Loading blogs…

Loading blogs…

Christine Lagarde has been re-appointed as its Managing Director for a second five-year term after an uncontested election. The Executive Board of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on Friday selected 60-year-old Lagarde to serve as IMF Managing Director for a second five-year term starting on July 5, 2016, IMF said in a statement.
The Board’s decision was taken by consensus. France’s former finance minister secured early backing from many of the fund’s most powerful members when the IMF’s executive board launched the selection process in January, keeping other contenders from making an alternate bid and ensuring her a second term.
President Pranab Mukherjee presented the National Geoscience Awards – 2014 today on Tuesday at a function held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Speaking on the occasion, Mukherjee said that availability and use of minerals in any country has been one of the factors determining self-sufficiency of its economy. These natural resources have to be explored, extracted, refined and processed to use them for national building. At the same time, we must understand that sustenance of mankind depends only on environmentally sustainable mining practices. Our effort to use our natural resources should be informed by the dangers of natural and man made disasters. He stated that he was happy to note that the Geo scientists of the country are working hard to meet these challenges. The diverse fields work of the awardees are testimony to this inherent spread of the geo scientific developments in the country.
Here is the list of National Geo science Award – 2014
| RECIPIENT OF AWARD | DISCIPLINE | ||
1 | Prof. Ashok Kumar Singhvi | Award For Excellence | |
2 | Dr. Muduru Lachhana Dora | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
3 | Shri Biswajeet Lenka | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
4 | Shri Syed Ajaz Ahmad | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
5 | Shri Hemraj Suryavanshi | Mineral Discovery & Exploration | |
6 | Shri Vijay V. Mugal | Coal, Lignite and Coal Bed Methane | |
| Discovery & Exploration | |||
7 | Shri Lalit Khasdeo | Coal, Lignite and Coal Bed Methane | |
| Discovery & Exploration | |||
8 | Shri Kaushik Rajbanshi | Coal, Lignite and Coal Bed Methane | |
| Discovery & Exploration | |||
9 | Dr. Abhijit Mukherjee | Groundwater Exploration | |
10 | Dr. Satyendra Kumar Singh | Mining Technology | |
11 | Prof. Arvind Kumar Mishra | Mining Technology | |
12 | Dr. Sreenivas Tumulri | Mineral Beneficiation | |
13 | Dr. Swati Mohanty | Mineral Beneficiation | |
14 | Dr. Khanindra Pathak | Sustainable Mineral Development | |
15 | Dr. Dewashish Upadhyay | Basic Geosciences | |
16 | Dr. Prasanta Sanyal | Basic Geosciences | |
17 | Dr. Rajeev Patnaik | Basic Geosciences | |
18 | Shri Milind V. Dhakate | Applied Geology | |
19 | Shri Gautam Saha | Applied Geology | |
20 | Shri Rashtrapal H. Chavhan | Applied Geology | |
21 | Shri Prashant Tukaram Ilamkar | Applied Geology | |
22 | Dr. Simanchal Padhy | Geophysics / Applied Geophysics | |
23 | Dr. Sandeep Kumar Gupta | Geophysics / Applied Geophysics | |
24 | Dr. Nathani Basavaiah | Geo-Environmental studies | |
25 | Dr. Balakrishnan Nair T. M | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
26 | Dr. Francis P.A. | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
27 | Dr. Harikumar R | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
28 | Sandhya K. G. | Oceanography and Marine Geology | |
29 | Dr. R. Venkatesan | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
30 | M Arul Muthiah | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
31 | Dr KP Krishnan | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
32 | Shri B. Kesavakumar | Glaciology and Arctic & Antarctic Research | |
33 | Dr Indra Sekhar Sen | Young Scientist Award | |
The World Consumer Rights Day (WCRD) 2016 was observed on 15 March 2016. The day was celebrated by the Consumers International (CI) across the world with the theme Antibiotics off the Menu. The theme was taken up to ensure that fast food companies make a global commitment to stop the sale of meat raised with the routine use of antibiotics important to human medicine.

NEW DELHI: The government on Monday released revised pensionary benefits under One Rank One Pension (OROP) to over two lakh beneficiaries drawing service or disability pension. The amount along with first instalment of arrears had been released and credited by the Defence Ministry to the accounts of pensioners on March 1, 2016.
“In the case of remaining 1,46,335 family pensioners drawing pension from Departmental Pension Drawing Officers ( DPDOs), payment along with arrears is expected to be released by March end. Banks are under process of revision work,” a Ministry of Defence press release explains.
The total additional annual financial increase for grant of One Rank One Pension (OROP) is Rs 7488.70 crores. The total amount on account of arrears to be paid for the period July 1, 2014 to December 31, 2015 is Rs 10925.11 crores.
The release states,” Out of total annual liability of Rs 7488.70 crores, Personnel Below Officer Rank (PBOR) family pensioners shall get Rs 6,405.59 crores, which works out to 85.5% of total expenditure of OROP.”
Due to increase in defence pension budget, the additional liability for current financial year 2015-16 shall be Rs 4,721.34 crores which will increase the current defence pension liability of Rs 60,238 crores to Rs. 64,959.34 crores for the year 2015-16.
International Women’s Day is celebrated around the world. The official website for the day says: “Celebrate the social, economic, cultural and political achievement of women. “Yet let’s also be aware progress has slowed in many places across the world, so urgent action is needed to accelerate gender parity. Leaders across the world are pledging to take action as champions of gender parity.
Veteran Film Actor and Director Manoj Kumar will be conferred the 47th Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2015. A five member jury consisted of Lata Mangeshkar, Asha Bhosle, Salim Khan, Nitin Mukesh and Anup Jalota unanimously recommended Kumar for the prestigious Award. Manoj Kumar is remembered for his films Hariyali Aur Raasta, Woh Kaun Thi, Himalaya Ki God Mein, Do Badan, Upkaar, Patthar Ke Sanam, Neel Kamal, Purab Aur Paschim, Roti Kapda Aur Makaan, and Kranti. He is known for acting in and directing films with patriotic themes.
Logical Reasoning Aptitude questions answers (MCQ) are important for BANK PO, Clerk, IBPS, SBI-PO, RBI, MBA, MAT, CAT, IIFT, IGNOU, SSC CGL, CBI, CPO, CLAT, CTET, NDA, CDS, Specialist Officers and other competitive exams. Statement and Argument Questions Answers (MCQ) of Logical Reasoning include questions based on Statements and Arguments which are important for all competitive exams.
Directions to Solve: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
1.Statement: “You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation.” – A line in an appointment letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer.
II. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
2.Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
3.Statement: “In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our employees.” – In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.
Assumptions:
I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
Download full practice set- Click here
The student leader in his fiery address took a dig at PM Modi, the BJP, Smriti Irani and RSS along with emphasizing his stand on wanting “freedom in India, not freedom from India”. Here are the top 10 quotes from his speech:
# We will fight for Umar (Khalid) and Anirban (Bhattacharya). Let the courts decide what is ‘deshdroh’ (anti-national) and what is ‘deshbhakti’ (patriotism), Madam Smriti Irani will not decide this because we are not her children.
# Modiji was talking about Stalin and Khrushchev in Parliament. When I heard him speaking I felt like jumping into the TV screen, grabbing his suit and saying — ‘Modiji, please speak about Hitler a little’. Forget about Hitler, talk about Mussolini whose black cap you wear, who (RSS founder M S) Golwalkar sahab went to meet.
# They said I raised slogans about freedom. They asked me why I wanted freedom from India. But I want to set this straight. I do not want freedom from India, but freedom in India.
# Modiji tweeted Satyamev Jayate. I also say ‘PMji, I have huge differences in opinion with you, but Satyamev Jayate is from the Constitution. Today, I also say to you Satyamev Jayate’.
# A BJP MP in parliament said that ‘jawans are dying on the border’. I want to ask you. Is your brother there? In this country, the crores of farmers who are dying.
# Do not try to separate the constable, the farmer, the soldier, poor people like me, by creating distorted binaries. I salute the soldiers but have you ever thought of their families, the families of farmers who are forced to commit suicide?
# I told my mother that she took a nice dig at Modiji. But my mother said she was not taking a dig at him, she was only expressing her pain. Those who understand that pain, cry, and those who do not understand, laugh.
# If you speak against this anti-people government, then their cyber-cell will send doctored videos, they will abuse you and count how many condoms there are in your dustbin.
# 69 per cent of the country do not believe in your (BJP) ideology. Even the 31 per cent who voted for you were fooled by your jumla. We Indians forget easily but we still remember all the ‘jumla’ used during election campaign.
# All this was planned. All this was planned to derail the movement seeking justice for Rohith Vemula and Occupy UGC (the recent agitation against the proposed scrapping of PhD fellowships). I have not said this before, but my family earns Rs 3,000 a month. Without JNU, I would not be able to do a PhD.
Cheque Truncation System (CTS) was pioneered by the Reserve Bank of India – RBI, for faster clearing of cheques. It involves sending an electronic image of the cheque together with its Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) data, and other relevant fields like date of presentation, presenting bank’s name, etc. This procedure would eliminate the need for physical transfer of cheques across branches, except in certain cases
Directions to Solve: In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
Download practice Set Click here
Finance Minister Arun Jaitley has presented the Union Budget 2016. With an eye on supporting the small tax-payer and the small investor, the Minister announced a slew of schemes, and income tax exemptions. Finance Minister Arun Jaitley did not change income tax slabs in his third Budget, but he did tweak some deductions and announced multiple new cesses, which will impact tax liability for the common man.
Tax
Personal Finance
Social
Health
Education
Energy
Investments and infrastructure
Agriculture
Banking
Following is a list of items that will turn costlier
1.Cars
2.Cigarettes
3.Cigar
4.Tobacco
5.All services like bill payments, eating out, air travel
6.Ready made garments and branded apparel of more than Rs 1,000
7.Gold and Silver; jewelery articles excluding silver
8.Water including mineral water, aerated water containing added sugar or sweetening matter
9.Goods and services above Rs 2 lakh in cash
10.Aluminum foil
11.Air Travel
12. Plastic bags and sacks
13.Ropeway, cable car rides
14.Imported imitation jewellery
15.Industrial solar water heater
16.Legal services
17.Lottery tickets
18.Traveling by hiring stage carriage
19.Hiring of packers & movers
20.E-reading devices
21. Instruments for VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol)
22.Imported Golf Cars
23. Gold bars
Following is a list items that will turn cheaper
1.Footwear
2.Solar lamp
3.Router, broadband modems and set top boxes, Digital video recorder and CCTV cameras
4.Hybrid electric vehicles
5.Sterilised dialyser
6.Low cost houses with less than 60 sq mt carpet area
7.Hiring of folk artists for performance
8.Refrigerated containers
9.Pension plans
10.Microwave ovens
11.Sanitary pads
12.Braille paper.

