing charges for serving personnel on home, car, education, and Xpress Credit personal loans.
Aegon Life and Ahalia Finforex Partners to Offer Insurance Cover to Unserved Segment Aegon Life Insurance Company(Aegon Life), a digital life insurance company and Ahalia Finforex, a Kerala-based diversified financial services firm has partnered to provide life insurance access to unorganized and unserved segments residing in tier 2, tier 3, and tier 4 towns.
Established in the year 2011, Indian Public Career Institute (IPCI) is Mumbai’s leading competitive Examination preparation institute with presence and help to build a few thousands careers especially in public sector organization. IPCI is today acknowledged as a multi-program training specialist run on various sector like IBPS/BANK (CLERK, P.O, S.O), Staff Selection Commission (SSC CGL), Railways, CDS & NDA under UPSC and other competitive/degree entrance examinations.
It provides exam oriented coaching to the students who are about to make their careers in the public sector and these courses are aimed at enabling the students to get a reputed Govt. Job through SSC , IBPS PO/Clerk or any other Govt. Job Exam and our success record is unparalleled , thus 8 out of every 10 students at this. It succeed in the Govt. Job exams they prepare for.
ADDRESS : 107, 1st Floor, Crystal Height, M Pasta Road,, Opp. Greater Bank Dadar East, Mumbai, Maharashtra 400014
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Website : https://ipci.co.in/
SSC SI & ASI (Delhi Police, CAPF, CISF) Exam Syllabus: Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspector in CISF Examination syllabus details are given below….
Syllabus:
Paper-I:
A General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and nonverbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/ Number Analogy, figural analogy, Semantic classification, symbolic/ Number classification, figural classification, semantic series, number series, figural series, problem solving, word building, coding & de-coding, numerical operations, symbolic operations, trends, space orientation, space visualization, venn diagrams, drawing inferences, punched hole/ pattern-folding & unfolding, figural pattern-folding and completion, indexing address matching, date & city matching classification, embedded figures, critical thinking , emotional intelligence, social intelligence, other sub-topics if any.
B. General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity, Indian Constitution, scientific Research etc.
C. Quantitative Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio and Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit & Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Allegation, Time and distance, Time & work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra and Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle , Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.
D. English Comprehension : Candidates ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested.
Paper-II:
English Language & Comprehension: Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidate‟s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on error recognition, filling in the blanks (using verbs, preposition, articles etc), Vocabulary, Spellings, Grammar, Sentence Structure, Synonyms, Antonyms, Sentence Completion, Phrases and Idiomatic use of Words, comprehension etc.
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Stenography Course for English Language | Shorthand classes in Dadar
Stenography is that the mixture of two different classes i.e. Typewriting and Shorthand. Stenography Course comprises skills in Shorthand, Transcription and Typewriting. The essential work of Stenographer in government offices is to require dictations, record speeches and transcription.
