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Analogy means ‘correspondence’(x:y::a:b). In the questions based on analogy, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. Analogy tools are therefore meant to test one’s ability to reason -how far you are able to compare and comprehend the relationship that exists between two objects, things or figures. Verbal analogy measures the ability to understand the relationship between two given words or group of letters, presented in abbreviated form. See the following example. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : Planet This abbreviated form conveys the idea that moon is related to satellite in the same way as the earth is related to planet. Look for the Kinds of Relationship There are many possibilities in establishing a relationship. Here are some useful points on the basic general knowledge required for the test.
Country and Currency
· India-Rupee
· US-Dollar
· UAE-Dirham
· USA-Dollar
· Turkey-Lira
· Germany-Mark
· Japan-Yen
· Greece-Drachma
· Argentina-Peso
· Russia-Rouble
Country and Capital/Famous Place
· India-Delhi
· Nepal- Kathmandu
· USA-Washington
· Bhutan-Thimphu
· Austria – Vienna
· Canada - Ottawa
· Japan – Tokyo
· China - Beijing
· Russia - Moscow
· Australia - Canberra
· UK – London
· Iran – Tehran
· Egypt-Cairo
· Greece-Athens
· Bangladesh-Dhaka
Male and Female
· Son : Daughter : : Nephew : Niece
· Drone - Bee
· Lion -Lioness
· Dog –Bitch
· Stag – Doe
· Gentleman - Lady
· Tiger – Tigress
· Horse - Mare
· Uncle - Aunt
Animal and Young One
Cat - Kitten : : Dog – Puppy
Kitten is the young one of a Cat and Puppy is the young one of a Dog.
· Butterfly – Caterpillar
· Lion – Cub
· Cow - Calf
· Man – Child
· Duck – Duckling
· Pig – Piglet
· Frog – Tadpole
· Stallion - Colt
· Hen- Chicken
· Sheep-Lamb
· Horse- Pony
· Swa-Cygnet
Animal and Sound
· Insect – Whine, Hum, Buzz
· Human – Cocks, Crow
· Birds – Caw, Quack, Scream
· Deer – Bell
· Dogs – Bark
· Dolphins – Click
· Donkeys – Bray
· Doves – Coo
· Ducks – Quack
· Eagles – Scream
· Elephants – Trumpet, Roar
· Flies – Buzz, Hum
· Foxes – Bark, Yelp, Simper
· Frogs – Croak
· Giraffes – Bleat
· Goats – Bleat
· Geese – Cackle, Quack
· Grasshoppers – Chirp
· Hamsters – Squeak
· Hares – Squeak
· Hens – Cackle, Cluck
· Hogs – Grunt
· Horses – Neigh, Snort, Whinny, Nicker
· Hummingbirds – Hum
· Hyenas – Laugh, Scream
· Jackals – Howl
· Kangaroos – Chortle
Animal and Keeping Place (Dwelling Place)
· Spider – Web
· Bird – Nest
· Pig – Sty
· Eskimo – Igloo
· Bee – Hive
· Nun – Convent
· Lion – Den
· Knight – Mansion
· Hare – Burrow
· Gypsy – Caravan
· Mouse – Hole
· Cow – Byre / Pen
· Peasant – Cottage
· Monk – Monastery
· Eagle – Eyrie
· Lunatic – Asylum
· Horse – Stable
· Convict – Prison
· King – Palace
· Soldier – Barracks
· Owl – Barn
Example:
Carpenter – Furniture :: Mason – Wall
(Carpetner makes furniture and a mason builds a wall.)
· Author – Book
· Editor – Newspaper
· Architect – Design
· Farmer – Crop
· Butcher – Meat
· Judge – Justice
· Chef – Food
· Poet – Poem
· Choreographer – Ballet
· Teacher – Education
· Cobbler – Shoes
· Tailor – Clothes
Example:
Woodcutter – Axe :: Soldier – Gun
(Axe is the tool used by a woodcutter, likewise a soldier uses a gun.)
· Author – Pen
· Doctor – Stethoscope
· Astronomer – Telescope
· Farmer – Plough
· Barber – Scissors
· Gardener – Harrow
· Butcher – Chopper
· Painter – Brush
· Blacksmith – Anvil
· Sculptor – Chisel
· Bricklayer – Trowel
· Surgeon – Scalpel
· Carpenter – Saw
· Tailor – Needle
· Cobbler – Awl
Example:
Pen – Write :: Knife – Cut
(Pen is used for writing and knife is used for cutting.)
· Axe – Grind
· Spade – Dig
· Auger – Bore
· Shovel – Scoop
· Chisel – Carve
· Spoon – Feed
· Gun – Shoot
· Spanner – Grip
· Loudspeaker – Amplify
· Steering – Drive
· Microscope – Magnify
· Sword – Slaughter
· Oar – Row
Example:
Farmer – Field :: Doctor – Hospital
(A farmer works in a field while a doctor works in a hospital.)
· Artist – Theatre
· Pilot – Cockpit
· Actor – Stage
· Sailor – Ship
· Clerk – Office
· Scientist – Laboratory
· Driver – Cabin
· Teacher – School
· Engineer – Site
· Umpire – Pitch
· Lawyer – Court
· Worker – Factory
· Mechanic – Garage
· Warrior – Battlefield
Example:
Cloth – Fibre :: Petrol – Crude Oil
(Cloth is made from fibre and petrol is extracted from crude oil.)
· Book – Paper
· Omelette – Egg
· Butter – Milk
· Paper – Pulp
· Furniture – Wood
· Road – Asphalt
· Fabric – Yarn
· Rubber – Latex
· Jaggery – Sugarcane
· Shoes – Leather
· Metal – Ore
· Sack – Jute
· Oil – Seed
Quantity and Unit
Example:
Length – Metre :: Distance – Light Year
(Metre is the unit of length and light year is the unit of distance.)
· Angle – Radian
· Power – Watt
· Current – Ampere
· Pressure – Pascal
· Energy – Joule
· Resistance – Ohm
· Force – Newton
· Time – Second
· Mass – Kilogram
· Volume – Litre
· Potential – Volt
· Work – Joule
Instrument and Measurement
Example:
Barometer – Pressure :: Speedometer – Speed
(Barometer measures pressure and speedometer measures speed.)
· Ammeter – Current
· Rain Gauge – Rainfall
· Anemometer – Wind Velocity
· Screw Gauge – Thickness
· Balance – Mass
· Seismograph – Earthquakes
· Hygrometer – Humidity
· Sphygmomanometer – Blood Pressure
· Thermometer – Temperature
Sport and Place of Playing
· Badminton – Court
· Boxing – Ring
· Race – Track
· Tennis – Court
· Skating – Rink
· Athletics – Stadium
· Hockey – Ground
· Wrestling – Arena
· Cricket – Pitch
· Exercise – Gymnasium
Study and Topic
Example:
Botany – Plants :: Ornithology – Birds
(Botany is the study of plants and ornithology is the study of birds.)
· Anthropology – Man
· Orography – Mountains
· Astrology – Future
· Palaeontology – Fossils
· Conchology – Shells
· Pedology – Soil
· Cardiology – Heart
· Pathology – Diseases
· Entomology – Insects
· Semantics – Language
· Haematology – Blood
· Seismology – Earthquakes
· Nephrology – Kidney
· Taxonomy – Classification
· Oology – Eggs
· Zoology – Animals
Word and Synonym
Example:
Mend – Repair :: House – Home
· Abode – Dwelling
· Fierce – Violent
· Abduct – Kidnap
· Happy – Glad
· Ban – Prohibition
· Presage – Predict
· Blend – Mix
· Solicit – Request
· Brim – Edge
· Substitute – Replace
· Dissipate – Squander
· Aborigine – Native
Word and Antonym
Example:
Ignore – Notice :: Friend – Foe
· Advance – Retreat
· Gentle – Harsh
· Best – Worst
· Gradual – Abrupt
· Cruel – Kind
· Initial – Final
· Chaos – Peace
· Kindle – Extinguish
· Create – Destroy
· Lend – Borrow
· Cordial – Hostile
· Robust – Weak
· Deep – Shallow
· Sink – Float
Word and Intensity
Example:
Anger – Rage :: Joy – Ecstasy
(Rage is a greater degree of anger and ecstasy is a greater degree of joy.)
· Crime – Sin
· Refuse – Deny
· Error – Blunder
· Unhappy – Sad
· Quarrel – War
· Wish – Desire
· Sink – Drown
· Famous – Renowned
Directions: In each of the following questions there is a certain relation between the two given words on one side of (: :) and one word is given on the other side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair. Choose the correct alternative.