Theme of the Budget Overcoming challenges – Reorganize, Restructure Rejuvenate Indian Railways: ‘Chalo, Milkar Kuch Naya Karen’
Three pillars of the strategy i.e. Nav Arjan – New revenues, Nav Manak – New norms, Nav Sanrachna – New Structures.
Full E-Book Railway Budget Click here
Metropolitan Stock Exchange of India Limited (MSEI) on 22 February 2016 appointed Udai Kumar as its Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The appointment was approved by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
The SEBI’s approval comes after a stringent short-listing process and interviews by the selection committee to select a suitable candidate for the role.
In order to enhance economic cooperation and strengthen financial stability, RBI has extended the USD 2 billion currency swap arrangement to SAARC nations till mid-November 2017. The Reserve Bank said that it has decided to extend the SAARC Currency Swap Arrangement till November 14, 2017. Under the arrangement, RBI is to offer swap arrangement up to an overall amount of USD 2 billion both in foreign currency and Indian rupee.
The SAARC Swap Arrangement was offered by the RBI to SAARC nations on November 15, 2012. The facility will be available to all SAARC member countries — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. The swap amount available to various member central banks has been arrived at broadly based on two months import cover subject to a floor of USD 100 million and a maximum of USD 400 million per country
Q1. Since 1950-51 the annual growth rate that the Indian Railways have recorded in terms of freight traffic is approximately
(a) 3%
(b) 4%
(c) 4.3%
(d) 6%
Ans. C)
Q2. Railway finances separated from general revenues in the year
(a) 1924–25
(b) 1930–31
(c) 1950–51
(d) 1951–52
Ans. a)
Q3. What is the maximum speed touched by the fastest train in India?
(a) 120 km/h
(b) 130 km/h
(c) 135 km/h
(d) l40 km/h
Ans. d)
Q4. Which one is not a port on the east coast?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Kochi
(c) Paradeep
(d) Vishakhapatnam
Ans. b)
Q5. ‘One of the most daunting engineering tasks under-taken by the Indian railways, across the wilderness of the Eastern Ghats’. This description fits the
(a) Konkan railway connecting Trivandrum with Mumbai
(b) Koraput–Rayagada rail line
(c) Guwahati–Silchar rail line
(d) Dibrugarh–Gorakhpur rail line
Ans. b)
Download full Question Click here
Former Lok Sabha Speaker Purno Agitok Sangma died on 4 March 2016. He was 68 years old. He is survived by daughter Agatha Sangma, former Minister of State in the UPA-led Government and Conrad Sangma, the Leader of the Opposition in the Meghalaya Legislative Assembly.
In independent India’s history, he was the first tribal person to hold the post of cabinet minister in 1995. He was also the first tribal person to become the Lok Sabha Speaker in 1996.
Dr. Shahid Rasool, a communication technology specialist, has taken charge as the new director of the Commonwealth Educational Media Centre for Asia(CEMCA).
A Fulbright Fellow with an MS in communication technology from Syracuse University, Rasool will guide CEMCA – an arm of the Vancouver-based Commonwealth of Learning (COL) – in its mission to ensure effective utilisation of educational media resources for distance education.
Rasool, who also has a doctorate in mass communication and journalism from the University of Kashmir, was earlier director of the university’s Educational Multimedia Research Centre.
Headquartered in New Delhi, CEMCA was set up in 1994 in response to calls by Asian Commonwealth countries for a greater focus on distance education.
World Population Day 2016 would be celebrated all over the world by the people on 11thof July at Monday.World Population Day has gained much popularity with support from organizations and masses around the world. It also focuses on challenges presented by world of 7 billion people. Reproductive Health services are one of the main targets set by UNFPA (United Nations Population Fund) by 2015. So World Population Day is observed in more than 200 countries to bring awareness to people about importance of small families and living healthy lives. On this day, several programs are initiated to educate people about family planning methods. The day is observed every year to bring awareness in people about living a healthy life with benefits of having a small family.
World Population Day was observed on 11 July 2016 with theme Investing in teenage girls. The theme focuses on the empowerment of teenage girls.
“On this World Environment Day, I urge people and governments everywhere to overcome indifference, combat greed and act to preserve our natural heritage for the benefit of this and future generations.” — Secretary-General, Ban Ki-moon
World Environment Day aims to inspire more people than ever before to take action to prevent the growing strain on planet Earth’s natural systems from reaching the breaking point. The2016 theme highlights the fight against the illegal trade in wildlife, which erodes precious biodiversity and threatens the survival of elephants, rhinos and tigers, as well as many other species. It also undermines our economies, communities and security. This year’s slogan “Go Wild for Life” encourages you to spread the word about wildlife crime and the damage it does, and to challenge all those around you to do what they can to prevent it.
The booming illegal trade in wildlife products is eroding Earth’s precious biodiversity, robbing us of our natural heritage and driving whole species to the brink of extinction. The killing and smuggling is also undermining economies and ecoystems, fuelling organized crime, and feeding corruption and insecurity across the globe.
Wildlife crime endangers iconic elephants, rhinos, tigers, gorillas and sea turtles. In 2011, a subspecies of Javan rhino went extinct in Vietnam, while the last western black rhinos vanished from Cameroon the same year. Great apes have disappeared from Gambia, Burkina Faso, Benin and Togo, and other countries could quickly follow. Lesser-known victims include helmeted hornbills and pangolins, as well as wild orchids and timbers like Rosewood – flowers and timber are also considered wildlife! Learn more about this year’s World Environment Day theme.
This year’s World Environment Day celebrations are hosted by Angola, a country seeking to restore its elephant herds, conserve Africa’s biodiversity-rich wildlife, and safeguard the environment as it continues to rebuild after more than a quarter-century of civil war.
“Angola is delighted to host World Environment Day, which will focus on an issue close to our hearts,” said Angolan Environment Minister Maria de Fatima Jardim. “The illegal wildlife trade, particularly the trade in ivory and rhino horn, is a major problem across our continent. By hosting this day of celebration and awareness-raising, we aim to send a clear message that such practices will soon be eradicated.” See more information on the host country.
Directions (1-5) : Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and Fin a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions. A. Anansi was just about to eat them when he noticed smoke in the distance. He learnt from the cassava that the smoke was from the town of rice. B. “Rice is much better than cassava!” Saying this Anansi promptly journeyed to the town of rice. When he reached there he noticed smoke in the distance. So he left the rice village and headed for the smoke, greedily thinking that he’d get something better. C. Alas, when he reached there he found it was his own village and he had no food for the villagers or himself. Greed had got him nowhere. D. He left his village to find food for his people and himself. After walking miles and miles he saw smoke from a distant village. E. Anansi, the spider was very unhappy. There was a drought and all his people were starving. F. When he reached, the only food he found was cassava. The cassava asked Anansi, “Would you like us roasted, fried or boiled?” Anansi told them that he did not have a particular choice and so they roasted themselves.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 3
(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 4
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 2
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Solution: 3
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Solution : 5
Directions (6-10): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, select `No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
Solution: 1
Solution: 4
Solution: 5
Solution: 3
Solution: 3
Directions (11-15): In each of these questions, sentence with four bold words is given. One from four words given in the bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. If any, that word will be your answer. If all the words given in the bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, then All correct’ is your answer.
Solution: 4
Solution: 2
Solution: 2
Solution: 5
Solution: 1
Directions (16-25): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Long time ago, in a forest, there lived a young antelope. He was fond of the fruits of a particular tree. In a village bordering the forest, there lived a hunter who captured and killed antelopes for various reasons. He used to set traps for animals under fruitbearing trees. When the animal came to eat the fruit, it would be caught in the trap. He would then take it away and kill it for its meat. One day, while visiting the forest in search of game, the hunter happened to see the antelope under its favourite tree, eating fruit. He was delighted. ‘What a big, plump antelope!’ he thought. ‘I must catch him. I will get a lot of money from selling his meat.’ Thereafter, for many days, the hunter kept track of the antelope’s movements. He realised that the antelope was remarkably vigilant and fleet footed animal that it would be virtually impossible for him to track him down. However, he had a weakness for that particular tree. The crafty concluded that he could use this weakness to capture him. Early one morning, the hunter entered the forest with some logs of wood. He climbed the tree and put up a machan (platform used by hunters) on one of its branches by tying the logs together. Having set his trap at the foot of the tree, he then took up position on the machan and waited for the antelope. He strewed a lot of iy ,ovef mrui bts eo rn2thoeig6round beneath the 11.004.3, tree to conceal the trap and lure the antelope. Soon, the antelope came strolling along. He was very hungry and was eagerly looking forward to his usual breakfast of delicious ripe fruits. On the treetop, the hunter, having sighted him, sat with bated breath, willing him to come closer and step into his trap. However, the antelope was no fool. As he neared the tree he stopped short. The number of fruits lying under the tree seemed considerably more than usual. Surely, something was amiss, decided the antelope. He paused just out of reach of the tree and carefully began examining the ground. Now, he saw what distinctly looked like a human footprint. Without going closer, he looked suspiciously at the tree. The hunter was well hidden in its thick foliage, nevertheless the antelope, on close scrutiny, was now sure that his suspicions had not been unfounded. He could see a corner of the machan peeping out of the leaves. Meanwhile the hunter was getting desperate. Suddenly, he had a brainwave. Let me try throwing some fruit at him,’ he thought. So the hunter plucked some choice fruits and hurled them in the direction of the antelope. Alas, instead of luring him closer, it only confirmed his fears! Raising his voice, he spoke in the direction of the tree —”Listen, my dear tree, until now you have always dropped your fruits on the earth. Today, you have started throwing them at me! This is the most unlikely action of yours and I’m not sure I like the change! Since you have changed your habits, I too will change mine. I will get my fruits from a different tree from now onone that still acts like a tree!’ The hunter realised that the antelope had outsmarted him with his cleverness. Parting the leaves to reveal himself, he I grabbed his javelin and flung it wildly at the antelope. But the clever antelope was well prepared for any such action on his part. Giving a saucy chuckle, he leapt nimbly out of the harm’s way.
Solution: 2
Solution: 2
(1) High
(2) Loyal
(3) Rigid
(4) Inattentive
(5) Alert
Solution: 4
(1) Only A
(2) Both A and B
(3) Only B
(4) Both A and C
(5) Only C
Solution: 1
(A) live peacefully
(B)keep a watch on the entire forest.
(C)catch his prey.
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Both A and C
(5) None of the given options
Solution: 2
(1) The Hunter Who Loved Fruits
(2) The Lazy Hunter
(3) The Clever Antelope
(4) The Hunter and His Love for Wild Animals
(5) Antelopes an Endangered Species
Solution : 3
(1) Hefty
(2) Chirpy
(3) Long
(4) Boring
(5) Lean
Solution: 5
(1) Turned blue
(2) Without breathing at all
(3) Waited anxiously
(4) Bad breath
(5) Unconscious
Solution: 3
Solution: 4
Directions (26-30): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the five alternatives and fill in the blanks.
There lived an old tiger in a forest. It was becoming..(26)… for him to catch a prey. The Tiger thought, “I no longer have the strength and speed of a youth. …(27)… I find some trick, I will starve to death.” On thinking hard, the tiger came upon a plan. He began shouting loudly, ‘I am very old. I have turned into a vegetarian. I have become a saint and will not eat animals anymore.’ These words spread like …(28)… in the jungle. Innocent animals came to pay respect to the tiger thinking that the tiger had changed into a saint. In turn, the tiger pounced on the animals when they came to his cave. One day, a witty fox heard the words of the tiger. The fox began to wonder, “Can a tiger become a saint?” So stealthily, the fox approached the tiger’s cave. He carefully examined the footprints of animals. He found that all the footprints were going towards the cave but none were … (29)… from the cave. He quickly alerted all animals in the forest. “The Tiger is a cheat. Don’t go to the cave.” No animal ever … (30)… the cave again and the tiger died of starvation.
Solution: 4
Solution: 1
Solution: 2
Solution: 2
Solution: 4

Sunrisers Hyderabad beat Royal Challengers Bangalore by eight runs to win their maiden Indian Premier League title.

Virat Kohli own 973 runs and the ‘Orange Cap’ and Kohli said: “It is a nice incentive, but it does not feel good to be at the other side of the result. Why Sunrisers won is because they have a strong bowling attack. I knew I was hitting the ball well and I just wanted to keep contributing. Why not, records are meant to be broken.”
Here is the full list of award winners and important statistics from
IPL 2016 Champions – Sunrisers Hyderabad.
Prize money – Rs 15 crore
Runner-up – Royal Challengers Bangalore.
Prize money – Rs 10 crore
Orange Cap (Most runs) – 973 runs (16 innings) – Virat Kohli (Royal Challengers Bangalore)
Purple Cap (Most wickets) – 23 wickets (17 innings) – Bhuvneshwar Kumar (Sunrisers Hyderabad)
Emerging Player – 17 wickets – Mustafizur Rahman (SRH)
Man of the match in final – Ben Cutting (SRH)
Most Sixes in the final – 8 – Chris Gayle (RCB)
Most Valuable Player – Kohli (356.5 points)
Fairplay Award – SRH
Most Sixes – 38 – Kohli
About IPL:
IPL, which stands for Indian Premier League, is one of the most popular cricketing events in India, which is awaited and watched all over the country and the world by avid cricket fans every year. The event, which was started in 2008 by the BCCI, is played in T20 format of the game and is contested between franchisee teams from various cities, which are currently eight in number. Commercially, it is one of the most successful and lucrative sporting events in the country, with its brand value reaching a whopping US $ 3.2 billion. Till date, eight IPL events have been organized in India and the ninth one is running in 2016.
B
harti Enterprises founder and Chairman Sunil Bharti Mittal (58) was bestowed with 2016 Harvard Business School Alumni Achievement Award. Sunil Mittal is Indian telecom tycoon, entrepreneur and philanthropist. He is the founder, chairman and Group CEO of Bharti Enterprises, which has interests in telecom, financial services, retail and agri business. The Group flagship Bharti Airtel, with operations in 20 countries across Asia and Africa and has customer base of over 275 million. It is India’s largest telecom company and world’s third largest mobile operator. He is listed as the eight richest person in India by Forbes with a Net worth of 7 billion dollars. In 2007, he was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India’s third highest civilian honour.
Six new IITs will come up at Tirupati, Palakkad, Dharwar, Bhilai, Goa and Jammu while ISM Dhanbad will also be upgraded to an IIT.
The Union Cabinet which met today gave its ex post facto approval to amend The Institutes of Technology Act, 1961 for incorporation of new IITs at Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh), Palakkad (Kerala), Dharwar (Karnataka), Bhilai (Chhattisgarh), Goa, Jammu (Jammu and Kashmir) and conversion of Indian School of Mines (ISM), Dhanbad to an IIT under the law.
“The approval will bring six new Indian Institutes of Technology within the ambit of The Institutes of Technology Act, 1961 and declaring them as the institutions of national importance,” an official statement said in New Delhi.
The amendment will also help convert ISM, Dhanbad into an IIT by bringing it into the ambit of the Institutes of Technology Act, 1961
1. Table
2. Square Table
Practice Set – 1
3. Square Root
Practice Set – 2
4. Cube Table & Cube Root.
Practice Set – 3
5. VBODMAS
Practice Set – 4
Practice Set – 5
Answers Key – 5
6. Series
7. Fraction
8. Approximate
BODMAS rule defines the correct sequence in which operations are to be performed in a given mathematical expression to find its value.
In BODMAS,
B = Bracket,
O = Order (Powers, Square Roots, etc.)
DM = Division and Multiplication (left-to-right)
AS = Addition and Subtraction (left-to-right)
This means, to simplify an expression, the following order must be followed.
Examples
E-Book Download Click Here
A Probationary Officer (PO) can reach up to the level of Chairman of a bank. You will be surprised to know that a number of heads of PSBs have started their career as a PO. Normally, the probation period is of two years in which the officer is exposed to different types of bank-related work. There are frequent transfers during the probation period. Once the probation period is over, the officer is appointed as an Assistant Manager and gets his or her permanent posting. Now a day, some banks are placing officers as Deputy Managers also, provided they pass the test conducted by the bank. After confirmation, officers can be posted in specific areas of banking.
Selection Procedure for Bank PO Exams:
Bank Probationary officer recruitment conduct by bank or IBPS organization. Written (prelim & main) examination contain five paper Numerical Ability, Reasoning, English, General awareness and computer/marketing each paper objective type after a qualifying minimum cutoff marks in written examination thereafter you qualified to the personal interview that is final round of bank officers selection.
Eligibility Criteria
A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Govt. All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a University/ Institution/Board recognised by Govt of India/ approved by Govt Regulatory Bodies.
Age Limit
The candidate must be between the age of 20 and 30 years. Reservations and age relaxation are according to the Govt notification.
Relaxation of Upper Age Limit
| S. No. | Category | Age relaxation |
| 1. | Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe | 5 years |
| 2. | Other Backward Classes (Non-Creamy Layer) | 3 years |
| 3. | Persons with Disabilities | 10 years |
| 4. | Ex-Servicemen, Commissioned Officers including Emergency Commissioned Officers (ECOs)/ Short Service Commissioned Officers (SSCOs) who have rendered at least 5 years’ military service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from the last date of receipt of application) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or physical disability attributable to military service or invalidment | 5 years |
| 5. | Persons ordinarily domiciled in the state of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 1-1-80 to 31-12-89 | 5 years |
| 6. | Persons affected by 1984 riots | 5 years |
Structure of the Examination
Syllabus for Bank P.O Prelims Online Examination:-
| Subject | Question No. | Max Marks | Course Details |
| Reasoning | 35 | 35 | View Details |
| Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | View Details |
| English | 30 | 30 | View Details |
Syllabus for Bank P.O mains Online Examination:-
After qualified Prelims online examination then you appear for Mains Exam.
| Subject | Question No. | Max Marks | Course Details |
| Reasoning | 50 | 50 | View Details |
| Numerical Ability | 50 | 50 | View Details |
| English | 40 | 40 | View Details |
| General Awareness | 40 | 40 | View Details |
| Computer Awareness | 20 | 20 | View Details |
After qualified Mains online examination then you appear for GDPI (conducted by IBPS/SBI/RBI)
Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview. MARKS OBTAINED ONLY IN THE MAIN EXAMINATION WILL BE CONSIDERED FOR SHORTLISTING FOR INTERVIEW AND ALSO FOR FINAL MERIT LISTING.
Interview
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the main examination for CWE PO/MT will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the participating organisations and coordinated by the nodal bank in each State/UT with the help of the Institute for Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) will be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interview call letters from the authorised IBPS website www.ibps.in. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc of interview will not be entertained. However, the conducting agencies reserve the right to change the date/venue/time/centre etc of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date/session/venue/centre/set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CWE (Main exam) and interview will be 80 : 20. The combined final score of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in the Main Examination of CWE PO/MT-V and Interview. Interview score of the candidates failing to secure minimum qualifying marks or otherwise barred from the interview or further process shall not be disclosed. A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on the IBPS website.
Emoluments
Following would be the new pay structure of newly joined Probationary Officers:
| Components | Amount (Per Month approx) |
| Basic Pay | Rs 26,705 (Merged 60.15% of DA into current basic pay) |
| House Rent Allowance | Rs 1,996.2 (7.475% of Basic Pay) |
| Dearness Allowance | Rs 8,839.36 (33.1% of Basic Pay) |
| Total | Rs 37,541 |
| Cash in Hand | Rs 33,986 (approx) |
A clerk is mostly a front staff in a bank. Depending on the requirement, clerks are placed at different counters of the banks, e.g. savings, deposit, current deposit, term deposit, retail loans, cash credit, agricultural loans, credit cards, govt business, cash receipt or payment, etc. Maximum customer interface in banks occurs at these counters managed by clerical staff. Bank Clerk recruitment examination conduct by IBPS or specially Bank (SBI/RBI).
Eligibility
The minimum age for applying for the position of a clerk in nationalised or private sector banks is 20 years. The maximum age limit is 28 years. The candidate has to be a Graduate in any discipline. As most of the recruitment in clerical cadre in public sector banks are made state-wise, the candidate applying for the post in a particular State is expected to be proficient in the language of the State. Proficiency means knowing to read, write, speak and understand the language.
Structure of the Examination
The structure of the examinations, which will be conducted online, is as follows:Preliminary Examination
| S. No. | Name of Tests | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1. | English Language | 30 | 30 | Composite time of 1hour |
| 2. | Quantitative Aptitude | 35 | 35 | |
| 3. | Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
Main Examination
| S. No. | Name of Tests | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1. | Reasoning | 40 | 40 | Composite time of 2 hours |
| 2. | English Language | 40 | 40 | |
| 3. | Quantitative Aptitude | 40 | 40 | |
| 4. | General Awareness(with reference to Banking Industry) | 40 | 40 | |
| 5. | Computer Knowledge | 40 | 40 | |
| Total | 200 | 200 |
A candidate should qualify both prelims and mains. Mains exam score high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on IBPS website.
Emoluments:
| Components | Revised (Per Month) |
| Basic | 12,812(60.15% of DA merged in basic) |
| House Rent Allowance | 1,921 (15% of DA) |
| Fuel Expense | 225 |
| Dearness Allowance | 5,124 (40% of basic as remaining 60% merged in basic salary) |
| Special Allowance | 1,908 (9.5% increase in final pay slip component) |
| Total | 21,990 |
| Deductions: | |
| Provident Fund | -2,199 |
| Tax | -20 |
| Union Fee | -60 |
| Benefit Funds | -250 |
| In Hand | 19,461 |
more details Call: 986 913 9632