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Q1. The people (a)/of the world (b)/must (c)/unite (d)/No error (e)
Q2. Monika met me (a)/on the way (b)/and asked a one (c)/hundred rupees note (d)/No error (e)
Q3. Hundreds of (a)/passer-bys (b)/stopped at (c)/the place of accident. (d)/No error (e)
Q4. My parents obtained (a)/many informations (b)/ about this child (c)/last night. (d)/No error (e)
Q5. One should use (a)/ spectacle to protect (b)/ the eyes from bright sunlight. (d)/ No error (e)
Q6. Rani together with her parents (a)/went to the market (b)/and brought (c)/a lot of handkerchieves. (d)/No error (e)
Q7. Thousand of people (a)/had already been killed (b)/in the accident (c)/near Railway crossing. (d)/No error (e)
Q8. We will find a lamp-post (a)/at the front (b)/ side of the (c)/institute. (d)/No error (e)
Q9. Sunrise (a)/is a (b)/great (c)/ phenomena. (d)/ No error (e) Q10. Arabian nights are (a)/collection of very (b)/ interesting episodes (c)/of Adventure (d)/No error (e)
Q11. Ten kilometers (a)/is a long distance (b)/but five years (c)/are not a long period. (d)/No error (e)
Q12. There was (a)/ no money in the bank (b)/in Dhananjay’s (c)/ and Mintunjay’s joint account. (d)/ No error (e)
Q13. Sachin Tendulkar has (a)/scored more than (b)/ five thousands (c)/ runs. (d)/No error (e)
Q14. I went to the house (a)/and found that (b)/the cart’s wheel (c)/ was broken. (d)/No error (e)
Q15. The same board (a)/is used (b)/for chess (c) as well as for draughts. (d)/No error (e)
Q16. All the children have (a)/assembled on the (b)/and are waiting for (c)/the Principal to come. (d)/No error
Q18. I have been (a)/living in Hyderabad (b)/at my uncle (c)/since my birth. (d)/No error
Q17. His company is (a)/one of the few company(b)/ manufacturing this product (c)/in the whole country. (d)/No error (e) Q18. I have been (a)/living in Hyderabad (b)/at my uncle (c)/since my birth. (d)/No error
Q19. Gandhi ji lived a noble life of fasting (a)/and poverty (b)/in order to work for peaceful (c)/ and independence. (d)/No error (E)
Q20. A large number of (a)/ her classmate called for (b)/the hospital when (c)/ she was there. (d)/ No error (e)
Q21. A few word (a)/gratitude are enough (b)/to express your (c)/feelings sincerely. (d)/No error
Q22. No other (a)/typists in this (b)/office is as (c)/ slow as she. (d)/No error (e)
Q23. I have read (a)/Tagor’s poems (b)/who is a great poet. (c)/No error(d)
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1. The cattle in the meadow (A)/ was terrified to hear (B)/ the roar of a lion which appeared to be wild with anger (C)/ No error (D)
2. There should be (A)/ no furnitures (B) / in my room. (C)/ No error (D)
3. That house (A)/ is built of (B)/ stones. (C)/ No error (D)
4. Santosh lives (A)/ by the principals (B)/ he professes. (C)/ No error (D)
5. The astronomer (A)/ who predicts the future (B) / has arrived (C)/ No error (D)
6. He told me that (A)/ it was (B)/ his friend’s Sankar’s house (C)/ (d) No error.
7. Linguistic (A)/ is (B) /the study (C)/of language. (D) No error (E).
8. Five thousand (A)/rupees is a (B/ large amount (C)/for everybody. (D/ No error (E).
9. Our housing society comprises (A)/ six block and thirty flats (B)/in an area of (C)/about thousand square meters. (D)/No error (E)
10. His losses at the races (A)/ made the young man (B)/ lose the peace of his mind. (C)/ No error.
11. Our system of assigning (A)/different jobs to different people (B)/should be based on their strengths and weakness (D)/ No error (E)
12. The book must be old (A)/ for it’s cover (B)/is torn. (C)/No error(D)
13. Gandhi ji lived a noble life of fasting (A)/and poverty (B)/in order to work for peaceful (C)/and independence. (D)/No error (E).
14. I went to the temple (A)/with my parents(B)/my aunts (C)/and my cousin sisters. (D)/No error (E).
15. You will find (A)/ a lamp-post (B)/ at the front side (C)/ of the institute. (D)/ No error (E).
16. The poetries (A)/of R.N. Tagore (B)/ has been taught (C)/ in the class. (D)/ No error (E).
17. On a number of occasions (A)/we had noticed that (B)/ those employees (C)/were often in state of confused (D)/No error (E)
18. Hundreds of (A)/ passer-bys (B)/ stopped at (C)/ the place of accident. (D)/ No error (E)
19. Custom is (A)/ paid on goods (B)/ imported from (C)/ other countries. (D)/ No error (E).
20. My son is reading (A)/Dinkar’s and Nirala’s (B)/ poetries as a part (C)/of his syllabus. (D)/No error (E).
21. The name of (A)/Amitabh’s (B)/and Amitabh’s (C)/ father is Bachchan ji. (D)/No error. (B).
22. The widow (A)/who lives near his house (B)/is passing through (C)/ many crisis. (D)/No error (E).
23. His company is (A)/one of the few company (B)/ manufacturing this product (C)/in the whole country. (D)/No error (E).