(1) Smart
(2) Heroic
(3) Courageous
(4) Handsome
(5) None of these
(1) Chemistry
(2) Medicine
(3) Palaeontology
(4) Mechanics
(5) None of these
(1) Human being
(2) Children
(3) Father
(4) Apes
(5) None of these
(1) Increase
(2) Investigate
(3) Examine
(4) Magnify
(5) None of these
(1) Ring
(2) Sphere
(3) Circle
(4) Ball
(5) None of these
Q6. Meat : Vegetarian : : Liquor : ?
(1) Insane
(2) Introvert
(3) Teetotaller
(4) Foolish
(5) None of these
Q7. Tuberculosis : Lungs : : Cataract : ?
(1) Ear
(2) Throat
(3) Skin
(4) Eye
(5) None of these
Q8. Professor : Lecture : : Doctor : ?
(1) Hospital
(2) Disease
(3) Medicine
(4) Patient
(5) None of these
(1) Sadness
(2) Defeat
(3) Anger
(4) Frustration
(5) None of these
(1) Court
(2) Punishment
(3) Lawyer
(4) Judgement
(5) None of these
The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship between each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
(1) Library : Catalogue
(2) Journal : Newspaper
(3) Book : Encyclopaedia
(4) College : Account
(5) None of these
(1) Brain : Psychology
(2) History : Histology
(3) Civics : Polity
(4) Fossils : Palaeontology
(5) None of these
(1) Flower : Bunch
(2) Drop : Ocean
(3) Sailor : Crew
(4) Deer : Jungle
(5) None of these
(1) Mathematics : Geometry
(2) Radio : Song
(3) Pathology : Disease
(4) Communication : Phone
(5) None of these
(1) Brass : Metal
(2) Hen : Poultry
(3) Paper : Book
(4) Karnataka : State
(5) None of these
(1) Whale : Water
(2) Dog : Lungs
(3) Car : Wheels
(4) Pen : Paper
(5) None of these
(1) Amoeba : Dysentery
(2) Acid : Burns
(3) Quinine : Malaria
(4) Iron : Anemia
(5) None of these
(1) Cool : Cold
(2) Accident : Death
(3) Pneumonia : Fever
(4) Fall : Slip
(5) None of these
(1) Sound : Wave
(2) Speed : Time
(3) Distance : Kilometre
(4) Ohm : Resistance
(5) None of these
(1) Hindus : Temple
(2) Sikhs : Avesta
(3) Christians : Christ
(4) Jews : Torah
(5) None of these
In each of the following questions, the first two words have a definite relationship. Choose one word out of the given four alternatives which will fill in the blank space and show the same relationship with the third word as between the first two.
(1) Clean
(2) Dust
(3) Sweep
(4) Floor
(5) None of these
(1) Hardship
(2) Rest
(3) Poverty
(4) Difficulty
(5) None of these
(1) Steering
(2) Water
(3) Oar
(4) Sail
(5) None of these
(1) Pressure
(2) Blood Pressure
(3) Precipitation
(4) Heartbeat
(5) None of these
(1) Story
(2) Page
(3) Chapter
(4) Author
(5) None of these
Q.No. | Answer |
|---|---|
1 | (4) |
2 | (2) |
3 | (1) |
4 | (4) |
5 | (3) |
6 | (3) |
7 | (4) |
8 | (3) |
9 | (4) |
10 | (4) |
11 | (1) |
12 | (4) |
13 | (3) |
14 | (3) |
15 | (4) |
16 | (3) |
17 | (3) |
18 | (1) |
19 | (4) |
20 | (4) |
21 | (3) |
22 | (1) |
23 | (3) |
24 | (2) |
25 | (3) |
“Beautiful” describes the quality of prettiness in girls, while “Handsome” describes the quality of prettiness in boys.
Anatomy is a branch of Zoology. Likewise, Paediatrics is a branch of Medicine.
Matricide is the killing of one's mother. Similarly, Homicide is the killing of a human being.
A microphone makes sound louder, while a microscope magnifies an object.
The first is a part of the second.
A vegetarian never eats meat. Similarly, a teetotaller never drinks liquor.
Tuberculosis is a disease of the lungs. Similarly, cataract is a disease of the eye.
A professor delivers lectures to students. Similarly, a doctor gives medicine to patients.
Victory leads to encouragement, whereas failure leads to frustration.
The function of a doctor is to diagnose a disease, and the function of a judge is to give judgement.
A menu gives the list of items available in a restaurant. Similarly, a catalogue gives the list of books available in a library.
The study of the heart is called Cardiology. Similarly, the study of fossils is called Palaeontology.
A group of soldiers is called a regiment. Similarly, a group of sailors is called a crew.
Acoustics is the science of sound. Similarly, Pathology is the study of diseases.
Yen is a currency. Similarly, Karnataka is a state.
Wings help a bird to move. Similarly, wheels help a car to move.
Aspirin is used to cure headache. Similarly, Quinine is used to cure malaria.
The second is a more intensive form of the first.
Ampere is the unit of current. Similarly, Ohm is the unit of resistance.
The Quran is the holy book of Muslims. Similarly, the Torah is the holy book of Jews.
The second denotes the function of the first.
The given words are opposites of each other.
The second is the tool used to move the first.
A Hygrometer is an instrument used to measure humidity. Similarly, a Sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure.
The second is a unit or component of the first.
Directions: There is a certain relation between two given Words/Numbers/Alphabets on one side of (::) and one Word/Number/Alphabet is given on the other side of (::), while another Word/Number/Alphabet is to be found from the given alternatives having the same relation with this Word/Number/Alphabet as the given pair. Select the correct alternative.
(1) Ceramic
(2) Carbon
(3) Silver
(4) Coke
(5) None of these
(1) Rack
(2) Newspaper
(3) Library
(4) Books
(5) None of these
(1) Snakes
(2) Insects
(3) Birds
(4) Germs
(5) None of these
(1) Grind
(2) Grip
(3) Magnify
(4) Feed
(5) None of these
(1) Lawlessness
(2) Government
(3) Monarchy
(4) Disorder
(5) None of these
(1) Brain
(2) Idiot
(3) Think
(4) Intelligence
(5) None of these
(1) Rubbish
(2) Gangue
(3) Sand
(4) Dregs
(5) None of these
(1) Seat
(2) Horse
(3) Saddle
(4) Chair
(5) None of these
(1) Country
(2) Depart
(3) Banish
(4) Punishment
(5) None of these
(1) Usual
(2) Restrained
(3) Striking
(4) Evocative
(5) None of these
(1) 23
(2) 82
(3) 97
(4) 113
(5) None of these
(1) 867
(2) 868
(3) 872
(4) 888
(5) None of these
(1) 169
(2) 248
(3) 261
(4) 268
(5) None of these
(1) 210
(2) 216
(3) 222
(4) 240
(5) None of these
(1) 55
(2) 63
(3) 64
(4) 65
(5) None of these
(1) 901
(2) 1009
(3) 9889
(4) 9999
(5) None of these
(1) 2367
(2) 2451
(3) 2531
(4) 4521
(5) None of these
(1) 2154
(2) 3562
(3) 5487
(4) 5784
(5) None of these
(1) 41
(2) 56
(3) 60
(4) 65
(5) None of these
(1) 125
(2) 248
(3) 342
(4) 343
(5) None of these
(1) ORK
(2) OSQ
(3) PRJ
(4) UXQ
(5) None of these
(1) CLL
(2) CLM
(3) CML
(4) CEP
(5) None of these
(1) oxpixdig
(2) ocqicyig
(3) ocqixcjg
(4) ocqixcig
(5) None of these
(1) ADGF
(2) HDGE
(3) HDGF
(4) HEGF
(5) None of these
(1) mulmul
(2) sulsul
(3) munmun
(4) srspql
(5) None of these
(1) ABJ
(2) CBD
(3) IJH
(4) AJB
(5) AKB
(1) CLB
(2) CLD
(3) AKB
(4) EMF
(5) CDB
(1) PJG
(2) CDP
(3) CLP
(4) PME
(5) PHE
(1) GBLD
(2) GBJO
(3) GPLD
(4) GBDM
(5) IBDE
(1) KLM
(2) KLF
(3) OBM
(4) KLO
(5) KMN
Q31. ABSORPTION : ROSBANOITP :: VISUALIZER : ?
(1) AUSIVREILZ
(2) VUAISREZIL
(3) AUSIVREZIL
(4) UASIVERZIL
Q32. SLOW : MPTX :: CAUGHT : ?
(1) WVHIUV
(2) BDHIUV
(3) BDIUVH
(4) DBVHIU
Q33. 16 : 224 :: ?