World Oceans Day is a global day of ocean celebration and collaboration for a better future. This site serves as the central coordinating platform for World Oceans Day, with free resources and ideas for everyone – no matter where you live – to help expand the reach and impact of World Oceans Day on June 8 and year round.
This year’s theme is “Healthy Oceans, Healthy Planet” and individuals and organizations across the planet are taking action for prevention of plastic pollution in our ocean.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 June 2016 concluded five-nation visit to Afghanistan, Qatar, Switzerland, the US and Mexico.
During the five-day tour between 4 June and 8 June 2016, Modi met with Afghan President, Ashraf Ghani; Amir of Qatar, Sheikh Tamim Bin Hamad Al-Thani; President of Swiss federation, Johann Schneider-Ammann; US President Barack Obama; and Mexican President Enrique Pena Nieta.

During this visit, he held high level meetings on a wide range of bilateral issues and matters of regional and global concern. With US President, Swiss President and Mexico President, Modi discussed India’s NSG membership issue and secured their constructive support.
Major Highlights of the visit to Afghanistan
• In Herat, Modi and Afghan President Ashraf Ghani dedicated Afghan-India friendship dam, earlier known as Salma dam to the people.
• The project built by India at a cost 1700 crore rupees will irrigate 75 thousand hectares of land, generate 42 megawatt power and also supply drinking water in 620 villages.
• Afghan President conferred the highest civilian honour of Afghanistan, the Amir Amanullah Khan Award on Narendra Modi.
Major Highlights of the visit to Qatar
• The two nations signed 7 agreements in various fields.
• Prime Minister as a rare and special gesture shared meal with workers at a medical camp in Doha.
• The two sides agreed to constitute an inter-ministerial High Level Joint Committee to regularly review all bilateral matters, as well as regional and global issues of mutual interest.
• Modi held detailed talks with Emir of Qatar Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al-Thani and addressed the business community of Qatar, a country which is India’s largest supplier of LNG requirements, accounting for 65% of the country’s total imports in financial year 2015-16.
Major Highlights of the visit to Switzerland
• Prime Minister meets Indian scientists and students at CERN in Geneva.
• Delegation level talks were held between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Switzerland President Johann Schneider Ammann in Geneva.
• Switzerland supported India’s membership in the 48-member Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
witzerland agreed to provide mutual support to India for becoming non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council.
• Switzerland agreed to help India in combating the menace of black money and tax evasion
• The country agreed to build Swiss style vocational and educational training centres in India that suit India’s requirements.
• It also agreed to share clean technology and work on energy security and sustainable development.
Major Highlights of the visit to the US
• Modi addressed a joint session of the US Congress.
• He met the Congressional Leadership at Capitol Hills.
• He addressed the gathering at 40th AGM of US India Business Council in Washington.
• He interacted with think tanks in Washington.
• He attended ceremony for repatriation of cultural objects in Washington.
• He laid wreath at Space Shuttle Colombia Memorial at Arlington Cemetery in Washington.
• The two nations announced the creation of a 20 million dollar US-India Clean Energy Finance (USICEF) initiative. The initiative will be equally supported by both and is expected to mobilize up to 400 million dollar to provide clean and renewable electricity to up to 1 million households by 2020.
• The two nations signed and exchanged 6 MoUs and 2 documents.
Modi was the fifth Indian prime minister to address a joint session of US lawmakers. Other four Prime Minister’s to address the joint session include Rajiv Gandhi (June 1985), P V Narasimha Rao (May 1994), Atal Bihari Vajpayee (September 2000), Manmohan Singh (July 2005).
Jawaharlal Nehru addressed the House and Senate separately in 1949 when he was the head of the interim government.
Major Highlights of the visit to Mexico
• Prime Minister meets Enrique Peña Nieto, President of Mexico during his visit to Mexico
• Mexico is an important partner for India’s energy security. We are now looking to move beyond a buyer-seller relationship, and into a long-term partnership.” – Prime Minister
• Foreign Ministers of the two countries were instructed to develop the roadmap of the Privileged Partnership suitable for the 21stCentury, in the framework of the Seventh Mexico-India Joint Commission Meeting to be held in Mexico in 2016.
Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) on 10 June 2016 released the 2016 Global Peace Index (GPI). It is 10th edition of GPI that measured peace, its causes and its economic value during 2015 for 163 countries.
India ranked 141 among the 163 countries with 2.566 GPI score. It showed an improvement in peace building as it held 143th rank in 2014 and 2015.
Highlights of 2016 GPI
• The Index shows that the world became less peaceful in 2015, reinforcing the underlying trend of declining peace over the last decade.
• The GPI records a historically less peaceful and more unequal world in which many countries also improved.
• The countries improved in Peace are 81 while deteriorated counts 79.
• The countries that topped the 2016 GPI for being most peaceful are Iceland (1), Denmark (2), Austria (3), New Zealand (4), Portugal (5), Czech Republic (6), Switzerland (7), Canada (8), Japan (9) and Slovenia (10).
• The least peacepul countries are Pakistan (153), Libya (154), Sudan (155), Ukraine (156), Central African Republic (157), Yemen (158), Somalia (159), Afghanistan (160), Iraq (161), South Sudan (162) and Syria (163).
Pakistan (153rd), Libya (154th), Sudan (155th), Ukraine (156th), Central African Republic (157th), Yemen (158th), Somalia (159th), Afghanistan (160th), Iraq (161st), South Sudan (162nd) and Syria (163rd).
• The majority of the global deterioration is due to the developments in the Middle East and Africa (MENA) which is already the least peaceful region in the world.
• It shows that amidst the global deterioration the world continues to spend enormous resources on creating and containing violence but very little on peace.
• The indicators with the largest yearly deterioration were the impact of terrorism and political instability.
• The countries with the largest deteriorations were Djibouti, Guinea-Bissau, Poland, Burundi, Kazakhstan and Brazil.
• The indicator with the largest improvement is UN peacekeeping funding, while the second largest improvement was recorded in the security officers and police rate indicator.
• UN member states have formally recognised the critical nature of peacefulness in advancing global development for the first time.
• The 17 SDGs are a new set of goals to target poverty, inequality, injustice and climate change by 2030.
• IEP recommends that independent third party organisations provide complimentary support to NSOs and offer a useful benchmark against which to compare results.
World Blood Donors Day (WBDD) 2016 was observed on 14 June 2016.
The theme of the 2016 World Blood Donor Day campaign is Blood connects us all. The theme highlights the common bond that all people share in their blood.
The slogan for 2016 WBDD is Share life, give blood. The slogan focuses on voluntary donation systems. The voluntary donation systems play a pivotal role in encouraging people to care for one another and promoting community cohesion.
The theme of 2015 was “Thank you for saving my life”.