24. One should use (A)/ spectacle to protect (B)/ the eyes from bright sunlight. (D)/ No error (E).
25. In spite of having received (A)/all the necessary data (B)/ he did not take any decision (C)/because of extraneous reasons. (D)/ No error (E)
26. I went to Delhi (A)/ and bought (B)/ much good (C)/ for my wife. (D)/No error (E).
27. In today meeting (A) we must first discuss (B)/and thrash out the problem (C)/one by one. (D)/No error (E).
28. No other (A)/typists in this (B)/office is as (C)/ slow as she. (D)/No error (E)
29. Her sister-in-laws (A)/are a cruel lot (B)/ and they harass her (C)/No error (D)
30. The sun whose (A)/ray give life to the (B)/ earth was venerated as (C)/God by our ancestors. (D)/ No error (E)
31. Aditi was unable (A)/to support her parent (B)/ even though both of them (C)/had no income of their own. (D)/ No error (E).
32. There is (A)/no place (B)/in this compartment. (C)/No error (D).
33. Most of that country (A)/hilly land is (B)/ unsuitable not only for building (C)/but also for agriculture. (D)/No error (E).
34. Raghu is going (A)/ to Stephen Hawking’s (B)/ the scientist’s (C)/ country. (D)/ No error (E).
35. The sheafs (A) / of the wheat plants were too heavy (B) / for the weak farmer (C) / to carry them on his head. (D) / No error (E)
36. It is truth (A)/that India is (B)/the largest consumer of (C)/gold in the world. No error (E).
37. Success in money-making (A)/ is not always (D)/ a good criteria (C)/ of real success in life. (D)/ No error (E).
38. The gentry (A)/of our colony (B)/ was invited (C)/ to attend the meeting. (D)/ No error (E).
39. Yogesh knew the (A)/value of obedient(B)/to well not to anticipate some (C)/censure of his act. (D)/ No error (E).
40. The meeting will not end (A)/till the chairman (B)/ gets approval from (C)/every members of the Board.(D)/No error (E).
41.The teacher and the guardian appreciate (A)/ Jaya walking early (B)/ in the morning with a view to (C)/ achieving normal health. (D)/ No error (E)
42. There was (A)/ no money in the bank (B)/in Dhananjay’s (C)/ and Mintunjay’s joint account. (D)/ No error (E).
43. Gulliver’s Travels (A)/is an (B)/ interesting book (C)/written by Jonathan Swift. (D)/No error
44. On my way (A)/to the railway station I met (B)/ one of your friend Ram. (D)/No error (E).
45. Rakhi met me (A)/on the way (B)/and asked a one (C)/hundred rupees note (D)/No error (E).
46. One of my most (A)/ widely spread (B)/ bad habit (C)/ is the use of tobacco. (D)/ No error (E)
47. All the children have (A)/assembled on the ground (B)/and are waiting for (C)/ the Principal coming (D)/No error
48. The vacancy was (A)/filled by Mr. Sharma (B)/ whom the manager said (C)/ought to be promoted. (D)/No error (E).
49. A postman (A)/ delivers our (B)/ letters from doors(D)/ to doors/No Error (E)
50. One must use (A)/his best efforts (B)/ if one (C)/wishes to succeed. (D)/No error (E)
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Reasoning is defined as the process of thinking about something in a Logical/Analytical way in order
to form a conclusion or judgment. The questions are based on alphabetical series, numeric and
symbol basis, decisions and arguments, statements and conclusions etc.