(1) 20 : 400
(2) 22 : 440
(3) 25 : 650
(4) 17 : 289
Q34. CROW : XILD :: SPONGE : ?
(1) HKLPRV
(2) HKLMSY
(3) HKLMTV
(4) FJLMTV
Q35. 5 : 75 :: ?
(1) 6 : 36
(2) 8 : 192
(3) 9 : 343
(4) 7 : 83
Q36. ZODIAC : DOZCAI :: MISTER : ?
(1) NITUFS
(2) SFUTJN
(3) SMIRTE
(4) SIMRET
Q37. 14 : 588 :: ?
(1) 20 : 980
(2) 12 : 666
(3) 18 : 972
(4) 11 : 344
Q38. VOWEL : ZPAFP :: FRICK : ?
(1) JVJGO
(2) OGMVH
(3) JVMGO
(4) JVGOK
Q39. BEST : WVHE :: CROP : ?
(1) PRUM
(2) SRVG
(3) SRUF
(4) RTUF
Q40. 7 : 198 :: ?
(1) 6 : 72
(2) 9 : 162
(3) 5 : 240
(4) 8 : 228
Q41. PORCH : IDSPQ :: MOIST : ?
(1) OMITS
(2) UTJQO
(3) UTJPN
(4) OPJTU
Q42. JEALOUSY : LAYSEJUO :: FUSEWIRE : ?
(1) REWISEFU
(2) ESERUFIW
(3) EEFIRSUW
(4) ESUFERIW
Q43. ACTION : TCANOI :: BOTTLE : ?
(1) EBLOTT
(2) TOBELT
(3) OBTTEL
(4) ELTTOB
Q44. 84 : 72 :: ?
(1) 64 : 56
(2) 68 : 54
(3) 76 : 62
(4) 77 : 64
Q45. RUBBER : BURREB :: CATTLE : ?
(1) ACTTEL
(2) TACELT
(3) ELTTAC
(4) TACTLE
Q46. FEEDBACK : DEABEFKC :: HIGHLAND : ?
(1) HGIHDNAL
(2) HGALIHDN
(3) ALHGDNIH
(4) IHHGALDN
Q47. 48 : 60 :: ?
(1) 78 : 94
(2) 64 : 72
(3) 86 : 100
(4) 98 : 114
Q48. (2, 3, 25) : ?
(1) (9, 11, 81)
(2) (7, 11, 169)
(3) (15, 17, 400)
(4) (19, 23, 441)
Q49. 19 : 171 :: 9 : ?
(1) 81
(2) 49
(3) 86
(4) 98
Q50. 531 : 441 :: 3114 : ?
(1) 5201
(2) 2151
(3) 8610
(4) 9014
Classification refers to categorization, the process in which ideas and objects are recognized, differentiated, and understood.
There are five types of Classification questions generally asked in examinations:
All questions are based on numbers. The pattern may involve:
Four options follow the same pattern, while one does not belong to the group.
Q1. Which number does not belong to the group?
(a) 19
(b) 17
(c) 13
(d) 27
(e) 37
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All others are prime numbers, whereas 27 is not.
(a) 52
(b) 39
(c) 91
(d) 117
(e) 27
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All numbers except 27 are multiples of 13.
(a) 4
(b) 36
(c) 16
(d) 64
(e) 84
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All others are perfect squares.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
(e) 12
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All others are divisible by 5.
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 51
(d) 72
(e) 82
(a) 24
(b) 32
(c) 27
(d) 36
(e) 15
(a) 56
(b) 35
(c) 49
(d) 42
(e) 51
(a) 343
(b) 64
(c) 75
(d) 27
(e) 216
Q1. (e) — All are divisible by 3 except 82.
Q2. (b) — All are divisible by 3 except 32.
Q3. (e) — All are divisible by 7 except 51.
Q4. (c) — All are cubes except 75.
Questions are based on alphabetical patterns and relationships.
(a) BE
(b) GJ
(c) LO
(d) QT
(e) US
(a) AD
(b) EI
(c) JN
(d) OS
(e) TX
(a) PQR
(b) CDE
(c) HIJ
(d) KLM
(e) TSU
(a) EVW
(b) FUV
(c) JQR
(d) LOP
(e) STV
There are two letters between the given pair in all options except (e).
There are four letters between the pair in all options except (a).
All others contain letters in continuous alphabetical order.
In all other options, the 2nd and 3rd letters are consecutive; option (e) does not follow the pattern.
These questions combine letters and numbers.
(a) BY27
(b) GH15
(c) LM25
(d) QT35
(e) US40
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Sum of alphabetical positions equals the number in all options except (d).
(a) A2D
(b) E12Q
(c) C11N
(d) O5T
(e) T6Y
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Numerical difference of letters follows the same pattern except in (d).
(a) PQR17
(b) CDE4
(c) HIJ9
(d) KLM12
(e) TSU18
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Numerical value of the middle letter matches the given number pattern except (a).
(a) EVW17
(b) FUV15
(c) JQR7
(d) LOP4
(e) SHV12
Answer: (e)
Explanation: Difference between the first and second letters follows the same rule except (e).
These questions are based on:
(a) Sitar
(b) Guitar
(c) Sarod
(d) Violin
(e) Flute
Answer: (e)
Explanation: All others are played using hands, while a flute is played using the mouth.
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Earth
(d) Uranium
(e) Moon
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Uranium is a metal; others are celestial bodies.
(a) Wood
(b) Table
(c) Chair
(d) Sofa
(e) Bench
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Others are objects made from wood.
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Violet
(e) Grey
Answer: (e)
Explanation: Grey is not a rainbow colour.
(a) April
(b) July
(c) September
(d) November
(e) June
Answer: (b)
Explanation: July has 31 days; others have 30 days.
Questions are based on relationships between pairs.
(a) Car – Road
(b) Ship – Sea
(c) Aeroplane – Pilot
(d) Rocket – Space
(e) Train – Track
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All others show vehicle and route/place, whereas Pilot is a person.
(a) IKL : MPO
(b) EGH : ITS
(c) UWX : YDC
(d) PRS : TLH
(e) SUV : HFE
Answer: (d)
Explanation: In all other pairs, the last two letters are opposite letters of each other; option (d) does not follow the pattern.
Practice Test-1
Q1. (1) Ladder (2) Staircase (3) Bridge
(4) Escalator (5) Lift
Q2. (1) Nephrology (2) Entomology (3) Astrology
(4) Mycology (5) Pathology
Q3. (1) Swimming (2) Breathing (3) Walking
(4) Dancing (5) Playing
Q4. (1) Arrow (2) Missile (3) Sword
(4) Bullet (5) Spear
Q5. (1) Biscuit (2) Chocolate (3) Cake
(4) Bread (5) Pastry
Q6. (1) Tortoise (2) Snail (3) Turtle
(4) Spider (5) Oyster
Q7. (1) Virgo (2) Pisces (3) Libra
(4) Sagittarius (5) Orion
Q8. (1) Japan (2) India (3) Sri Lanka
(4) New Zealand (5) Malagasy
Q9. (1) Producer (2) Director (3) Investor
(4) Financier (5) Entrepreneur
Q10.(1) Chariot (2) Car (3) Bus
(4) Wagon (5) Sledge
Q11.(1) Crow (2) Pigeon (3) Parrot
(4) Butterfly (5) Peacock
Q12.(1) Hepatitis (2) Tetanus (3) Cancer
(4) Conjunctivitis (5) Measles
Q13.(1) Fox (2) Wolf (3) Jackal
(4) Deer (5) Panther
Q14.(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Phosphorus (5) Hydrogen
Q15.(1) Man (2) Mother (3) Sister
(4) Father (5) Brother
Q16.(1) EWZQ (2) OSLS (3) GFKD
(4) VSPM (5) QBTV
Q17.(1) 26Z (2) 24X (3) 22V
(4) 20S (5) 18R
Q18.(1) BTR (2) CTR (3) DTR
(4) ETR (5) FTR
Q19.(1) NOOP (2) HIIJ (3) PQQR
(4) UVVX (5) XYYZ
Q20.(1) TYN (2) BFD (3) MQO
(4) LPN (5) QUS
Q21.(1) BCD (2) HIJ (3) MNP
(4) TUV (5) WXY
Q22.(1) MNO (2) CDE (3) GHI
(4) PQR (5) STU
Q23.(1) BEH (2) ILO (3) NQT
(4) GHK (5) RUX
Q24.(1) TAN (2) RAE (3) UCT
(4) AWS (5) YSX
Q25.(1) 135 (2) 286 (3) 371
(4) 591 (5) 719
Answers Key:
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (5) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (5)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (5) 25. (2)