The United States and India should consider permanently expanding their annual naval exercise to include other like-minded partners as part of their joint cooperation in the Asia-Pacific, a U.S. defense official said earlier this week.
Exercise MALABAR, which initially began as a bilateral naval exercise between the United States and India back in 1992, has at times been expanded to include other partners as well. The 2007 iteration included Japan, Australia, and Singapore, while Tokyo also participated in 2009 and 2014. This year, Japan has been included but Australia has reportedly been left out (See: “Japan to Join US, India in Military Exercises This Year”).
But Robert Scher, the assistant secretary of defense for the Office of Strategy, Plans and Capabilities, told an audience at a Washington, D.C.-based think tank on July 13 that the United States and India should consider permanently expanding the exercise to include these partners instead of doing so on an ad hoc basis. Scher said that expanding the exercise would be one tangible demonstration of Washington and New Delhi working together on maritime security in the Indian Ocean.
About Malabar Exercise 2016
• Malabar 2016 will be conducted with the harbour phase at Sasebo and with the sea phase in the Pacific Ocean.
• The scope of MALABAR-16 includes professional interactions in harbour and a diverse range of activities at sea, including complex surface, sub-surface and air operations.
• This year, four Indian ships are participating in the exercise including INS Satpura, INS Sahyadri, INS Shakti and INS Kirch.
• The ships have embarked one Sea King 42B ASW helicopter and two Chetak utility helicopters.
• The US Navy will be represented by ships from CTF 70 of the USN 7th fleet, which is based at Yokosuka, Japan.
• The CTF will include the aircraft carrier USS John C Stennis (CVN 74), Ticonderoga class Cruiser USS Mobile Bay and Arleigh Burke class destroyers USS Stockdale and USS Chung Hoon.
• In addition, one nuclear powered submarine, carrier wing aircraft and Long Range Maritime Patrol aircraft will also participate in the exercise.
• Japanese Maritime Self Defence Force (JMSDF) will be represented by JS Hyuga, a helicopter carrier with SH 60 K integral helicopters and Long Range Maritime Patrol aircraft.
• Additionally, the Special Forces (SF) of the three navies will also interact during the exercise.
Australia on 18 June 2016 won Hero Hockey Champions Trophy 2016 at the Lee Valley Hockey and Tennis Centre in London. It defeated India 1-0 in a shoot-out.
The game finished with the score locked at 0-0 but later Australia scored a goal in the shoot-out reducing the score to 1-0 and won the final match to win the Gold medal. Australia’s Blake Govers missed a penalty stroke, while India was dominant in the third and fourth quarter before losing the shoot-out.
With this victory, Australia claimed the Champions Trophy title for the 14th time.
Germany defeated Great Britain to win the bronze medal.
Part of yoga’s appeal and rising popularity is its ability to be interpreted and shaped by the culture or society in which it is practised. Traditional styles of yoga such as Iyengar or Ashtanga co-exist alongside more new-age forms such as boxing yoga or rave yoga, even Christian yoga.
Some religious conservatives complain that yoga is rooted in the religions of the Indian sub-continent, notably Hinduism and Buddhism. This perception has restricted the rise of yoga in conservative Islamic societies such as Qatar, where it can be seen as blasphemous. The small Gulf nation is governed by an austere form of Islam known as Wahhabism, which views yoga with suspicion. Despite its global popularity, many Muslims feel that practising yoga is tantamount to practising another religion.
Noor disagrees. “Yoga is not a religion,” she told Al Jazeera. “It is a discipline.”
The reason Noor is able to practise and teach yoga at all, is because of Valerie Jeremijenko. She is an early pioneer of yoga in Qatar, perhaps the earliest. Valerie has been a yoga teacher in Qatar for the past 15 years and has operated her own studio, Yama Yoga, since 2009. She also runs a successful teacher-training programme. However, while the perception of yoga is changing, she still faces some, mostly cultural or social, difficulties.
“This has less to do with yoga and more to do with Qatar’s licensing laws that do not like mixed male-female classes or recognise yoga outside of a sport,” Valerie told Al Jazeera.
Valerie said that the kinds of yoga that took off in the West, physically demanding practices such as Ashtanga and hot yoga, were rooted in the Protestant work ethic, and as such, don’t really suit traditional Qatari society.
“The daily ethic of a rigorous practice is not really part of the Qatari culture, nor is individual expression … so yoga as it is practised in the West does not really work with the traditional Qatari way of life,” she added.
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) on 21 June 2016 released a report entitled World Investment Report 2016 – Investor Nationality: Policy Challenges.
The report examines international production by multinational enterprises (including sales, exports, employment and value added), as well as their ownership structures and control of affiliates.
In a novel analysis, the report focuses on how policymakers can distinguish between “domestic” and “foreign” companies in a globalized economy and provides with a new framework for handling ownership issues in 21st century investment policymaking.
While the USA surpassed Hong Kong and China in terms of FDI inflows in 2015 with 380 billion US dollars, India continues to be at the 10th position with 44 billion US dollars.
• FDI inflows: Top 10 countries in terms of FDI inflows in decreasing order – The USA, China, Hong Kong, Ireland, Netherlands, Switzerland, Singapore, Brazil, Canada and India.
• Ireland and Switzerland registered considerable progress in 2015. While Ireland attracted additional 71 billion US dollars in 2015 compared to 2014, in the case of Switzerland it was 62 billion US dollars
• Global investment trends: The flows jumped by 38 per cent to 1.76 trillion US dollars, their highest level since the global economic and financial crisis of 2008–2009.
• Inward FDI flows to developed economies almost doubled to 962 billion US dollars. As a result, developed economies tipped the balance back in their favour with 55 per cent of global FDI, up from 41 per cent in 2014.
• FDI flows are expected to decline by 10-15 per cent in 2016, reflecting the fragility of the global economy and persistent weakness of aggregate demand, sluggish growth in some commodity exporting countries.
• Regional investment trends: Developing Asia saw FDI inflows increase by 16 per cent to 541 billion US dollars – a new record. The significant growth was driven by the strong performance of East and South Asian economies.
• More than 40 per cent of foreign affiliates worldwide have multiple “passports”. These affiliates are part of complex ownership chains with multiple cross-border links involving on average three jurisdictions.
• “Multiple passport affiliates” are the result of indirect foreign ownership, transit investment through third countries, and round-tripping.
• These types of affiliates are much more common in the largest Multi National Enterprises (MNEs). 60 per cent of their foreign affiliates have multiple cross-border ownership links to the parent company.
• The larger the MNEs, the greater is the complexity of their internal ownership structures. The top 100 MNEs in UNCTAD’s Transnationality Index have on average more than 500 affiliates each, across more than 50 countries.
• The blurring of investor nationality has made the application of rules and regulations on foreign ownership more challenging.
• Policymakers in some countries have developed a range of mechanisms to safeguard the effectiveness of foreign ownership rules, including anti-dummy laws, general anti-abuse rules to prevent foreign control, and disclosure requirements.
• The report advised the policy makers to find a balance between liberalization and regulation in pursuing the ultimate objective of promoting investment for sustainable development.
• Globally, India was at the top tenth position in terms of FDI inflows in 2015. Compared to 35 billion US dollars in 2014, it received 44 billion US dollars of investments in 2015.
• India’s and Bangladesh’s FDI performance pushed inflows to South Asia to 50 billion US dollars, an increase of 22 per cent from 2014.
• India became the fourth largest recipient of investment in developing Asia.
• Outward FDI from India, South Asia’s dominant investor, dropped by more than one third which resulted in an overall 36 per cent decline of outflows from the region to 8 billion US dollars in 2015
Utpal Bora who served as the Executive Director in Mehsana asset, has been appointed as the new Chairman and the Managing Director CMD of Oil India Limited (OIL). Till now the Public Enterprise Selection Board has held two interview for the selection of CMD of OIL. Rupshika Saikia Borah was elected earlier as the CMD but her appointment was rejected by the Prime Minister’s Office. After conducting interview of many more applicants, the PSEB finally selected Utpal Bora as the new CMD. Bora after assuming his office said he will put sincere efforts into generating employment oppurtunities for the youths of Assam.
Sikkim chief minister Pawan Chamling was conferred the ‘Yug Kavi Siddhicharan Award’ by Nepal Prime Minister KP Sharma Oli on Sunday for his commendable contributions in promoting Nepali literature in India.
Siddhicharan Shrestha Academy organised an event in Kathmandu on the occasion of 105th birth anniversary of the late poet Shrestha.
The award carries a certificate of appreciation and a sum of NRs 100,000. Chamling, 65, was not present to receive the award
Madrid: The 17th edition of the IIFA Awards took place in Spain’s capital Madrid on Saturday in a high-voltage extravaganza.
Here is the list of winners:-
Best Director – Sanjay Leela Bhansali for Bajirao Mastani
Best Film – Bajrangi Bhaijaan
Best Actress – Deepika Padukone for Piku
Best Actor – Ranveer Singh for Bajirao Mastani
Best Supporting Actress – Priyanka Chopra for Bajirao Mastani
Best Supporting Actor – Anil Kapoor for Dil Dhadakne Do
Best Story – Juhi Chaturvedi for Piku
Special Award for Woman of The Year – Priyanka Chopra
Special Award for Woman of The Year – Priyanka Chopra
Best Debut Couple Award – Sooraj Pancholi and Athiya Shetty
Best Performance in a Negative Role – Darshan Kumaar for NH10
Best Performance in Comic Role – Deepak Dobriyal for Tanu Weds Manu Returns
Best Debut (Female) – Bhumi Pednekar for Dum Laga Ke Haisha
Best Debut (Male) – Vicky Kaushal for Masaan
Best Playback Singer (Female) – Monali Thakur for Moh Moh Ke Dhaage from Dum Laga Ke Haisha
Best Playback Singer (Male) – Papon for Moh Moh Ke Dhaage from Dum Laga Ke Haisha
Best Lyrics – Varun Grover for Dum Laga Ke Haisha
IIFA, which takes the power of Bollywood to international shores every year, celebrated 60 years of India’s diplomatic relations with Spain here with close to 150 film celebrities and over 20,000 fans in attendance.
Under the provisions of the Notice as referred above, the Commission has decided to reduce the Number of Questions from 200 to 100 in Tier-I of the above Examination which would continue to carry 200 marks. The duration of the Tier-I examination would be for a period of 75 minutes. It has also been decided to conduct the Tier-I and Tier-II in computer based examination mode in place of OMR based examination mode. Tier-I is scheduled to be held from 27th August, 2016.
more detail click here
The State Bank of India conducts the Clerical exam every year to recruit candidates for the post of Clerical Cadre. For the year 2016-17, the notice has been released. The exam will be held online tentatively in the month of May-June 2016. However, the candidates can fill the application form up to 25 April 2016. Aspirants will have to appear in the online examination to be selected the post. Aspirants must be wondering how to prepare for the exam in order to successfully crack it. For the same, we have introduced some preparation tips which can help candidates to clear the exam and make their preparation process all the more easier. Take notes and follow these to prepare nicely. Read the SBI Clerk 2016 Preparation Tips below.
Aspirants can follow the SBI Clerk Preparation Tips 2016 given below and act accordingly to obtain a reasonable score and make it up to the selection.
Attempt questions carefully: While answering the questions, this is very important that the candidates read the questions very carefully and answer them with utmost care. Never misread the question and manage time well so as to attempt every question nicely. Examination training is important part to qualify the any exams…
For Inquiry Call: 986 913 9632
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 14 April 2016 inaugurated the Maritime India Summit 2016 (MIS 2016) in Mumbai. While inaugurating the summit, the PM invited investors to come to India. Maritime India Summit 2016 is a maiden flagship initiative of the Ministry of Shipping, Government of India that provides a unique platform for participants to explore potential business opportunities in Indian Maritime Sector.
The two-day summit, which will conclude on 15 April 2016, will host forums to foster interaction between stakeholders through B2B and G2B meetings. It will also organise special sessions on investment opportunities in maritime sector, setting up of new ports and capacity augmentation of existing ports, development of inland waterways for cargo and passenger transportation, coastal shipping and other services related to Indian Maritime Sector.
The summit will project vast investment opportunities in each of the Indian Maritime States and Union Territories, including an exclusive partner country session by Republic of Korea.
The Summit will showcase exciting investment opportunities in:
• Shipbuilding, Ship Repair and Ship Recycling
• Port Modernization and New Port Development
• Port-based Industrial Development, Port-based Smart Cities and Maritime Cluster Development
• Hinterland Connectivity Projects and Multi-Modal Logistics Hubs
• Inland Waterways and Coastal Shipping for Cargo and Passenger movement
• Dredging
• Lighthouse Tourism and Cruise Shipping
• Renewable Energy Projects in Ports
• Other Maritime Sector related services (Financing, Legal, Design etc.)
1. [63 × 54] ÷ 43 = ?
1) 2109.375
2) 2019.375
3) 2209.435
4) 2108.275
5) 2014.275
2. (1.8 * 3.6)/ 0.9 = ?
1) 6.2
2) 8.4
3) 9.2
4) 5.2
5) 7.2
3. (7897 + 4596 + 3128) ÷ 30 = ?
1) 510.7
2) 518.7
3) 520.7
4) 525.7
5) 530.7
4. (104)^2 ÷ ? = 338
1) 1124
2) 1024
3) 961
4) 1089
5) 1156
5. 9880 – ? % of 750 = 9625
1) 34
2) 32
3) 36
4) 30
5) 38
6. 3√103823 = ?
1) 67
2) 37
3) 27
4) 47
5) 57
7. (27894 + 26588 – 13892) ÷ ? = 324720
1) 1.25
2) 0.325
3) 0.75
4) 0.125
5) 0.25
8. 1/8 * 6824 * 1/9 * 279 = ?
1) 27543
2) 26443
3) 26543
4) 28443
5) 26344
9. (28 * 15 – 50)/(25 * 6 / 15) = ?
1) 35
2) 37
3) 39
4) 47
5) 32
10. 46% of 4900 × 0.4% of 1200 = ?
1) 10819.2
2) 10719.2
3) 10809
4) 10919.2
5) 10839
Explanation:
1. 1; ? = 2109.375
2. 5;
? = (1.8 * 3.6)/0.9 = 1.8 * 4 = 7.2
3. 3;
? = (7897 + 4596 + 3128) / 30 = 15621 / 30 = 520.7
4. 2;
√? = (104 * 104)/ 338 = 32
? = 1024
5. 1;
? = 9880 – 9625 = (? * 750)/100
? = (255 * 100)/ 750 = 34
6. 4;
? = 47
7. 4;
? = 0.125
8. 2;
? = 853 × 31 = 26443
9. 2; ? = 370/10 = 37
10. 1; ? = 10819.2
Most people know Chanda Kochhar as the top honcho of one of India’s largest private banks, an inspiration for working women across the globe, a Padma Bhushan awardee, and recently also listed among the most powerful businesswomen in Asia by Forbes. However, this letter from the ICICI Bank Managing Director and CEO to her daughter gives us an insight to the woman and working mother behind the super-achieving professional. And for every daughter growing up with a working mother, this letter is a must read.
“As a parent with a full time job, one must not let work affect the way you relate to your family. Remember the time you were studying in the US and the announcement of my becoming MD and CEO of ICICI was splashed across all newspapers? I remember the mail you wrote to me a couple of days later. ‘You never made us realize that you had such a demanding, successful and stressful career. At home, you were just our mother,’ you wrote in your email. Live your life in the same way, my darling,” says the top banker in the letter, which appears in Sudha Menon’s book ‘Legacy: Letters from Eminent Parents to Their Daughters’. The letter has received a lot of appreciation on social media. Ms Kochhar has even been trending on Facebook since Thursday.
In her poignant letter, Ms Kochchar talks about growing up without her father who died when she was only 13 and her mother became a working single parent. She relates the lessons she learnt as a child to the time she became a working mother herself to her children, Aarti and Arjun.
“If you had complained and whined about my extended absence from home, I would never have had the heart to make a career for myself. I am blessed with a great and supportive family and I really hope you too will be as fortunate when you set out on your own,” she writes in the letter, which is full of heartfelt advice for her daughter, coupled with anecdotes from both her personal and professional life.
The letter makes for a beautiful read for all women, mothers or daughters. Read the letter in its entirety below. This one cannot be missed.
Dear Aarti,
It makes me feel so proud today to see you standing in front of me as a confident young woman right on the threshold of an exciting journey through life. I am looking forward to seeing you grow and flourish in the years ahead.
This moment has also brought back memories of my own journey, and the life lessons I learnt along the way. When I think of those times, I realize that most of these lessons were actually learnt in my childhood, mostly through examples set by my parents. The values that they instilled in my formative years gave me the foundation on which I try to live my life even today.
Our parents treated all three of us – two sisters and a brother – equally. When it came to education, or our future plans, there was no discrimination between us based on our gender. Your grandparents always had the same message for the three of us – that it was important to focus on what gave us satisfaction and to work towards it with utmost dedication. That early initiation enabled us to develop into confident individuals capable of taking decisions independently. This also helped me when I started out on my own journey of self- discovery.
I was only a young girl of 13 when my father passed away from a sudden heart attack, leaving us unprepared to take on life without him. We had been protected from life’s challenges so far. But without warning, all that changed overnight. And my mother, who had been a homemaker till then, faced the responsibility of raising three children all on her own. It was then that we realized how strong she was and how determined to do her duty in the best possible manner. Slowly, she discovered a flair for designing and textiles, found herself a job with a small firm, and quickly made herself indispensable to them. It must have been challenging for her to shoulder the responsibility of bringing up her family single- handed, but she never let us feel like it was a task for her. She worked hard till she saw all of us through college and we became independent. I never knew that my mother had such a wealth of self-assurance and belief within her.
As a parent with a full time job, one must not let work affect the way you relate to your family. Remember the time you were studying in the US and the announcement of my becoming MD and CEO of ICICI was splashed across all newspapers? I remember the mail you wrote to me a couple of days later. ‘You never made us realize that you had such a demanding, successful and stressful career. At home, you were just our mother,’ you wrote in your email. Live your life in the same way, my darling.
I also learnt from my mother that it is very important to have the ability to handle difficult situations and keep moving forward in life, no matter what. Even today I can remember the equanimity and calmness with which she handled the crisis on hand when my father passed away. You have to handle the challenges and emerge stronger from them, rather than allow them to bog you down. I remember how, in late 2008, we were faced with a situation where ICICI Bank’s survival was in jeopardy in the face of a global economic meltdown. The situation was being analysed with a hawk’s eye by major media platforms and debated widely in the public space… I got down to work, systematically communicating with all stakeholders – from the smallest depositor to the sophisticated investors, and from regulators to the government – the bank was sound and its exposure to these institutions involved a small portion of its assets. I understood their concern because so many of them feared that their hard earned savings in our bank could be at risk. I also advised staff across the bank’s various branches to lend a sympathetic ear to those depositors who turned up to withdraw their money, telling them to also offer the depositors a seat and a glass of water while they waited. And though, depositors were welcome to withdraw their money if they wanted to, our staff also took care to explain to them that it would not help them to take their money away, because there was no real crisis situation.
It was during this period that I took a couple of hours off one day to attend your brother’s squash tournament. I did not know it then, but my very presence at the tournament went a long way in reinstalling customer confidence in the bank. A few mothers at the tournament came and asked me if I was Chanda Kochhar from ICICI Bank and when I replied in the affirmative they said that if I could still find time to attend a tournament in the midst of a crisis, it meant that the bank was in safe hands and they need not worry about their money!
It was also from my mother that I learnt the importance of adapting to circumstances and not being afraid of the unknown. While working hard for my career, I looked after my family, and have been there for my mother and in-laws when they needed me around. They reciprocated in kind with their unconditional love and support for my career. Remember that relationships are important and have to be nurtured and cherished. Also keep in mind that a relationship is a two way street, so be ready to give a relationship just as you would expect the other person to be giving to you.
My career would not have progressed the way it did were it not for your father who never once complained about the time I spent away from home. Your father and I nurtured our relationship despite the fact that we were both busy with our own careers, and I am confident you will do the same with your partner, when the time comes. If you had complained and whined about my extended absence from home, I would never have had the heart to make a career for myself. I am blessed with a great and supportive family and I really hope you too will be as fortunate when you set out on your own!
I remember the day your board exams were about to commence. I had taken leave from work so that I could take you to the examination hall myself. When you realized I was coming, you told me how you were used to going for your exams alone for so many years. It hurt me to hear you say that, but I also think in some ways, having a working mother made you much more independent from a very young age itself. You not only became independent, but also stepped into the nurturer’s role for your younger brother and never let him miss my presence. I learnt to have trust and faith in you and you have now grown into a wonderful, independent woman. I now use the same principle at work to make our growing population of younger talent take on larger responsibilities.
I believe in fate but I also believe that hard work and diligence plays a very important role in our lives. In a larger sense, we all write our own destiny. Take destiny in your own hands, dream of what you want to achieve, and write it in your own way. As you go ahead in life, I want you to climb the path to success one step at a time. Aim for the sky, but move slowly, enjoying every step along the way. It is all those little steps that make the journey complete.
As you go forward, you will sometimes have to take difficult decisions, decisions that others might scorn at. But you must have the courage to stand up for what you believe in. Make sure you have that conviction to do what you know is right, and once you have it, don’t let skeptics distract you from your path.
Aarti, there is no limit to what a determined mind can achieve, but in achieving your goal, don’t compromise on the values of fair play and honesty. Don’t cut corners or compromise to achieve your dreams. Remember to be sensitive to the feelings of people around you. And remember, if you don’t allow stress to overtake you, it will never become an issue in your life.
Remember that good times and bad times will be part of your life equally, and you have to learn to handle both with equanimity. Make the most of life’s opportunities and learn from every opportunity, and challenge that life brings along.
Lovingly yours,
Mumma
Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan, a Central government’s campaign to strengthen Panchayati Raj in villages and ensure social harmony, empowerment of women and uplift of farmers will be launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Mhow in Madhya Pradesh in April, on the occasion of 125th Birth anniversary of Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar.
Rural Development Minister Birender Singh told reporters on Friday here that the campaign would be held all over the country from April 14 to 24.The topics of discussions in these Gram Sabhas will include :-
• Gram Panchayat Development Plans for local economic development,
• Optimum utilization of funds available with Panchayati Raj Institutions,
• Clean drinking water and sanitation,
• Role of women in village and rural development.
• Social inclusion including welfare of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, person with Disabilities and other marginalized groups.
“The campaign will be run jointly by Union Rural Development and Panchayati Raj, Agriculture, Social Justice, Labour and Information and Broadcasting Ministries along with States and will culminate on April 24 on the Panchayati Raj Day with the Prime Minister addressing villagers in Jamshedpur.
“During the campaign, discussions on issues pertaining to rural development, improving farmers’ income, SC and ST welfare and social harmony programmes will be held on different platforms,” he said.
Air Force Common Aptitude Test is conducted by IAF. It is conducted twice a year. Those candidates who want to make their career in Indian Air Force will have to qualify this test. Recently AFCAT was successfully conducted at various centres in India. Large number of candidates took this examination.
Air Force Common Admission Test also known as AFCAT is conducted for the admission of eligible candidates in Flying Branch, Technical Branch and Ground Duty Branches of Indian Air Force. AFCAT Exam is scheduled to be held every year for all the eligible applicants. You can find the details of the examination. The Air Force Common Admission Test will consist of 100 questions and each question will be of three marks. So total marks for all questions will be 300. As far as negative marking is concerned, there is one-third negative marking in AFCAT exam. For every wrong answer, 1 mark will be deducted as penalty.
Applications are invited from Men and Women candidates for Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) 02/2016 for the Courses commencing July 2017
Invites applications from bright young engineers to join in the Air Force for grant of Short Service Commission in Flying Branch and Permanent/ Short Service Commission (PSC/ SSC) in Technical and Ground Duty Branches for the following courses for Men and Women.
– Flying Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Men, Age : 20-24 years
– Technical Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Technical Branch Permanent Commission (PC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Ground Duty Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Ground Duty Branch Permanent Commission (PC) Men, Age : 20-26 years
– Flying Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Women / Female, Age : 20-24 years
-Technical Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Women / Female, Age : 20-26 years
– Ground Duty Branch Short Service Commission (SSC) Women / Female, Age : 20-26 years
The AFCAT paper will consist of four sections:
There will be Multiply Choice Based Questions of 3 marks each. The candidates will be penalized in the form of deduction of 1 marks for every wrong answers attempted by them. The duration of AFCAT Exam will be 2 Hours.
AFCAT Syllabus:
(a) AFCAT Exam Syllabus for General Awareness: History, Sports, Geography, Environment, Culture, Current Affairs, Politics , Civics, Basic Sciences, Defence, Art etc
(b) Verbal Ability in English: Comprehension, Error Detection, Synonyms, Antonyms, and Testing of Vocabulary, Sentence Completion etc.
(c) Numerical Ability: Decimal Fraction, Simplification, Average, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, and Simple Interest, Profit & Loss, Time and distance etc.
(d) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test section: Verbal Skills Non Verbal Ability and Spatial Ability etc.
Last Date online apply: 30 June 2016
more details: click here
Private sector lender ICICI Bank became the first financial institution in the country to tie up with the BRICS Grouping-promoted New Development Bank (NDB) for a partnership in bond issuances, co-financing, treasury management and human resources. As part of the pact, the two lenders — NDBs first president is ICICI Bank veteran KV Kamath — will look at each other as “preferred partners”.
ICICI Bank and NDB will also leverage a mutually beneficial partnership in other areas such as treasury risk management, account and cash management services and human resource development.
Beyond this, there will be continuous dialogue and regular exchange of information between the two banks for exploring potential partnerships in other areas as well. Headquartered in Shanghai, the NDB began operations with an initial capital of USD 100 billion last year as a multilateral development bank promoted by Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
Half of the world’s 20 most polluted cities are in India, said a World Health Organization report released on Thursday, indicating industrial and vehicular exhaust were choking large parts of the country with little oversight or monitoring mechanism.
The Capital is no longer the world’s most polluted city, dropping to 11th position with smaller towns galloping past Delhi to grab second and third spot.
The top spot is taken by the Iranian city of Zabol that falls in the middle of a dust bowl. Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh and Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh take the second and third spot, respectively
FERA : The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was legislation passed in 1973 that imposed strict regulations on certain kinds of payments, the dealings in foreign exchange and securities and the transactions which had an indirect impact on the foreign exchange and the import and export of currency. FERA was introduced at a time when foreign exchange (Forex) reserves of the country were low
FEMA : The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is an Act of the Parliament of India “to consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating external trade and payments and for promoting the orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India”. It paved the way for the introduction of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, which came into effect from 1 July 2005.
1. FEMA replaced FERA: FERA was repealed in 1998 by the government of Atal Bihari Vajpayee and replaced by the Foreign Exchange Management Act, which liberalised foreign exchange controls and restrictions on foreign investment.
2. FEMA became an act on 1 June 2000.
3. FEMA was intoduced because the FERA did not fit in with the Post-Liberalization Policy.
4. What Changes FEMA bring? – It made all offence regarding Foreign Exchange Civil Offence, as opposed to criminal offences as dictated by FERA.
5. Main objective of FEMA : Conolidate (strengthen) and amend the law relating to Foreign Exchange. AND
To Promote the orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
6. FEMA is applicable to all parts in India (abroad also if agency owned by an Indian).
7. The FEMA head-office, also known as Enforcement Directorate is situated in New Delhi and is headed by a Director. The Directorate is further divided into 5 zonal offices in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Jalandhar and each office is headed by a Deputy Director.
BJP leader and former IPS officer Kiran Bedi was appointed as the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Puducherry on 22 May 2016. Puducherry will now have a full time Lt. Governor after a gap of two year.
She will succeed Ajay Kumar Singh, the Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, who was holding the additional charge of Puducherry since July 2014. The LG post of Puducherry was vacant after the union government in July 2014 sacked Virendra Kataria from the post.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday left for Iran on a two-day official visit, during which the trilateral agreement between India , Iran and Afghanistan to develop the Chabahar port in that Gulf nation will be signed.
Modi will be accorded an official welcome in Tehran on Monday following which he will hold talks with Iran’s Supreme Leader Ayatollah Sayyid Ali Hosseini Khamenei and President Hassan Rouhani .
Connectivity, energy security and bilateral trade are on top of Modi’s agenda during his visit which comes a little over a month and a half of his trip to Saudi Arabia. The prime minister will also inaugurate an Indian cultural festival in Iran.
The visit will feature discussion on terrorism in the region as well as extended neighbourhood. It will also focus on New Delhi’s desire to secure energy assets for a fast growing economy. After reaching Tehran, PM Modi will visit a Gurudwara there
Mainstreaming Biodiversity; Sustaining People and their Livelihoods