Complete section wise topic for all competitive exams:-
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1. Problem Based on Alphabet
2. Alphabet Series
3. Analogy & Classification
4. Coding- Decoding
5. Number & Word Problem
6. Mathematical Operation
7. Distance & Direction
8. Venn diagram
9. Blood relations
10. Order & Ranking
11. Syllogism
12. Sitting Arrangement
13. Input/ Output
14. Inequality
15. Selection Procedure
16. Puzzle test
17. Clock and Calendar
18. Data Sufficiency
1. Mirror & Water Image
2. Paper Cutting & Folding
3. Figure Based Problem
I. Completion
II. Formation
III. Grouping
IV. Finding
V. Counting
4. Dice & Cube
5. Non-verbal Series
6. Analogy/Classification
7. Dot Situation & Figure Similarity
1. Course of Action
2. Statement & Assumption
3. Statement & Conclusion
4. Strong & Weak Argument
6. Cause & Effect
7. Passage Inference
Q1. My cousin brother is a cheater (a)/ and he (b)/ cheats his family members and friends too. (c)/ No error (E)
Q2. We should not be(a)/ miserly in giving alm (b)/ to the beggars.(c)/ No error(d)
Q3. To provide more such facility (a)/ to its workers, the company (b)/ is planning to build(c)/ schools and parks in the township.(d)/ No error(e)
Q4. He left (b)/ his luggages (b)/ at the railway station (c)/ No Error
Q5. The police have arrested (a)/ the thieves but they failed(b)/ to get any information(c)/ about the valuable stolen.(d)/ No error(e)
Q6. He should understand (a)/ that Ethics make(b)/ the basis of life good.(c)/ No error(d)
Q7. Success in money-making (a)/ is not always (d)/ a good criteria (c)/ of real success in life. (d)/ no error (e)
Q8. The gentry (a)/of our colony (b)/ was invited (c)/ to attend the meeting. (d)/ no error (e).
Q9. The meeting will not end (a)/till the chairman (b)/ gets approval from (c)/every members of the board.(d)/no error (e)
Q10. William Shakespeare is (a)/ known for his dramas (b)/ more than his poetries.(c)/ No error(d)
Q11. One of my most (a)/ widely spread (b)/ bad habit (c)/ is the use of tobacco. (d)/ no error (e)
Q12. The judge issued (a)/ summon to the chairman (b)/ of the company because he(c)/ did not obey the honorable court.(d)/ No error(e)
Q13. The chairman and (a)/ all the members of (b)/ committee were present (c)/ in meeting of today.(d)/ No error(e)
Q14. I saw only (a)/ five police who(b)/ were running after(c)/ the bank-robbers.(d)/ No error(e)
Q15. He says that(a)/ a two-miles walk(b)/ always keeps him(c)/ healthy and fresh
Q16. There were no surprises (a)/ in the second bimonthly monetary policy (b)/ announcement by the (c)/ Reserve Bank of India. (d)/ No error. (e)Q17. When you see his(a)/ offsprings, you can’t(b)/ believe that he is(c)/ above seventy.(d)/ No error(e)
Q18. These type of books(a)/ are certainly helpful to the students(b)/ preparing for the Banking(c)/ Service Examinations.(d)/ No error(e)
Q19. Very few soldiers dared(a)/ to turn a deaf ear(b)/ their commander’s-in-chief order.(c)/ No error(d)
Q20. You should always be(a)/ true to your words if(b)/ you are to succeed in life.(c)/ No error(d)Q21. Without taking pain (a)/ one cannot progress in life(b)/ so we must keep this fact(c)/ in our mind.(d)/ No error(e)
Q22. Doctors did (a)/their best to save (b) the lifes of the (c)/accident victims. (d)/ No error (e)
Q23. Two and a half hour (a)/ have passed since (b)/ I returned from my village. (c)/ no error (d)
Q24. The rich is getting (a)/ richer and richer and (b)/ the poor are getting (c)/ poorer and poorer.(d)/ no error (e) Q25. I want you must (a)/ put your sign here (b)/ so that I may (c)/ accept your papers. (d)/ No error (e)
Q26. I am sure that (a)/ he cannot walk ever one(b)/ and a half kilometer.(c)/ No error(d)