1. All except Bridge are used for up and down movement.
2. All except Astrology are connected with Biology.
3. Breathing is the only natural action.
4. All except Sword strike the target from a distance.
5. All except Chocolate are baked items.
6. All except Spider have hard protective shells.
7. All except Orion are zodiac signs, while Orion is a constellation.
8. All except India are islands, while India is a peninsula.
9. All except Director spend money.
10. All except Sledge have wheels.
11. All except Butterfly are birds, whereas Butterfly is an insect.
12. All except Tetanus are diseases caused by viruses, while Tetanus is caused by bacteria.
13. All except Deer are flesh-eating animals.
14. All others are gases.
15. All other words define some relationship.
16. No letter is repeated in any other group.
17. In all other options, the number denotes the position of the letter in the English alphabet.
18. No other group has a vowel.
19. All other groups contain three consecutive letters with the second letter repeated twice.
20. In all other options, there are three alternate letters.
21. In all others, the letters are consecutive.
22. All except option (4) are consecutive letters ending with a vowel.
23. In all other groups, there are two letters between the 1st & 2nd letters and also between the 2nd & 3rd letters.
24. In all others, a meaningful word can be formed by the letters.
25. In all others, the numbers are odd numbers.
Direction (Q.1 to 25): Given below are five alternatives. Four of them are alike in a certain way and form a group. Find the one that does not belong to that group.
Q1. (1) Painting (2) Art (3) Sculpture
(4) Drawing (5) Music
Q2. (1) Mountain (2) Plateau (3) Valley
(4) Peak (5) Hill
Q3. (1) Dynamics (2) Mechanics (3) Electronics
(4) Optics (5) Physics
Q4. (1) Consumer (2) Customer (3) Buyer
(4) Purchaser (5) Retailer
Q5. (1) Jasmine (2) Coriander (3) Lotus
(4) Lily (5) Rose
Q6. (1) Moth (2) Bee (3) Lizard
(4) Cockroach (5) Aphid
Q7. (1) Kiwi (2) Eagle (3) Emu
(4) Penguin (5) Ostrich
Q8. (1) Swimming (2) Diving (3) Driving
(4) Sailing (5) Fishing
Q9. (1) Pupil (2) Iris (3) Cornea
(4) Medulla (5) Retina
Q10. (1) Sahara (2) Thar (3) Gobi
(4) Sunderbans (5) Kalahari
Q11. (1) Skull (2) Pelvis (3) Fibula
(4) Appendix (5) Vertebra
Q12. (1) Cap (2) Turban (3) Helmet
(4) Veil (5) Hat
Q13. (1) Snore (2) Slumber (3) Yawn
(4) Doze (5) Dream
Q14. (1) Epicentre (2) Seismology (3) Focus
(4) Crater (5) Richter Scale
Q15. (1) Curious (2) Humour (3) Wise
(4) Angry (5) Mighty
Q16. (1) Flat (2) Bungalow (3) House
(4) Temple (5) Palace
Q17. (1) Sweet (2) Cold (3) Sour
(4) Bitter (5) Salty
Q18. (1) Paper (2) Pencil (3) Eraser
(4) Ink (5) Sharpener
Q19. (1) Cotton (2) Rice (3) Wheat
(4) Gram (5) Barley
Q20. (1) Cricket (2) Baseball (3) Football
(4) Billiards (5) Badminton
Q21. (1) 17 (2) 44 (3) 21
(4) 66 (5) 19
Q22. (1) DFI (2) MOQ (3) BDG
(4) RTW (5) IKN
Q23. (1) 341 (2) 679 (3) 385
(4) 495 (5) 561
Q24. (1) 250 (2) 150 (3) 125
(4) 116 (5) 105
Q25. (1) BdE (2) XpD (3) HQu
(4) MkV (5) PtZ1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (5) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3)The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has released the Limited Departmental Competitive Examination (LDCE) 2025 Notification for recruitment to 376 vacancies.
The recruitment is being conducted for the posts of Junior Secretariat Assistant (JSA) / Lower Division Clerk (LDC) and Senior Secretariat Assistant (SSA) / Upper Division Clerk (UDC).
Eligible candidates can apply online through the SSC portal before the closing date.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Organization | Staff Selection Commission (SSC) |
| Exam Name | SSC LDCE 2025 |
| Posts | JSA/LDC, SSA/UDC |
| Total Vacancies | 376 |
| Application Mode | Online |
| Job Location | India |
| Salary | ₹19,900 – ₹81,100 |
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Notification Release | June 2026 |
| Online Application Start | June 2026 |
| Last Date to Apply | 26 June 2026 |
| Admit Card | To Be Announced |
| Exam Date | To Be Announced |
| Post | Qualification |
|---|---|
| JSA / LDC | 12th Pass |
| SSA / UDC | Bachelor's Degree |
Candidates should check the official notification for detailed departmental eligibility conditions.
Age criteria will be applicable as per SSC LDCE rules and departmental guidelines.
Please refer to the official notification for fee details and exemptions.
| Post | Pay Level | Salary |
|---|---|---|
| JSA / LDC | Level 2 | ₹19,900 – ₹63,200 |
| SSA / UDC | Level 4 | ₹25,500 – ₹81,100 |
Additional allowances and benefits are applicable as per Central Government rules.
| Stage | Process |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Written Examination |
| Stage 2 | Departmental Evaluation (if applicable) |
| Stage 3 | Document Verification |
| Stage 4 | Final Selection |
| Subject | Topics |
|---|---|
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | Analogy, Series, Coding-Decoding, Classification |
| General Awareness | Current Affairs, History, Geography, Polity |
| Quantitative Aptitude | Percentage, Ratio, Profit & Loss, Time & Work |
| English Language | Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension |
| Office Procedures | Departmental Knowledge (as applicable) |
| Subject | Coverage |
|---|---|
| General Intelligence | Included |
| General Awareness | Included |
| Quantitative Aptitude | Included |
| English Language | Included |
| Departmental Knowledge | Included |
1️⃣ Visit the SSC official website.
2️⃣ Login/Register.
3️⃣ Fill the application form.
4️⃣ Upload required documents.
5️⃣ Submit the application form.
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The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has released the official notification for the Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) September 2026.
Candidates interested in teaching positions for Primary Level (Classes I-V) and Junior Level (Classes VI-VIII) can apply online from 11 May 2026 to 10 June 2026.
CTET is one of India's most important teacher eligibility examinations and serves as a qualifying test for teaching positions in Central Government schools and many State Government and private schools.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam Name | Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) |
| Conducting Authority | CBSE |
| Session | September 2026 |
| Application Mode | Online |
| Exam Mode | Offline (OMR Based) |
| Paper I | Class I to V |
| Paper II | Class VI to VIII |
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Application Start Date | 11 May 2026 |
| Last Date to Apply | 10 June 2026 |
| Last Date Fee Payment | 10 June 2026 |
| Correction Window | 15–18 June 2026 |
| CTET Exam Date | 06 September 2026 |
| Exam City Slip | Before Exam |
| Admit Card | 2 Days Before Exam |
| Answer Key | After Exam |
| Result | October 2026 |
| Category | Fee |
|---|---|
| General / OBC / EWS | ₹1000 |
| SC / ST / PwD | ₹500 |
| Category | Fee |
|---|---|
| General / OBC / EWS | ₹1200 |
| SC / ST / PwD | ₹600 |
Payment Mode: Debit Card, Credit Card, Net Banking, E-Challan
There is no upper age limit for appearing in CTET.
Candidates must fulfill the educational qualification criteria prescribed by CBSE.
Candidates must satisfy any one of the following:
✅ Senior Secondary with at least 50% marks and 2-Year Diploma in Elementary Education
✅ Senior Secondary with at least 45% marks and 2-Year Diploma in Elementary Education as per NCTE norms
✅ Senior Secondary with at least 50% marks and 4-Year B.El.Ed
✅ Senior Secondary with at least 50% marks and 2-Year Diploma in Special Education
Candidates must satisfy any one of the following:
✅ Graduation and 2-Year Diploma in Elementary Education
✅ Graduation/Post Graduation with at least 50% marks and B.Ed
✅ Graduation with at least 45% marks and B.Ed as per NCTE norms
✅ Senior Secondary with at least 50% marks and 4-Year B.El.Ed
✅ Senior Secondary with at least 50% marks and B.A.Ed/B.Sc.Ed
✅ Graduation with at least 50% marks and B.Ed (Special Education)
✅ Post Graduation with 55% marks and Integrated B.Ed-M.Ed
| Subject | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Child Development & Pedagogy | 30 | 30 |
| Language I | 30 | 30 |
| Language II | 30 | 30 |
| Mathematics | 30 | 30 |
| Environmental Studies | 30 | 30 |
| Total | 150 | 150 |
| Subject | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Child Development & Pedagogy | 30 | 30 |
| Language I | 30 | 30 |
| Language II | 30 | 30 |
| Mathematics & Science OR Social Studies | 60 | 60 |
| Total | 150 | 150 |
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Total Questions | 150 |
| Total Marks | 150 |
| Duration | 2 Hours 30 Minutes |
| Negative Marking | No |
| Mode | Offline (OMR Based) |
Visit the official CTET website.