Biodiversity is the foundation for life and for the essential services provided by ecosystems. It therefore underpins peoples’ livelihoods and sustainable development in all areas of activity, including economic sectors such as agriculture, forestry, fisheries and tourism, among others. By halting biodiversity loss, we are investing in people, their lives and their well-being.
The thirteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (COP 13) to be held in Cancun, Mexico from 4 to 17 December 2016 will focus on the mainstreaming of biodiversity within and across sectors, which is closely linked to this year’s IDB theme.
We invite Parties and organizations that have already initiated national plans for activities to celebrate the International Day for Biological Diversity to keep the Secretariat informed of such plans and other noteworthy activities organized by NGOs or other organizations so that they may be included in these pages.
Senior advocate of Bombay High Court Atma Ram Nadkarni on 9 May 2016 was appointed as Additional Solicitor General (ASG).
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved the appointment of Nadkarni as Additional Solicitor General in Supreme Court for a period of three years.
As we all know that every year thousands of student appear for NDA written examination and due to its difficulty level only few candidates are able to crack it. The right preparation strategy to clear NDA Exam begins sudden after +2 Board Examinations.
This type of examination requires a good level of intelligence with great practice & lots of motivational sessions. In our Institute we give complete training and best support to the candidates to get success in NDA exams. Indian Armed Forces is the best respectful and influential opportunities for the students. Delhi Career Group is one of the Best Coaching Institutes for NDA IPCI.
It consists of two papers which are given in table as below:
16 September: International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer.
Layer is observed every year on September 16 for the preservation of the Ozone Layer. Significance of the Day: The day is commemoration of the date in 1987 on which the Montreal Protocol was signed on substances that deplete the ozone layer. 2016 theme: “Ozone and climate: Restored by a world united”. The theme recognizes the collective efforts of the parties to the Montreal Protocol and Vienna Convention towards the restoration of the ozone layer over the past three decades and the global commitment to combat climate change.
IAS officer Alka Sirohi has been appointed as chairman of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), in place of Deepak Gupta who demits office on Tuesday. President Pranab Mukherjee has appointed Sirohi to perform the duties of the post of the chairman, UPSC, with effect from September 21, an order issued by Department of Personnel and Training said. She is presently member in the Commission.
The appointment is till further orders or till completion of her term as member on January 3, 2017, whichever is earlier, it said.
The post of chairman, UPSC, will fall vacant on Tuesday, consequent upon demitting of office by Gupta on attaining 65 years of age of superannuation, the order said.
Incidentally, the Centre had in November 2014 appointed Gupta as the UPSC chief, breaking away from the tradition of appointing the chief from the serving members of the commission.
The 68th Annual Primetime Emmy Awards was announced on 18 September 2016 at the Microsoft Theater, Los Angeles, California, U.S.
The Game of Thrones won best drama series at the 2016 Primetime Emmy Awards, while Veep took home the top comedy award.
The People v. O.J. Simpson: American Crime Story also earned several awards, while Julia Louis-Dreyfus won her fifth consecutive Emmy in the lead comedy actress category.
Complete list of the winners
Award | Winner |
| Outstanding Comedy Series | Veep |
| Outstanding Drama Series | Game of Thrones |
| Outstanding Variety Talk Series | Last Week Tonight with John Oliver |
| Outstanding Variety Sketch Series | Key & Peele |
| Outstanding Limited Series | The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Television Movie | Sherlock: “The Abominable Bride” |
| Outstanding Reality-Competition Program | The Voice |
| Outstanding Lead Actor in a Comedy Series | Jeffrey Tambor as Maura Pfefferman on Transparent |
| Outstanding Lead Actress in a Comedy Series | Julia Louis-Dreyfus as President Selina Meyer on Veep |
| Outstanding Lead Actor in a Drama Series | Rami Malek as Elliot Alderson on Mr. Robot |
| Outstanding Lead Actress in a Drama Series | Tatiana Maslany as Sarah Manning, Alison Hendrix, Cosima Niehaus, Beth Childs, Rachel Duncan, and MK on Orphan Black |
| Outstanding Lead Actor in a Limited Series or Movie | Courtney B. Vance as Johnnie Cochran on The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Lead Actress in a Limited Series or Movie | Sarah Paulson as Marcia Clark on The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Supporting Actor in a Comedy Series | Louie Anderson as Christine Baskets on Baskets |
| Outstanding Supporting Actress in a Comedy Series | Kate McKinnon as Various Characters on Saturday Night Live |
| Outstanding Supporting Actor in a Drama Series | Ben Mendelsohn as Danny Rayburn on Bloodline |
| Outstanding Supporting Actress in a Drama Series | Maggie Smith as Violet Crawley, Dowager Countess of Grantham on Downton Abbey |
| Outstanding Supporting Actor in a Limited Series or Movie | Sterling K. Brown as Christopher Darden on The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story |
| Outstanding Supporting Actress in a Limited Series or Movie | Regina King as Terri LaCroix on American Crime |
| Outstanding Directing for a Comedy Series | Transparent (Episode: “Man on the Land”), Directed by Jill Soloway |
| Outstanding Directing for a Drama Series | Game of Thrones (Episode: “Battle of the Bastards”), Directed by Miguel Sapochnik |
| Outstanding Directing for a Variety Special | Thomas Kail and Alex Rudzinski for Grease: Live |
| Outstanding Directing for a Limited Series, Movie, or Dramatic Special | The Night Manager, Directed by Susanne Bier |
| Outstanding Writing for a Comedy Series | Master of None (Episode: “Parents”), Written by Aziz Ansari and Alan Yang |
| Outstanding Writing for a Drama Series | Game of Thrones (Episode: “Battle of the Bastards”), Written by David Benioff and D. B. Weiss |
| Outstanding Writing for a Variety Special | Patton Oswalt: Talking for Clapping, Written by Patton Oswalt |
| Outstanding Writing for a Limited Series, Movie, or Dramatic Special | The People v. O. J. Simpson: American Crime Story (Episode: “Marcia, Marcia, Marcia”), Written by D. V. DeVincentis |
SSC CGL result is round the corner! Response sheet for answer key of SSC CGL Exam 2016 Tier 1 has been released by the Commission. Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has released response sheet and correct answers for the Combined Graduate Level (CGL) exam 2016. The Commission has sought for representations from candidates regarding the answer key.
Submission of representations can be done before 26 September 2016 (till 05.00 pm). Candidates are required to pay Rs 100 per answer.
For accessing the response sheets candidates are required to login using their same User Id and Password which were used during the SSC CGL exam 2016.
SSC CGL exam was held from 27 August till 11 September 2016 www.ssc.nic.in
India has climbed 16 places to the 39th rank on the Global Competitiveness Index prepared by the World Economic Forum as improved business sophistication and goods market efficiency pushed its ranking higher.
For the eighth straight time, the list is topped by Switzerland as the most competitive economy. Singapore and the US are at the second and third positions, respectively. The jump of 16 places for India from last year’s 55th place is the highest for any economy this year. India is also the second-most competitive among BRICS nations behind neighbouring China, which is ranked at the 28th position.
On the index, India has a score of 4.52 while that of Switzerland is 5.81.
At the fourth spot is Netherlands, followed by Germany (5), Sweden (6) and the UK (7), Japan (8), Hong Kong SAR (9) and Finland (10).
India’s “competitiveness has improved across the board, in particular in goods market efficiency, business sophistication, and innovation”.
Computer
In a computer, basic questions are asked on the definition, parts, hardware, software & functions of the computer. The questions are based on the basic devices of the computer. The questions asked in PO/Clerk level examinations.
Computer Basics
Define the term computer?
A Computer is an automatic electronic apparatus for making calculations or controlling operations that are expressible in numerical or logical terms.
The Basic function performed by a computer is the execution of the program. A program is a sequence of instructions, which operates on data to perform certain tasks. In modern digital computers data is represented in binary form by using two symbols 0 and 1 which are called bi nary digits or bits. Computers use eight bits to represent a character internally. This allows upto 2(8)=256 different items to be represented uniquely. This collection of eight bits is called a byte. Thus, one byte is used to represent one character internally. One of the most common codes to represent characters in computer is ASCII( American Standard Code for Information Interchange.)
Normally, a word may be equal to 8,16,32 or 64 bits. The terms like 32 bit computer, 64 bit computer etc. basically point to the word size of the computer.
Von Neumann proposed that there should be a unit performing arithmetic and logical operations on the data. This unit is termed as Arithmetic Logic Unit(ALU). A control unit directs the ALU to perform specific arithmetic and logical functions on the data.
A program consists of a sequence of steps.
The ALU and the CU together are termed as the central processing Unit(CPU). The CPU is the most component of a computer hardware. The ALU performs the arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication and division, and the logical operations.
All the arithmetic and logical operations are performed in the CPU in special storage areas called registers. The size of the registers is one of the important considerations in determining the processing capabilities of the CPU. The larger the register size, the faster may be the speed of processing. A CPU’s processing power is measured in Million Instructions Per Second(MIPS)
The instructions and data are to be supplied by external environment. Therefore, an input module is needed. Similarly, we need another component that will report the results in proper format and form. This component is called output module.
It was pointed out by Von Neumann that the same memory can be used for storing data and instructions. The memory unit stores all the information in a group of memory cells, also called memory locations, as the binary digits (bits). The amount of information that can be held in the main memory is known as memory capacity. The capacity of the main memory is measured in kilobytes (KB) or Megabytes(MB). One kilobyte stands for 2(10) kilobytes, which is approximately little over one million bytes.
A bus is a set of wires (lines) which you can visualize on the motherboard of a computer. It is a shared media. A bus connecting the CPU, memory and I/O components is called a system bus. A system bus may consist of 50 to 100 separate lines.
A CPU which includes a ALU and CU.
A main memory system
An Input/Output System
The Von Neumann machine use stored program concept, i.e., the program and data are stored in the same memory unit. A Von Neumann machine has only a single path between main memory and control unit(CU).
The Computer and Integrated circuit technology.
In an integrated circuit, the components such as transistors, resistors and conductors are fabricated on semiconductor material such as silicon. Hundreds or even thousands of transistors could be fabricated on a single wafer of silicon. An integrated circuit is constructed on a thin wafer of silicon that is divided into a matrix of small areas (size of the order of a few millimeters squares).
Initially, only a few gates were integrated reliably on a chip and then packaged. This initial integration was referred to as small-scale integration(SSI). The SSI gave way to Medium Scale Integration where 100s of gates were fabricated on a chip. Then came large Scale Integration(1000 gates) and very large integration (VLSI 100,000,000 components are expected to be fabricated on a single chip.
Semi conductor Memories
Initially pace with electronics as more and more component were fabricated on single chip, fever chips are needed to construct a single processor. Intel in 1971 achieved the breakthrough of putting all the components on a single chip The single chip processor is known as microprocessor. The Intel 4004 was the first microprocessor.
Classification of Computers:
Microcomputers
A microcomputers CPU is a microprocessor. The first microcomputers were built around 8 bit microprocessor chips. The 8-bit Chip can retrieve instructions/data from storage,manipulate, and process an 8-bit data at a time or we can say that the chip has a built in 8 bit data transfer path. An improvement on 8-bit chip technology was seen in early 1980s, when a series of 16-bit chips namely 8086 and 8088 were introduced by Intel corporation.
Minicomputer
The minicomputer is used as a multi-user system, which can be used by various users at the same time. Gradually, the architectural requirement of minicomputers grew and a 32-bit minicomputer, which is called supermini, was introduced. Few of the popular mainframe series are IBM, HP, etc.
Mainframes
Mainframe computers are generally 32-bit machines or on the higher side.Mainframes are also used as central host computer to distributed systems. Libraries of applications programs developed for mainframe computers are much large than those of the micro or minicomputers because of their evolution over several decades as families of computing.
Super Computer:
A commercial computer with vector instructions and pipelined floating point arithmetic operations is referred to as supercomputers. They are very powerful, high performance machines used mostly for scientific computations. A supercomputer is a computer best known for its high computational speed, fast and larger memory system and the extensive used for parallel processing.
ElonMusk-led aerospace startup SpaceX today successfully launched a spy satellite into orbit for the US military.
The 2016 G20 Hangzhou summit was the eleventh meeting of the Group of Twenty (G20). It was held on 4–5 September 2016 in the city of Hangzhou. It was the first ever G20 summit to be hosted in China and the second Asian country after 2010 G20 Seoul summit was hosted in South Korea.
It is noted that Barack Obama and Xi Jinping announced the ratification of the Paris Agreement of the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference by their countries. After they did it, it is 26 countries which have ratified the agreement so far; the United States and China represent respectively 18 percent and 20 percent of global carbon dioxide emissions.
G20 countries score poorly in climate goals report
The theme of 2016 G20 Summit was Toward an Innovative, Invigorated, Interconnected and Inclusive World Economy.
It was the first ever G20 summit to be hosted in China and the second Asian country to host the Summit. Before China, Seoul, South Korea, hosted the 2010 G20 Summit.
It was the 11th summit since the inception of G20 in 1999.The summit was attended by all the leaders of the G20 including Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
The chair of the summit was Xi Jinping, President of China.
Key highlights of the summit
• On 3 September 2016, Barack Obama and Xi Jinping announced the ratification of the Paris Agreement of the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference by their countries. The United States and China represent respectively 18 percent and 20 percent of global carbon dioxide emissions.
• The world leaders endorsed free trade and a crowded agenda that included the Koreas, Syria and refugees.
The main themes final communiqué of the summit are:
• Fight against tax evasion
• Favour international trade and investments and opposition to protectionism
• Fiscal stimulus and innovation to boost economic growth
• Combating populist attacks against globalisation
• Strengthen support for refugee
The guest invitees in the summit were: Egypt, Kazakhstan, Laos, Senegal, Spain, Singapore and Thailand.
The 2017 G20 Summit will be held in Hamburg, Germany, under the leadership of Angela Merkel.
G20 Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States of America and European Union.
On 8th September 2016 the 28th and the 29th Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Summit concluded at Vientiane, Laos. However, the main theme for the 2016 summit was Turning Vision into Reality for a Dynamic ASEAN Community.
The Chairperson of the summit was H.E. Thongloun Sisoulith, Prime Minister of the Lao PDR.