Q27. If you have a way with words (a)/ (b) a good sense of design and administration ability / (c) you may enjoy working in high pressure world of advertising. /(d) No erroR
Q28. On Saturdays, (a)/ (b) students are suggested / (c) to wear white pants. / (d) No error
Q29. All his sister-in-laws (a)/ are extremely beautiful(b)/ to look at so the question(c)/ of selection is very puzzling.(d) No error(e)
Video Explanation on Given Link: https://youtu.be/SPQBeZgaAmM
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SSC CGL EXAM PREPRATION INSTITUTE IN MUMBAI
Q1. The company’s decision to issue (a)/ bonus shares clearly indicates (b)/ the management’s confident (c)/ about the future (d)/ No error (e)
Q2. Inspite that organisations are aware (a)/ of the importance of IT (b)/ they often do not know (c)/ how to deploy it (d)/ No error (e)
Q3. The angry at being (a)/ left out of the bonanza (b)/ is palpable among (c)/ employees of the organization. (d)/ No error (e)
Q4. Festivals are prime occasions (a)/ for splurging on presents and owing to improved economic situation, (b)/ the youth is gung-ho (c)/ about breaking all previous records. (d)/ No error (e)
Q5. After a complain was filed, (a)/ the police teams was given the photograph (b)/ of the accused from the CCTV footage (c)/ recorded at the hotel. (d)/ No error (e)
Q6. Watching the exponential (a)/ talent of world tennis (b)/ was the best things (c)/ to happen to him. (d)/ No error (e)
Q7. The couple’s work In (a)/ upgrading rural technicians (b)/ has set a benchmarking (c)/ for future generations. (d)/ No error (e)
Q8. The arguments assumes that (a)/ early detection of the disease (b)/ will lead to an immediate drop in (c)/ the mortality rating from this disease. (d)/ No error (e)
Q9. It is estimated that the government requires (a)/ two trillion rupees over the next few year (b)/ to fund the construction of 20,000 kilometres of road (c)/ under the national highways development project. (d)/ No error (e)
Q10. Sporting body such as FIFA (a)/ should be run transparently and rigorous standards (b)/ should be maintained to ensure that (c)/ sports are played in the right spirit. (d)/ No error (e)
Q11. Hectic schedules can (a)/ take a toll on anybody and (b)/ the solutions to this is (c) / a quick holiday to same exotic location. (d)/ No error (e)
Q12. A prisoner, in remanding, escaped (a) / from the clutches of two (b) / policemen while being taken to (c)/ the state’s central prison yesterday afternoon. (d)/ No error (e)
Q13. An incident when my youth taught (a)/me to stand up and (b)/ do what is right even if /(c) others do not agree with me. /(d) No error (e)
Q14. It is not the (a)/ faculty members (b)/ but the president (c)/ who decide this issue. (d)/ No error. (e)
Q15. The pledges that countries (a)/are making to battle climate change (b)/ will still result in the world (c)/ heating up by more than 6 degree Celsius. (d)/ No error (e)
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MAH CET MBA data interpretation previous year questions (2014-2020) complete book for upcoming CET & CAT exams. download pdf and E-Book from given link:
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SSC (Staff selection commission) conducts SSC CPO exam for the recruitment of various posts in Inspectors in CAPF (Central Armed Police Forces), Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and Assistant Sub-Inspector posts in CISF. SSC CPO 2022 exam is conducted in the month of November 2022. Solve SSC CPO previous year question papers to get a good understanding or complete idea about of the questions asked in past SSC CPO exam.
Download Previous Paper SSC CPO Exams-2022
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