Complete registration.
Fill personal and educational details.
Upload photograph and signature.
Pay the examination fee.
Preview all details carefully.
Submit the application form.
Download and print the confirmation page.
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The Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) have released the RRB Technician Recruitment 2026 Short Notice (CEN 02/2026) for 6565 vacancies across India.
The recruitment includes vacancies for Technician Grade I Signal and Technician Grade III posts in various Railway zones. Candidates possessing ITI, Diploma, Engineering Degree or equivalent qualifications can apply as per the eligibility criteria mentioned in the detailed notification.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Organization | Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) |
| Notification No. | CEN 02/2026 |
| Post Name | Technician Grade I Signal & Technician Grade III |
| Total Vacancies | 6565 |
| Application Mode | Online |
| Job Location | Across India |
| Department | Ministry of Railways |
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Short Notice Release | 23 May 2026 |
| Online Application Start | 30 June 2026 |
| Last Date to Apply | 29 July 2026 |
| Detailed Notification Release | Before Online Application |
| CBT Exam Date | To Be Announced |
| Post | Vacancies |
|---|---|
| Technician Grade I Signal | 323 |
| Technician Grade III | 6242 |
| Total | 6565 |
✅ B.Sc. in relevant subjects
OR
✅ Diploma / Engineering Degree in relevant discipline
✅ 10th Pass (Matriculation)
AND
✅ ITI in relevant trade
OR
✅ Act Apprenticeship in relevant trade
| Post | Age Limit |
|---|---|
| Technician Grade I Signal | 18 – 36 Years |
| Technician Grade III | 18 – 33 Years |
✅ Age relaxation applicable as per Government rules.
⚠️ Category-wise application fee details will be available in the detailed notification.
| Post | Pay Level | Initial Pay |
|---|---|---|
| Technician Grade I Signal | Level 5 | ₹29,200 |
| Technician Grade III | Level 2 | ₹19,900 |
Additional allowances and Railway benefits are applicable as per rules.
| Stage | Process |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Computer Based Test (CBT) |
| Stage 2 | Document Verification |
| Stage 3 | Medical Examination |
| Subject | Important Topics |
|---|---|
| Mathematics | Percentage, Ratio, Average, Profit & Loss, Time & Work |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | Analogy, Coding-Decoding, Series, Classification |
| General Science | Physics, Chemistry, Biology |
| General Awareness | Current Affairs, Railway GK, Static GK |
| Technical Subjects | Trade Specific Topics |
| Subject | Coverage |
|---|---|
| Mathematics | Included |
| Reasoning | Included |
| General Science | Included |
| General Awareness | Included |
| Technical Trade | Included |
⚠️ Detailed exam pattern will be released with the official notification.
RRB Official Portal:
https://www.rrbcdg.gov.in
1️⃣ Visit the official RRB website.
2️⃣ Complete registration.
3️⃣ Fill the application form.
4️⃣ Upload required documents.
5️⃣ Pay application fee (if applicable).
6️⃣ Submit the application.
7️⃣ Download and print the final application form.
At Exam Insight, students get:
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🚆 Stay connected with Exam Insight for the latest Railway recruitment notifications, admit cards, results, syllabus updates and complete exam preparation support.
यदि '$' का मतलब जोड़ है, '%' का मतलब घटाव है, '#' का मतलब गुणा है और '@' का मतलब भाग है, तो इसका मान क्या होगा?
18 # 2 @ 2 $ 18 % 18 = ?
(a)36 (b)0 (c)2 (d)18 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q2. If '+' stands for '-', '-' stands for '×', '×' stands for ' ÷ ' and ' ÷ ' stands for '+', then what will be the value of the following expression?
यदि '+' का मतलब '-' हो, '-' का मतलब '×' हो, '×' का मतलब '÷ ' हो और ' ÷ ' का मतलब '+', तो निम्नलिखित का मान क्या होगा?
@reasoningbyamitsingh 14 – 3 + 10 × 5 ÷ 5 = ?
(a)65 (b)48 (c)45 (d)40
Q3. What will come in place of (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '–' are interchanged and '×' and ' ÷ ' are interchanged?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘+’ और ‘−’ को आपस में तथा ‘×’ और ‘÷’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए?
107+ 2028 × 6 – 427 ÷ 7 = ?
(a) 2759 (b) 2758 (c) 2268 (d) 2785
Q4. Which of the following interchanges of numbers (not digits) would make given equation correct?
निम्नलिखित में से संख्याओं (अंकों नहीं) के किस अदला-बदली से दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
257 – 33 ÷ 11 × 13 – 2 + 364 – 56 ÷ 8 × 4 – 44 = 35
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 56 and 57 (c) 57 and 64 (d) 33 and 44
Q5. If 'A' stands 'addition', B stands for 'division', C stands for 'subtraction' and D stands for 'multiplication, then what is the value of the following equation?
यदि 'A' का मतलब 'जोड़' है, 'B' का मतलब 'भाग' है, 'C' का मतलब 'घटाव' है और 'D' का मतलब 'गुणा' है, तो निम्नलिखित समीकरण का मान क्या है?
4 D (3 A 1) C 5A (6 B 2) C 7 = ?
(a) 12 (b) 7 (c)17 (d) 5 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q6. If 'A' stands 'addition', B stands for 'division', C stands for 'subtraction' and D stands for 'Multiplication', then what is the value of the following equation?
यदि 'A' का मतलब 'जोड़' है, 'B' का मतलब 'भाग' है, 'C' का मतलब 'घटाव' है और 'D' का मतलब 'गुणा' है, तो निम्नलिखित समीकरण का मान क्या है?
14 A 7 D 5 D (2 D 2) C (96 B 6) D 3 =?
(a)104 (b)105 (c)106 (d)107
Q7. If A indicates >; B indicates <; C indicates =; D indicates +; E indicates –; F indicates ×; G indicates ÷; then which of the following options is true?
यदि A का मतलब > है; B का मतलब < है; C का मतलब = है; D का मतलब + है; E का मतलब – है; F का मतलब × है; G का मतलब ÷ है; तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विकल्प सही है?
(a) (27G3) C(75G5) C(6F2) (b) (35E15) C(5F5) A(20G4)
(c) (5D6) A(6D12) A(13D6) (d) (5D6) A(4D3) A(3D3)
Q8. If 'A' denotes 'addition', 'B' denotes 'multiplication', 'C' denotes 'subtraction', and 'D' denotes 'division', then what will be the value of the following expression?
यदि 'A' का अर्थ 'जोड़', 'B' का अर्थ 'गुणा', 'C' का अर्थ 'घटाव', और 'D' का अर्थ 'भाग' है, तो निम्नलिखित अभिव्यक्ति का मान क्या होगा?
50 D (2 B 5) A 3 B (15 A 12) C 2 B (18 C 15) =?
(a)127 (b)89 (c)54 (d)80
Q9. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘×’ और ‘÷’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए
28 + 125 × 5 − 12 ÷ 3 = ?
(a) 17 (b) 46 (c) 28 (d) 21
Q10. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘÷’ और ‘×’ को आपस में तथा ‘+’ और ‘−’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए?
38 − 8 ÷ 2 + 16 × 8 = ?
(a) 53 (b) 52 (c) 55 (d) 54
Q11. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged? @reasoningbyamitsingh
निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा, यदि ‘÷’ और ‘−’ को आपस में तथा ‘×’ और ‘+’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए?
93 × 9 ÷ 9 − 3 × 8 + 23 × 6 ÷ 3 − 3 × 2 = ?
(a) 235 (b) 274 (c) 266 (d) 290
Q12. Which option gives the two signs that need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
6 – 20 ÷ 12 × 7 + 1 = 70
(a) ÷ and + (b) × and - (c) × and + (d) ÷ and x
Q13. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
14 + 4 ÷ 5 – 18 × 2 = 25
(a) ÷ and + (b) × and + (c) × and - (d) ÷ and × @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q14. Which option gives the two signs that need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
24 – 8 ÷ 5 + 5 × 3 = 13
(a) × and + (b) × and ÷ (c) ÷ and + (d) ÷ and –
Q15. Which option gives the two signs that need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
15 ÷ 15 × 10 – 10 + 5 = 15
(a) ÷ and × (b) + and – (c) × and – (d) ÷ and –
Q16. Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making the following equation correct.