India-ASEAN Highlights
Mr. Modi, who was addressing the 14th ASEAN-India summit here, noted that growing radicalism through the ideology of hatred and spread of extreme violence were the other security threats.
“Export of terror, growing radicalisation and spread of extreme violence are common security threats to our societies,” he said in his second attack on Pakistan in two days amid escalating war of words between New Delhi and Islamabad. Laos Premier Thongloun Sisoulith complimented India’s Act East policy and its contribution to ASEAN, and hoped the summit will provide the future direction.
Kerala Tourism bagged the award in recognition of its trend setting marketing initiatives, which have given a boost to the state’s profile as a must-visit destination.
The awards were in the categories of Travel Advertisement Broadcast Media and E-Newsletter, which were grabbed by the successful Visit Kerala television commercial campaign and the popular Kerala Tourism E-Newsletter, respectively.
The awards will be presented at the PATA Gold Awards Luncheon and Presentation on 9 September 2016 in Jakarta, Indonesia. In 2015, Kerala Tourism was also awarded PATA Gold in the Heritage and Culture category for Muziris Heritage Project.
UNITED NATIONS: India has ranked a low 110 out of 149 nations assessed on where they stand with regard to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals, according to a new index which is topped by Sweden and shows all countries face major challenges in achieving these ambitious goals.
The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung launched a new Sustainable Development Goal Index and Dashboard to provide a report card for tracking Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) progress and ensuring accountability.
The index collected available data for 149 countries to assess where each country stands in 2016 with regard to achieving the SDGs. It ranks countries based on their performance across the 17 global goals, a set of ambitious objectives across the three dimensions of sustainable development – economic development, social inclusion and environmental sustainability, underpinned by good governance.
The World Health Organization (WHO) has declared Brazil free of measles, after no case of the disease was registered in the last year. In the coming months, the WHO will issue a certification for the eradication of measles to Brazil.
The eradication of measles is the conclusion of work spanning several years. Brazil saw no domestic cases of measles from 1985 to 2000, although it broke out in 2013 in the northeastern states of Pernambuco and Ceara.
While most patients recover within three weeks, it can cause pneumonia, blindness or even death in malnourished children.
The World Health Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations that is concerned with international public health. It was established on 7 April 1948, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. Wikipedia
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
Founded: April 7, 1948
Head: Margaret Chan
India moved a step closer to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime, as its Parliament’s Upper House, the Rajya Sabha, approved The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill, 2014 with 203 votes in favour and none against. The GST, which is expected to be implemented from April 1, 2017, aims to replace multiple state and central levies with a single tax. Since the central and state taxes are likely to be included under GST, it may result in reduction of tax credits across intra- and inter-state transactions.
What is GST?
GST is one indirect tax for the whole nation, which will make India one unified common market. GST is a single tax on the supply of goods and services, right from the manufacturer to the consumer. The final consumer will thus bear only the GST charged by the last dealer in the supply chain, with set-off benefits at all the previous stages.
In other words, the prices that we pay for goods and services have the taxes embedded in them. Mostly, the consumers are not even aware of or ignore the tax they pay for things they buy. This is because there is a list of indirect taxes such as sales tax, excise and VAT, which leads to increased complexity. The GST seeks to sort out this and include all in one single tax, thereby making India an economically unified market. The Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers, which deliberated on the tax and its implications, has recommended what all taxes are to be included in the GST:
In the Central taxes: 1) Central Excise Duty; 2) Additional Excise Duties; 3) The Excise Duty levied under the Medicinal and Toiletries Preparation Act Service Tax; 4) Additional Customs Duty, commonly known as Countervailing Duty (CVD); 5) Special Additional Duty of Customs – 4% (SAD); 6) Surcharges, and 7) Cesses. State taxes: 1) VAT / Sales tax; 2) Entertainment tax (unless it is levied by the local bodies); 3) Luxury tax; 4) Taxes on lottery, betting and gambling; 5) State Cesses and Surcharges in so far as they relate to supply of goods and services; and 6) Entry tax not in lieu of Octroi.
“According to analysts from a macro-economic perspective, the short-term impact of GST could be mixed, the long-term impact will be positive”
What will be the Impact??
GST will turn India into one common market, leading to greater ease of doing business and big savings in logistics costs from companies across all sectors. Some companies will gain more as the GST rate will be lower than the current tax rates they pay, others will lose as the rate will be higher than the present effective rate. While the rate of GST is yet to be decided, industry observers have assumed an 18% rate recommended by a government panel in making their impact calculations.
What will the Bill in Parliament today do?
It basically seeks to amend the Constitution to empower both the Centre and the states to levy GST. This they cannot do now, because the Centre cannot impose any tax on goods beyond manufacturing (Excise) or primary import (Customs) stage, while states do not have the power to tax services. The proposed GST would include various central (Excise Duty, Additional Excise Duty, service tax, Countervailing or Additional Customs Duty, Special Additional Duty of Customs, etc.), as well as state-level indirect taxes (VAT/sales tax, purchase tax, entertainment tax, luxury tax, octroi, entry tax, etc). Once the Bill is passed, there will only be a national-level central GST and a state-level GST spanning the entire value chain for all goods and services, with some exemptions.
You should follow these given tips and tricks for IBPS exam to quickly prepare for bank exams online. And by the help of these skills, you can also, easily prepare for ibps exam at home.
These are some of the best IBPS exam preparation tips which increase your chances to qualify in any of banking sector examination and also check IBPS Exam study material for preparation here.
This Editorial is used here for Study Purpose. Students are advised to learn the word-meaning, The Art of Writing Skills and understand decisive of this Editorial.MEANINGS are given in BOLD.
The Mental Health Care Bill, 2016, passed by the Rajya Sabha is a watershed (turning point) legislation that lays down clear responsibilities for the state and has provisions that empower individuals and families. Crucially, it can expand access to treatment, which is dismally (unequal to the purpose) poor today. According to a recent review in The Lancet, of gaps in mental health treatment, although both India and China have renewed their commitment to address the problem through national programmes, it is Beijing that has done better in terms of improving coverage. India allocates just over 1 per cent of the Centre’s health budget to mental health, with States making comparable allocations (to distribute according to a plan).
This situation should change if the provisions of the bill are to be meaningful. The legislation, inter alia (among other things), gives everyone the right to access mental health care as well as treatment from mental health services run or funded by the government; it also provides for supply of all notified essential medicines free of cost to those with mental illness, through the government. The situation today is a far cry from what is promised. While the bill says mental health services should be available at the district level, even States with well-functioning district hospitals do not offer regular psychiatric outpatient services, leave alone in-patient facilities. In government hospitals, medication to treat even the more common psychiatric disorders is not always available. These and other deficiencies need not have waited for a law.
In a much-needed change, the Centre has adopted a medicalised approach to attempted suicide, treating it as the outcome of severe stress. The bill rightly blocks the application of the Indian Penal Code section that criminalises it. A duty is also cast on the authorities to care for and rehabilitate (to restore; to return to its original condition) such individuals. What this means is that official policy must strive (to try to achieve a result) to strengthen the social determinants of health, especially when it comes to universal welfare support systems against catastrophic(a disaster ; any large event of great significance) events in people’s lives. Reliable (suitable ; fit) and free professional counselling must be widely offered.
For too long, mental health treatment in India has existed with the colonial legacy of large asylums (a place of safety) and degrading (to lower in value) confinement (the state of being confined ; not free to move). Many who are held in such places have nowhere else to go, as families facing stigma (the condition of being out of favour) have abandoned (to give up) them. There is much to be said, therefore, in favour of the halfway home system that the bill provides for, where supportive families, medical care and a better quality of life will help many recover. The success of this more progressive law brought in to replace the Mental Health Act, 1987, will depend ultimately on the community keeping up the pressure on the designated Central and State authorities to implement it in letter and spirit.
__________________Thanks Dear Reader___________________
The trio notched a few firsts for India; Sindhu, at 21, became the youngest to win an Olympic medal, a silver which was never achieved in badminton; and Sakshi’s bronze was also a first for women’s wrestling.