कौन सा विकल्प उन दो चिह्नों को दर्शाता है जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर दिया गया समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
@reasoningbyamitsingh
(a) × and + (b) ÷ and – (c) + and – (d) × and –
Q17. Select the correct equation from the given options after interchanging operations '-' and ‘× ‘and numbers '4' and '5'.
दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही समीकरण का चयन करें, जब क्रियाओं ‘−’ और ‘×’ तथा संख्याओं ‘4’ और ‘5’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए।
(a) 9 - 4 * 5 = 21 (b) 5 * 4 – 9 = 7
(c) 5 * 9 – 4 = 4 (d) 4 – 5 * 9 = 11
Q18. If sign '+' is interchanged with '÷ ' and number '2' is interchanged with '6', which of the following equations would be:
यदि चिह्न ‘+’ को ‘÷’ से तथा संख्या ‘2’ को ‘6’ से आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण होगा?
(a) 8 + 6 ÷ 2 = 8 (b) 2 + 8 ÷ 6 = 6
(c) 2 + 8 ÷ 2 = 8 (d) 2 + 6 ÷ 8 = 11
Q19. From the given alternatives select the numbers that must be interchanged to make the following equation correct.
दिए गए विकल्पों में से उन संख्याओं का चयन करें जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर निम्नलिखित समीकरण सही हो जाएगा |
16 – 6 + 12 × 3 ÷ 4 = 18
(a) 16 and 3 (b) 6 and 3 (c) 12 and 4 (d) 6 and 4
Q20. Which two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
दिए गए विकल्पों में से उन संख्याओं का चयन करें जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर निम्नलिखित समीकरण सही हो जाएगा |
618 + 37 × 12 – 703 ÷ 14 = 767
(a) 14 and 37 (b) 618 and 14 (c) 703 and 12 (d) 12 and 37 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q21. Which two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
दिए गए विकल्पों में से उन संख्याओं का चयन करें जिन्हें आपस में बदलने पर निम्नलिखित समीकरण सही हो जाएगा
6 × 3 – 8 ÷ 2 + 5 = 8 ÷ 2 + 3 × 5 – 6
(a) 6 and 2 (b) 8 and 6 (c) 5 and 6 (d) 3 and 5
Q22. If the two signs, '+ and ÷ ' are interchanged, which of the following equations will be correct? @reasoningbyamitsingh
यदि दो चिह्न ‘+’ और ‘÷’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सही होगा?
(a) 16 ÷ 9 + 4 × 8 = 34 (b) 16 ÷ 21 + 13 × 26 = 56
(c) 11 + 13 × 4 ÷ 2 = 37 (d) 13 × 9 + 16 ÷ 2 = 125
Q23. If the given two numbers 3 and 5 are interchanged, which of the following equations will become correct?
यदि दिए गए 3 और 5 दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सही हो जाएगा?
(a) 3 + 5 – 4 * 2 = 1 (b) 1 + 9 + 3 + 5 = 9
(c) 6 + 5 * 2 – 3 = 7 (d) 3 + 4 – 1 * 5 = 2
Q24. After interchanging the given two numbers, what will be the value of
दिए गए दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदलने के बाद, निम्नलिखित का मान क्या होगा?
6 +7 × 3 – 8 ÷ 4 = ?
(a)43 (b)41 (c)42 (d)38 @reasoningbyamitsingh
Q25. Which of the following interchanges of signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को सही बनाने के लिए किन दो चिह्नों और किन दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदलना चाहिए?
10 + 8 – 200 × 15 ÷ 5 = 407
(a) + and –, 15 and 10 (b) × and ÷, 8 and 5
(c) × and –, 5 and 15 (d) + and ÷, 200 and 10
Q26. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को सही बनाने के लिए किन दो चिह्नों और किन दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदलना चाहिए?
18 + 25 – 10 × 10 ÷ 5 = 203
(a) + and –, 18 and 25 (b) × and –, 18 and 25
(c) × and ÷, 25 and 5 (d) + and ÷, 18 and 5
Q27. Select the correct sequence of mathematical signs to replace the * signs so as to balance the given equation. @reasoningbyamitsingh
दिए गए समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए ‘*’ चिह्नों के स्थान पर गणितीय चिह्नों के सही क्रम का चयन करें।
72 * 12 * 8 * 6 * 22 = 32
(a) ×, +, –, ÷ (b) +, –, ×, + (c) ÷, +, ×, – (d) +, ×, ÷, –
Q28. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation. @reasoningbyamitsingh
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए ‘*’ चिह्नों के स्थान पर उपयुक्त गणितीय चिह्नों के सही संयोजन का चयन करें।
*
* 2 * 8 * 35 * 23
(a) ×, –, ÷, +, = (b) ×, +, ÷, –, = (c) +, –, ÷, ×, = (d) ÷, –, ×, +, =
Q29. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation.
निम्नलिखित समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए ‘*’ चिह्नों के स्थान पर उपयुक्त गणितीय चिह्नों के सही संयोजन का चयन करें।
(9 * 8 * 7) * 13 * 5
(a) ×, =, =, – (b) ×, –, +, ÷, = (c) ÷, –, =, × (d) –, +, ×, =
Q30. Which of the following options of changing the mathematical operations will make the given equation correct?
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा गणितीय क्रियाओं में परिवर्तन दिया गया समीकरण को सही बना देगा?
– 5 × 3 + 3 = 16
(a) ÷ → ×, – → ÷, × → +, + → – (b) ÷ → ×, – → +, × → ÷, + → –
(c) ÷ → –, – → ÷, × → +, + → ÷ (d) ÷ → +, – → ×, × → –, + → ÷
ANSWER KEY
1.d | 2.c | 3.b | 4.d | 5.b | 6.c | 7.d | 8.d | 9.a | 10.b |
11.d | 12.a | 13.d | 14.d | 15.b | 16.d | 17.d | 18.d | 19.d | 20.a |
21.c | 22.a | 23.c | 24.a | 25.a | 26.d | 27.c | 28.d | 29.b | 30.d |
The Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board (DSSSB) has released the Advertisement No. 03/2026 for recruitment to 1979 vacancies across various departments of the Government of NCT of Delhi.
The vacancies include Assistant, Trained Graduate Teacher (TGT), Warder, Technician, Pharmacist, Laboratory Technician and several other posts.
Eligible candidates can submit their applications online through the official DSSSB portal before the last date.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Organization | Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board (DSSSB) |
| Advertisement No. | 03/2026 |
| Total Vacancies | 1979 |
| Posts | Assistant, TGT, Warder, Technician & More |
| Application Mode | Online |
| Job Location | Delhi |
| Salary | ₹19,900 – ₹1,42,400 |
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Notification Release | June 2026 |
| Online Application Start | 16 June 2026 |
| Last Date to Apply | 15 July 2026 |
| Admit Card | To Be Announced |
| Examination Date | To Be Announced |
Educational qualifications vary according to the post.
Candidates may require:
✅ 12th Pass
✅ Graduate Degree
✅ B.Ed (for Teaching Posts)
✅ Diploma in Relevant Discipline
✅ Bachelor's Degree in Relevant Subject
✅ Professional Qualification as prescribed in the notification
| Category | Age Limit |
|---|---|
| Minimum Age | 18 Years |
| Maximum Age | 27–37 Years* |
*Age limit varies according to the post.
✅ Age relaxation applicable as per Government rules.
| Category | Fee |
|---|---|
| General / OBC / EWS | ₹100 |
| Women Candidates | Exempted |
| SC / ST / PwBD / Ex-Servicemen | Exempted |
Payment Mode: Online
| Pay Level | Salary Range |
|---|---|
| Various Levels | ₹19,900 – ₹1,42,400 |
Salary depends upon the post and pay level.
| Stage | Process |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | One Tier / Two Tier Written Examination |
| Stage 2 | Skill Test (For Applicable Posts) |
| Stage 3 | Document Verification |
| Stage 4 | Final Merit List |
| Subject | Topics |
|---|---|
| General Awareness | Current Affairs, History, Geography, Polity, Economy |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | Analogy, Coding-Decoding, Series, Classification |
| Numerical Ability | Percentage, Ratio, Profit & Loss, Time & Work |
| English Language | Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension |
| Hindi Language | Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension |
| Subject Concerned | Post-Specific Technical/Teaching Subject |
| Subject | Questions |
|---|---|
| General Awareness | 20 |
| Reasoning Ability | 20 |
| Numerical Ability | 20 |
| English Language | 20 |
| Hindi Language | 20 |
| Subject Concerned | 100 |
| Total | 200 |
⏱ Duration: As per post notification
❌ Negative Marking: 0.25 Marks
Visit the DSSSB online application portal.