BADMINTON:
# P V Sindhu secured a silver medal after losing to Carolina Marin in the women’s singles final.
# Saina Nehwal failed to progress beyond the league stage in women’s singles.
# Kidambi Srikanth lost in the men’s singles quarterfinals against Lin Dan.
# Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponnappa failed to advance to the knock—out stage of women’s doubles.
# Men’s doubles pair of Manu Attri and B Sumeeth Reddy also failed to make the knock—out stage.

WRESTLING:
# Sakshi Malik won bronze in women’s 58kg freestyle.
# Vinesh Phogat retired after suffering an injury in the quarterfinal of women’s 48kg.
# Babita Kumari lost in the pre-quarterfinal round of the women’s 53kg freestyle.
# London Olympics bronze medallist Yogeshwar Dutt lost in qualification round of men’s 65kg freestyle.
# Sandeep Tomar lost his pre-quarterfinal bout of men’s 57kg freestyle.
# In Greco-Roman, both Ravinder Khatri and Hardeep Singh lost in the pre-quarterfinals of 85kg and 98kg, respectively.
# Narsingh Yadav was ruled out from representing India in men’s 74kg freestyle category after he was slapped with a four-year ban by Court of Arbitration for Sports (CAS) for flunking a dope test after WADA challenged the clean chit given to him by the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA).
GYMNASTICS:
# Dipa Karmakar finished fourth in Vaults final.
The 2016 Summer Olympics concluded on 21 August 2016 at ceremony held at the Maracana Stadium, Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
More than 11000 athletes from 207 National Olympic Committees, including first time entrants Kosovo, South Sudan and the Refugee Olympic Team, took part in the games.
The games featured 28 Olympic sports, including rugby sevens and golf, which were added to the Olympic programme in 2009.
The United States topped the medal table for the fifth time in the past six Summer Olympics, winning 46 gold medals and 121 medals overall. Great Britain and China finished in second and third respectively.
India at the Rio Olympics 2016
• The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) had sent a total of 117 athletes, the nation’s largest ever delegation in Summer Olympic history.
• Indian bagged a total of two medals, one silver and one bronze, in the games, and stood at the 67th place in the medal tally.
• Badminton player P V Sindhu won historic silver medal in women’s singles badminton event. With this, she became the first Indian woman to clinch a silver medal in Olympics.
• Wrestler Sakshi Malik secured a bronze in the 58 kg category to become India’s first female wrestler to win an Olympic medal.
• India had qualified one artistic gymnast into the Olympic competition for the first time since 1964. Dipa Karmakar became the first Indian female ever to book an Olympic spot in the apparatus events and all-around event at the Olympic Test Event. She narrowly missed out in the bronze medal, finishing 4th in the finals of the event with a score of 15.066.
• Abhinav Bindra came fourth in the Men’s 10m Air Rifle singles event after losing a shootoff for the top 3 to Serhiy Kulish, who finally won the silver.
• At the 2016 Summer Olympics, Indian long distance runner Lalita Babar scored a time of 9:19.76 in her heat, qualifying to the final. With this, she became the first Indian in 32 years to enter a final in any track event. At the final, she finished 10th with a time of 9:22.74.
Key highlights of the 2016 Summer Olympics
• The opening ceremony took place in the Maracana Stadium on 5 August 2016.
• The Games were officially opened by Acting President of Brazil Michel Temer.
• These were the first Summer Olympic Games under the IOC presidency of Thomas Bach.
• Rio became the first South American city to host the Summer Olympics.
• The two new sports for 2016 Olympic Games were golf and rugby sevens.
• Due to the European migrant crisis and other reasons, the International Olympic Committee allowed athletes to compete as Independent Olympians under the Olympic Flag.
• Due to the suspension of the National Olympic Committee of Kuwait, participants from Kuwait were allowed to participate under the Olympic Flag as Independent Olympic Athletes.
• The official mascot of the 2016 Summer Olympics was Vinicius. It is named after musician Vinicius de Moraes. The mascot represented Brazilian wildlife and carries design traits of cats, monkeys and birds.
About 2020 Summer Olympics
• The 2020 Summer Olympics will be held in Tokyo, Japan.
• The city was announced as the host at the 125th IOC Session in Buenos Aires on 7 September 2013.
• The games are planned to be held from 24 July 2020 to 9 August 2020.
Dr. Urjit R Patel as the 24th governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI). He will be having tenure of three years with effect from 4 September 2016. He will succeed the present RBI Governor Dr. Raghuram Rajan, the former International Monetary Fund chief economist.
At present, Dr Patel is the Deputy Governor of RBI and is holding this assignment since 2013. With this appointment, he also becomes the eight Deputy Governor to be elevated as the Governor at RBI.
Dr. Urjit R Patel
• He headed a panel that recommended landmark changes to monetary policy in India, which included a switch to inflation-targeting and the creation of a panel to set interest rates.
• In January 2016, he was reappointed as the deputy governor in charge of monetary policy, the department he ran since 2013.
• Earlier between 1990 and 1995, he had worked with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) covering US, India, Bahamas and Myanmar.
• He carried a doctorate from Yale University.
• He also carries M Phil from Oxford.
Jammu-born poet and novelist Padma Sachdev has been chosen for the prestigious Saraswati Samman for the year 2015 for her autobiography written in Dogri language. The 76-year-old writer’s autobiography ‘Chitt-Chete’, published in 2007, was selected from 22 works in as many languages published between the years 2005-2014. The award is given every year for an outstanding literary work written in any Indian language by an Indian citizen and published during last 10 years. It carries award money of Rs 15 lakh, a citation and a plaque.Sachdev, who writes in Hindi and native Dogri, has 60 books to her credit.
She has been a recipient of the Sahitya Akademi award in 1971 for her book of poetry ‘Meri Kavita Mere Geet’. In her 662-page autobiography, Sachdev has included some historic photographs with dignitaries from her state, nation and the world.