Complete registration.
Fill personal and educational details.
Upload photograph and signature.
Pay application fee.
Verify details carefully.
Submit the application form.
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Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) has released the official notification for 100 Junior Telecom Officer (Telecom) [JTO(T)-DR] Posts through direct recruitment. Eligible candidates possessing B.E./B.Tech or M.Sc. qualifications can apply online from 04 June 2026 to 03 July 2026.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Organization | Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) |
| Post Name | Junior Telecom Officer (Telecom) |
| Total Vacancies | 100 |
| Qualification | B.E./B.Tech, M.Sc |
| Job Location | Across India |
| Application Mode | Online |
| Advertisement No. | BSNLCO-11/12(11)/1/2026-RECTT-CO |
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Online Application Start | 04 June 2026 |
| Last Date to Apply | 03 July 2026 |
| Application Correction Window | 04 July – 11 July 2026 |
| CBT Exam | August 2026 (Tentative) |
Candidates must possess:
✅ B.E./B.Tech in Telecommunications, Electronics, Radio, Computer Science, Electrical, Information Technology, Instrumentation or equivalent
OR
✅ M.Sc. (Electronics)
OR
✅ M.Sc. (Computer Science)
| Criteria | Age |
|---|---|
| Minimum Age | 20 Years |
| Maximum Age | 30 Years |
Age relaxation is applicable as per Government rules.
| Category | Fee |
|---|---|
| General / OBC / EWS | ₹1000 |
| SC / ST / PwBD | ₹500 |
(Refund provisions may apply as per official notification.)
| Post | Pay Scale |
|---|---|
| Junior Telecom Officer (Telecom) | ₹16,400 – ₹40,500 (E-1 IDA Scale) |
In addition to basic pay, candidates are eligible for PSU allowances and benefits as per BSNL rules.
| Stage | Process |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Computer Based Test (CBT) |
| Stage 2 | Document Verification |
| Stage 3 | Medical Examination |
Selection will be based primarily on CBT performance.
| Subject | Important Topics |
|---|---|
| Engineering Stream I | Telecom Engineering, Electronics, Communication Systems |
| Engineering Stream II | Network Theory, Digital Electronics, Signals & Systems, Computer Networks |
| General Ability | Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Awareness, English |
| Section | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Engineering Stream – I | 50 | 200 |
| Engineering Stream – II | 50 | 200 |
| General Ability Test | 20 | 80 |
| Total | 120 | 480 |
⏱ Duration: 3 Hours
❌ Negative Marking: 1 mark deduction for each wrong answer (+4 for correct answer)
1️⃣ Visit the BSNL Recruitment Portal.
2️⃣ Register using a valid email ID and mobile number.
3️⃣ Fill the online application form carefully.
4️⃣ Upload photograph, signature and required documents.
5️⃣ Pay the application fee.
6️⃣ Verify all details before submission.
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The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) has released the Constable (General Duty) Recruitment 2026 notification under the Sports Quota. A total of 404 vacancies are available for eligible male and female sportspersons. Applications are being accepted online from 09 May 2026 to 07 June 2026.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Organization | Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) |
| Post Name | Constable (General Duty) |
| Total Vacancies | 404 |
| Category | Sports Quota |
| Qualification | 10th Pass |
| Job Location | Across India |
| Application Mode | Online |
| Last Date | 07 June 2026 |
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Online Application Start | 09 May 2026 |
| Last Date to Apply | 07 June 2026 |
| Admit Card | To Be Announced |
| PET/PST | To Be Announced |
| Written Exam | To Be Announced |
| Qualification | Requirement |
|---|---|
| Academic Qualification | Matriculation (10th Pass) from a recognized board |
| Sports Qualification | National, International, State, University or recognized sports achievements as per notification |
| Category | Age Limit |
|---|---|
| Minimum Age | 18 Years |
| Maximum Age | 23 Years |
Age relaxation is applicable as per Government of India rules.
| Category | Fee |
|---|---|
| General / OBC / EWS | ₹100 |
| SC / ST / Female Candidates | Exempted |
Payment Mode: Online.
| Pay Level | Salary |
|---|---|
| Level-3 | ₹21,700 – ₹69,100 |
Additional allowances and benefits are admissible as per SSB rules.
| Stage | Process |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Documentation & Sports Achievement Verification |
| Stage 2 | Physical Standard Test (PST) |
| Stage 3 | Detailed Medical Examination |
| Stage 4 | Final Merit List |
| Subject | Important Topics |
|---|---|
| General Knowledge | Current Affairs, History, Geography, Polity, Sports |
| Mathematics | Percentage, Ratio, Profit & Loss, Average, Time & Work |
| Reasoning | Analogy, Coding-Decoding, Series, Classification |
| General Science | Physics, Chemistry, Biology Basics |
| English/Hindi | Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension |
| Subject | Questions |
|---|---|
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 25 |
| General Knowledge | 25 |
| Mathematics | 25 |
| Language (Hindi/English) | 25 |
| Total | 100 |
⏱ Duration: 120 Minutes
| Test | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
| Height | As per notification | As per notification |
| Chest | Applicable | Not Applicable |
| Medical Fitness | Required | Required |
Candidates should refer to the official notification for category-wise standards.
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The Indian Navy has invited applications for Agniveer (Apprentice) Recruitment 2026. Candidates who have completed 10th Pass or Diploma and meet the eligibility criteria can apply online through the official recruitment portal.
This recruitment offers an excellent opportunity for candidates seeking a career in the Indian Armed Forces under the Agnipath Scheme.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Organization | Indian Navy |
| Post Name | Agniveer (Apprentice) |
| Eligibility | 10th Pass / Diploma |
| Job Location | Across India |
| Application Mode | Online |
| Salary | ₹30,000 – ₹40,000 |
| Last Date to Apply | 29 June 2026 |
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| Online Application Start Date | 05 June 2026 |
| Last Date to Apply | 29 June 2026 |
| Correction Window | 09 July 2026 |
| INET Exam | August 2026 (Tentative) |
| Result | August / September 2026 (Tentative) |
✅ 10th Pass from a recognized board
OR
✅ Diploma in relevant discipline
Candidates should refer to the official notification for detailed branch-wise eligibility requirements.
Candidates must fulfill the age criteria specified in the official Indian Navy notification for the respective batch.
Age relaxation, if applicable, will be as per government rules.
| Category | Fee |
|---|---|
| All Candidates | ₹550 + 18% GST |
Payment Mode: UPI, Debit Card, Credit Card, Net Banking
Selected candidates under the Agnipath Scheme will receive:
| Year | Monthly Package |
|---|---|
| 1st Year | ₹30,000 |
| 2nd Year | ₹33,000 |
| 3rd Year | ₹36,500 |
| 4th Year | ₹40,000 |
Additional benefits will be provided as per Agnipath Scheme rules.
| Stage | Process |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Indian Navy Entrance Test (INET) |
| Stage 2 | Physical Fitness Test (PFT) |
| Stage 3 | Medical Examination |
| Stage 4 | Final Merit List |
| Subject | Important Topics |
|---|---|
| English | Grammar, Vocabulary, Synonyms & Antonyms, Error Detection, Sentence Improvement, Reading Comprehension, Fill in the Blanks, Active & Passive Voice, Direct & Indirect Speech |
| Mathematics | Number System, Simplification, Percentage, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Average, Time & Work, Time Speed Distance, Algebra, Trigonometry, Geometry, Mensuration, Statistics, Probability |
| Science (Physics) | Motion, Force & Laws of Motion, Work, Power & Energy, Heat, Sound, Electricity, Magnetism, Optics |
| Science (Chemistry) | Atomic Structure, Acids Bases & Salts, Chemical Reactions, Metals & Non-Metals, Periodic Table |
| Science (Biology) | Human Body, Nutrition, Diseases, Environment, Ecology |
| General Awareness | Current Affairs, Indian History, Geography, Indian Polity, Indian Economy, Sports, Awards & Honours, Defence Updates, Scientific Developments, National & International Events |
| Subject | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| English | 25 | 25 |
| Science | 25 | 25 |
| Mathematics | 25 | 25 |
| General Awareness | 25 | 25 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
⏱ Duration: 60 Minutes
❌ Negative Marking: 0.25 Marks
| Test | Male Candidates | Female Candidates |
|---|---|---|
| 1.6 Km Run | 6 Min 30 Sec | 8 Min |
| Squats (Uthak Baithak) | 20 | 15 |
| Push-Ups | 15 | 10 |
| Bent Knee Sit-Ups | 15 | 10 |
✅ Serve the Nation
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Indian Navy Agniveer (Apprentice) Recruitment 2026 Apply Online
Join Indian Navy Recruitment Portal
Applications for the Agniveer Apprentice 01/2027 & 02/2027 batches are being accepted through the official Indian Navy recruitment portal.
Visit the official Indian Navy recruitment website.
Click on "Register" and create a new account using your email ID and mobile number.
Log in using your registered credentials.
Select Agniveer (Apprentice) Recruitment 2026.
Fill in personal details, educational qualifications and communication details carefully.
Upload required documents:
✅ Passport-size photograph
✅ Signature
✅ Educational certificates
✅ Identity proof
Pay the application fee online.
Application Fee: ₹550 + 18% GST = ₹649
Preview the application form and verify all details.
Submit the application form.
Download and print the final application form for future reference.
| Document | Required |
|---|---|
| Passport Size Photograph | ✅ |
| Signature | ✅ |
| 10th Marksheet | ✅ |
| Diploma Certificate (if applicable) | ✅ |
| Aadhaar Card / Valid ID Proof | ✅ |
| Active Mobile Number | ✅ |
| Active Email ID | ✅ |
⚓ Stay connected with Exam Insight for the latest Defence recruitment notifications, admit cards, results and complete exam preparation support.
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Preparing for the NDA exam becomes easier when students practice previous year question papers (PYQ).
NDA PYQ helps students understand:
✅ Exam pattern
✅ Types of questions
✅ Difficulty level
✅ Important topics
✅ Time management
✅ Repeated questions
Practicing previous papers regularly improves confidence for both Mathematics and General Ability Test (GAT).
Previous year papers help candidates:
✔ Understand UPSC question style
✔ Practice real exam level questions
✔ Improve speed & accuracy
✔ Identify weak topics
✔ Revise important concepts
✔ Prepare better for final exam
For NDA aspirants, PYQ practice is one of the best ways to improve preparation.
🔗 Download NDA 1 2025 Official UPSC PDF
Useful for:
🔗 UPSC Official Website – NDA Section
You can download Maths & GAT papers directly there.
🔗 NDA 2024 UPSC Paper / Result PDF
Good for latest-level question practice.
English
General Knowledge
✅ Set timer for 2.5 hours
✅ Solve full paper like exam
✅ Check answers after completion
✅ Mark difficult questions
✅ Revise weak topics
✅ Practice regularly
Daily PYQ practice helps improve speed and confidence.
At Exam Insight, students preparing for NDA get:
✅ NDA study material
✅ Maths & reasoning classes
✅ Daily current affairs
✅ PYQ practice
✅ Mock tests
✅ Revision notes
✅ Live & recorded learning
📍Offline Classes Available at Dadar & Panvel
🇮🇳 Practice NDA previous year papers with Exam Insight and strengthen your preparation for written exam and SSB.
The National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam is one of India’s top defence entrance exams conducted by the Union Public Service Commission.
Students who dream of joining the Indian Army, Indian Navy or Indian Air Force after 12th can apply for NDA based on the eligibility criteria released by UPSC.
Before applying, candidates should check qualification, age limit and physical standards carefully.
✅ Passed 12th from recognized board
OR
✅ Appearing in Class 12 can also apply
Students from any stream can apply:
✅ Passed 12th with Physics + Mathematics
OR
✅ Appearing in Class 12 with Physics + Mathematics
✅ Passed 12th with Physics + Mathematics
OR
✅ Appearing in Class 12 with Physics + Mathematics
Candidates are generally eligible between 16.5 years to 19.5 years
Important: exact date of birth eligibility changes with every UPSC NDA notification.
Candidates should always verify official UPSC notice before applying.
Candidates must be:
✅ Indian citizen
As per UPSC rules, certain other eligible categories may also apply.
Candidates should be medically fit.
Basic standards include:
✅ Good eyesight
✅ Height & weight as per defence rules
✅ Physical fitness
✅ No major medical issues
Medical standards are checked during selection.
✔ Students appearing for Class 12 can apply
✔ Army Wing accepts students from any stream
✔ Navy & Air Force require Physics + Mathematics
✔ NDA selection includes written exam + SSB interview + medical
At Exam Insight, students preparing for NDA get:
✅ NDA syllabus-based preparation
✅ Maths & reasoning classes
✅ Daily current affairs updates
✅ Mock tests & PYQ practice
✅ Guidance for written exam
✅ SSB interview preparation
✅ Study anytime with Exam Insight App
✔ Live & recorded lectures
✔ NDA PDF notes
✔ Practice tests
✔ Previous year papers
✔ Daily updates
✔ Easy revision anytime
Start your NDA preparation with Exam Insight and move one step closer to your dream of serving the nation through Army, Navy or Air Force.
The National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam is one of India’s most prestigious defence entrance examinations conducted by the Union Public Service Commission.
Through NDA, students can join the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force after 12th and begin training to become officers in the armed forces.
For students dreaming of serving the nation and building a strong career in defence services, NDA is one of the best opportunities after Class 12.
National Defence Academy is India’s premier joint defence training academy.
Selected candidates receive training before joining:
NDA training happens at Khadakwasla, Pune, Maharashtra.
✅ 12th Pass / appearing from recognized board
✅ 12th Pass / appearing with Physics + Mathematics
Age criteria are decided by UPSC in every official notification.
Usually candidates should be approximately 16.5 to 19.5 years.
Important: exact DOB range changes every notification.
1. Written Examination
2. SSB Interview
3. Medical Examination
4. Final Merit List
| Paper | Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|
| Mathematics | 300 | 2.5 Hours |
| General Ability Test (GAT) | 600 | 2.5 Hours |
| Total | 900 |
900 Marks
Grand Total: 1800 Marks
After selection candidates may become:
Benefits include:
✅ Respect & prestige
✅ Government salary
✅ Allowances
✅ Job security
✅ Adventure & travel
✅ Leadership opportunities
✅ Service to the nation
At Exam Insight, students get:
✅ NDA syllabus-based preparation
✅ Maths & reasoning classes
✅ Current affairs updates
✅ Mock tests & PYQ practice
✅ Expert guidance for written exam
✅ SSB interview guidance
✅ Online learning through Exam Insight App
✅ Classroom support
📱 Study anytime with Exam Insight App
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) under the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) has officially released Advertisement No. 01/2026 for 899 vacancies.
Posts include Electrician, Draughtsman, Hindi Typist, Store Keeper Technical, Operator Communication and Operator Excavating Machinery (OEM).
Organization: Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
Department: General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF)
Advertisement No.: 01/2026
Total Vacancies: 899
Mode of Application: Offline / Postal application
Official Website: BRO Official Website
✅ Advertisement published in Employment News: 18–24 April 2026
✅ Application forms available on BRO website: 21 May 2026
✅ Last date (all states): 4 July 2026
✅ Last date for remote areas / North-East / Ladakh / A&N / Lakshadweep: 19 July 2026
| Post | Vacancies |
|---|---|
| Draughtsman | 42 |
| Hindi Typist | 10 |
| Store Keeper Technical | 300 |
| Operator Communication | 261 |
| Operator Excavating Machinery | 207 |
| Electrician | 79 |
| Total | 899 |
Electrician: Matriculation + ITI / trade certificate in Electrician trade
Draughtsman: 10+2 + Architecture / Draughtsmanship qualification
Hindi Typist: 12th + Hindi typing qualification
Store Keeper Technical: 10+2 with Science + relevant knowledge
Operator Communication / OEM: Matriculation + trade / licence as per post
Detailed post-wise qualification is in the official BRO notification.
Minimum: 18 years
Maximum: 27 years (varies by post)
✅ General / OBC / EWS: ₹50/-
✅ SC / ST: No fee
Fee details are mentioned in the official advertisement.
Salary is as per 7th CPC pay level depending on the post.
BRO employees may also receive:
| Subject | Topics |
|---|---|
| General Knowledge | Current affairs, Indian geography, government schemes |
| Reasoning | Coding-decoding, puzzle, series, logical reasoning |
| Mathematics | Percentage, ratio, profit & loss, averages |
| English | Grammar, vocabulary, comprehension |
| Trade / Technical | Electrician / Driver / technical post-related knowledge |
Download BRO Advt. No. 01/2026 PDF