It was a celebration of woman power in sports as Olympic stars PV Sindhu, Sakshi Malik and Dipa Karmakar were today conferred India’s highest sporting honour — the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna — along with shooter Jitu Rai in a gleaming awards ceremony at the Rashtrapati Bhawan
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Four sports person from different discipline of sports were chosen for the award and they are P.V. Sindhu for Badminton, Dipa Karmakar for Gymnastics, Jitu Rai for Shooting and Sakshi Malik for Wrestling.
The award is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson over a period of four years.
Dronacharya Awards
Six sports coaches will be honoured with Dronacharya Awards and they are Nagapuri Ramesh for Athletics, Sagar Mal Dhayal for Boxing, Raj Kumar Sharma for Cricket, Bishweshwar Nandi for Gymnastics, S Pradeep Kumar for Swimming (Lifetime) and Mahabir Singh for Wrestling (Lifetime).
Dipa Karmakar’s coach Bishweshwar Nandi will receive the award for Gymnastics.
The award is conferred on coaches for producing medal winners at prestigious international sports events.
Arjuna Awards
15 sports person from different discipline of sports were selected for the award and they are Rajat Chauhan for Archery, Lalita Babar for Athletics, Sourav Kothari for Billiards & Snooker, Shiva Thapa for Boxing, Ajinkya Rahane for Cricket, Subrata Paul for Football, Rani for Hockey, Raghunath VR for Hockey, Gurpreet Singh for Shooting, Apurvi Chandela for Shooting, Soumyajit Ghosh for Table Tennis, Vinesh for Wrestling, Amit Kumar for Wrestling, Sandeep Singh Mann for Para-Athletics and Virender Singh for Wrestling (Deaf).
The award is given for consistently outstanding performance for four years.
Dhyan Chand Award 2015
Three sports person were selected for the awards and they are Athlete Satti Geetha, hockey player Sylvanus Dung Dung and Rower Rajendra Pralhad Shelke.
The award is conferred for life time contribution to sports development.
Rashtriya Khel Protsahana Purushkar
Seven organisations were selected for Rashtriya Khel Protsahana Purushkar, 2016 and they are Reserve Bank of India (Employment to sportspersons and other welfare measures), India Infrastructure Finance Corporate Limited (Encouragement to sports through corporate social responsibility), and Subroto Mukherjee Sports Education Society (Sports for Development). Four organisation who were chosen for the award for identification and nurturing of budding and young talent includes Hockey Citizen Group, Dadar Parsee Zorostrian cricket club, Usha School of Athletics and STAIRS.
The award is given to the corporate entities (both in private and public sector) and individuals who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development.
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy: Punjabi University, Patiala.
The trophy is given to the overall top performing university in inter-university tournaments.
The awardees will receive their awards from President Pranab Mukherjee at a function at the Rashtrapati Bhawan on 29 August 2016, which is celebrated as the National Sports Day.
Apart from a medal and a citation, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee will receive a cash prize of 7.5 lakh rupees.
Arjuna, Dronacharya and Dhyan Chand Awardees will receive statuettes, certificates and cash prize of five lakh rupees each. Recipients of Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar will be given Trophies and certificates. Award money of ten lakh rupees and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy will be given to Punjabi University, Patiala for overall top performing university in inter-university tournaments.
Selection Committee for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award and Arjuna Awards was headed by Justice SK Agarwal, Retired Delhi High Court Judge.
Selection Committee for Dronacharya Awards and Dhyan Chand Awards was headed by MC Mary Kom.
Selection Committee for Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar was headed by Rajiv Yadav, Secretary (Sports).

Mr. Krishna will receive the award for “social inclusiveness in culture,” while Wilson was named as an awardee for “asserting the inalienable right to a life of human dignity.”
Bezwada Wilson, a renowned campaigner against manual scavenging, and Carnatic singer T.M. Krishna from Chennai were named for the prestigious Magsaysay Award on Wednesday.

he first BRICS Film Festival will kick started on 2 September 2016 at the Sirifort Auditorium Complex, New Delhi. Minister of State for Information and Broadcasting Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore inaugurated the festival.
The five-day festival aims at providing a platform for people of the film industry of member countries to explore areas of cooperation in the domain of cinema, culture and cuisine.
Key highlights of the BRICS Film Festival
• The idea of BRICS film festival has been conceived to build bridges and bring harmony amongst the BRICS countries, i.e., Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
• The opening film for the festival will be the world premiere of the Malayalam movie, Veeram.
• The closing film will be the Chinese movie, Skiptrace, starring Jackie Chan directed by Renny Harlin.
• In the course of 5 days of the event, 20 movies will be screened in the competition section, 4 from each of the countries.
• The festival that kick started on 2 September 2016 will conclude on 6 September 2016.
International news Affairs
China has unveiled world’s first train that operates on a virtual track using sensor technology instead of metal rails. This Autonomous Rail Rapid Transit (ART) has been developed by China’s CRRC Zhuzhou Institute
Salient Features of World’s First Train that runs on Virtual Tracks:
Railway facts:
♦ The Qinghai Tibet Railway, China – World’s highest train journey.
♦ Beipanjiang River Railway Bridge, China – World’s highest railway bridge
♦ India is building world’s highest rail bridge in Jammu and Kashmir over river Chenab
National news Affairs
New Appointments
People in News
Obituary
Banking, Business & Economic news
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
INTERNATIONAL NEWS Affairs
National news Affairs
People in News
Banking, Business & Economic news
Science & Technology news
NEW APPOINTMENTS
AWARDS & HONORS
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Recent Committees in News
MOUs & Agreements
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
National News Affairs
Awards & Honours
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Science & Technology
Books & Authors
Current Sports Affairs
National News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Science & Technology
New Appointments
General Knowledge
Current Sports Affairs
Note : India footballer Mehrajuddin Wadoo would be the head of the academy.
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Awards & Honours
New Appointments
Obituaries
International News Affairs
National Current Affairs
Science & Technology
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Awards & Honours
Deaths
Sports Current Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Science & Technology
Awards & Honours
Current Sports Affairs
The team also includes Soumyajit Ghosh, Harmeet Desai, reigning national champion Madhurika Patkar, Manika Batra and Mouma Das.
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
New Appointments
Current Sports Affairs
Careers
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
General Knowledge
New Appointments
Deaths
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Books & Authors
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
Awards & Honours
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Awards & Honours
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
International News Affairs
Awards & Honours
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Awards & Honours
Science & Technology
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
International News Affairs
National Current Affairs
Science & Technology
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Awards & Honors
New Appointments
Science & Technology
Deaths
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Awards & Honours
Science & Technology
Obituary
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Current Sports Affairs
Careers
It included all electronic gadgets like cellular/mobile phones, any other devices for communication, laptops, bluetooth devices, and calculators in the list of banned gadgets.
International NEWS Affairs
Key Notes:
About Panama :
♦ Capital : Panama City
♦ President: Juan Carlos Varela
♦ Vice President: Isabel Saint Malo
SRK, Salman, Akshay part of Forbes’ highest earning
National nEWS Affairs
The Human Resource Development department of Sikkim government has signed a MoU with the British Council on 13 of June, 2017
Key Notes:
i.Objective: To enhance the quality of education in the state.
iii. The main aim of signing the MoU is to improve the educational structure of the schools of Sikkim.
About Sikkim
Recent Committees in News
New Appointments
Awards & Honors
Science & Technology
Business & Economic Affairs
Key Notes:
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
Australia
♦ Capital: Canberra
♦ Currency: Australian Dollar
♦ PM: Malcolm Turnbull
National News Affairs
iii) On June 14, 2017, Union Cabinet was apprised about an Memorandum of Understanding which has already been signed in April 2017, between India and Armenia for cooperation on youth matters.
i)Mission Retro Fitment is a program of railways to upgrade the level of furnishing & facilities in the coaches of Indian Railways.
iii) The refurbished coaches will have the following features will be World class ambiance, Enhanced Passenger Safety, Caring for the Environment, Enhanced Passenger convenience.
v)The mission will be one of the largest retro fitment projects in the world.
vii) The mission aims to induct about 40,000 coaches with upgraded interiors by 202223. viii. The cost of refurbishing per coach will be approximately Rs 30 lakhs.
Banking, Business & Economic News
Key Notes:
i)IDBI Bank was the only public sector bank that got ‘high (H)’(85 and above score out of 100) rating in two successive surveys.
iii) The three foreign banks — Citibank, HSBC and Standard Chartered Bank — that were surveyed got ‘high’ ranking.
vii)12 banks got ‘high’ rating in the survey, 29 got ‘above average (AA)’ rating (70 to less than 85 score) and 10 got ‘average (A)’ rating (60 to less than 70 score).
viii)The public sector banks, the ratings of which improved in the latest round, are: Central Bank of India, Corporation Bank, UCO Bank and Union Bank of India, with their rating going up to AA from A.
IDBI Bank :
♦ Headquarters: Mumbai
♦ CEO: Mahesh Kumar Jain
Key Notes:
DBS Bank :
♦ Headquarters: Singapore
♦ CEO: Piyush Gupta
Awards & Honors
APPOINTMENTS & RESIGNS
i.Gaitri Issar Kumar is a 1986batch Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer, has been appointed as India’s next ambassador to Belgium.
iii. Reenat Sandhu, a 1989batch IFS officer, will head India’s diplomatic mission in Italy.
Denmark:
♦ Capital: Copenhagen
♦ Currency: Danish krone
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
INTERNATIONAL NEWS Affairs
National news Affairs
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News affairs
New Appointments
Science & Technology
BANKING, BUSINESS & ECONOMIC NEWS
AWARDS & HONORS
Madhya Pradesh Signs MoU with IIT-Kharagpur for Developing Happiness Index
IIT Kharagpur’s Rekhi Centre of Excellence for the Science of Happiness and Madhya Pradesh government’s ‘Rajya Anandam Sansthan’ (Department of Happiness) has signed an MoU to collaborate on the development of a Happiness Index for measuring the well-being of the residents of the state. The MoU was signed in the presence of MP Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan and IIT-KGP Director Prof P P Chakrabarti at Bhopal.
World’s First Philosophical Novel on God Unveiled IAS officer
Haulianlal Guite has recently published a philosophical novel for God titled ‚Confessions of a dying mind: the blind faith of atheism‚. The book was unveiled by Union Minister Kiren Rijiju at august gathering of Civil Services Officers’ Institute in New Delhi. The book is touted as ‚the world’s first philosophical novel for God‚. Haulianlal Guite is hailed as the first civil servant to write on Philosophy after John Stuart Mill’s work titled ‚On Liberty‛ published in 1858. The book explores interesting arguments against atheism. It also explores the nature of science, religion, evidence and love in light of latest findings of modern science and the solid theories in philosophy. The unveiled book is the first part of the three volumes. The book is published by a UK based Bloomsbury Publishing.
PM Inaugurates African Development Bank’s 52nd Annual General Meeting
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the 52nd Annual General Meeting of the African Development Bank in Gandhinagar. The AGM will be held in from May 22-26. This is the first time that India is hosting the annual meetings of the AfDB and its sister institutions, including of finance ministers of member countries, who comprise the AfDB board of governors. India had joined the African Development Bank (AfDB) in 1983. The Annual Meetings are the Bank’s largest annual event and offers a unique forum for representatives of government, business, civil society, think-tanks, academia and the media to debate key issues on Africa’s development. The event will see the participation of 4500 delegates including finance ministers and central bank governors belonging to AfDB’s 54 member countries and 26 non-member countries. The event is expected to deepen India’s ties with African continent.
Paytm Launches Payments Bank
Paytm has rolled out its Payments Bank operations by launching its first physical branch in Noida. With this launch, there are three payments bank operational in the country, the other two being Airtel Payments Bank Ltd and India Post Payments Bank Ltd. The Paytm Payments Bank will be the first bank in the country to offer cashbacks on deposits. Significance :As a Payments Bank, Paytm will be able to accept deposits upto Rs 1 lakh per customer in wallet and savings/current accounts. Further it can also offer other services like Debit Cards, Online Banking and Mobile Banking. It will not be allowed to lend to customers. However, it will be able to offer financial products like loans, insurance, mutual funds, pension funds etc by partnering with other financial institutions and banks.
India soon to become the second largest producer of steel in the world
Steel Minister Birender Singh said India has registered a 102 percent growth in steel exports in 2016-2017. Addressing a press conference on the 3-year achievements of his ministry in New Delhi today, Mr Singh said, the country has become net exporter of steel, with 8.2 million tonnes of exports in 2016-2017. “We have become the second largest producer of stainless steel in the world, leaving behind Japan. Besides, we have gained third spot in steel production, leaving behind America. We are moving fast to reach the 2nd position.” The Minister said, the government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi gave its approval for National Steel Policy this month, after a gap of 12 years. Mr Singh said, GST will give a big boost to steel industry.
IMD predicts normal monsoon this year
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has predicted the onset of the monsoon in Kerala on the 30th of this month but there is a possibility that it may hit the state a day before that. With chances of continuation of the El Nino effect, a phenomena associated with warming of Pacific waters, the IMD has predicted a normal monsoon this year.
Trump admin proposes to reduce 190 million Dollar in financial grant to Pakistan
In US, the Trump administration has proposed to reduce 190 million US Dollar in financial grant to Pakistan in foreign military funding as compared to the 2016 fiscal. This Year, the US administration has proposed 344 million US Dollar in financial assistance to Pakistan including 100 million US Dollar in foreign military funding. Last year, the US assistance to Pakistan under the State Department budget was 534 million US Dollar, which included 225 million US Dollar towards foreign military funding. The Trump administration’s budget proposal would convert some of the United States’ foreign military grants to loans, affecting several countries, including Pakistan. The White House said yesterday that the proposals are a part of a larger effort to slash spending on diplomacy, aid and programmes abroad by more than 29 per cent. The Wall Street Journal, which first reported the proposal, said the foreign military grants could affect Pakistan, Tunisia, Lebanon, Ukraine, Colombia, the Philippines and Vietnam.
World’s largest aircraft Airlander 10 completes test flight
The world’s largest aircraft has successfully completed a test flight, bringing the massive heliumfilled airship one step closer to commercial use. The hybrid aircraft dubbed the Airlander 10 combines technology from airplanes, helicopters and airships. It is designed to fly at altitudes of 6,100 meters for up to five days. with a length of 92 metres, it is the largest aircraft currently flying. On May 10th, the Airlander 10 flew for a total of 180 minutes to test the aircraft’s handling, improved landing technology and more. Dave Burns, Airlander 10’s Chief Test Pilot said that during the successful test flight in Cardington, UK, the Airlander 10 handled superbly.
Australian indigenous leaders meet for historic summit
In central Australia, hundreds of indigenous leaders have gathered for a historic summit on formally recognising the country’s first inhabitants. The three-day summit at Uluru coincides with the 50th anniversary of a vote that allowed indigenous Australians to be included on a national census. Australia does not mention Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples in its constitution. The summit aims to reach consensus on the best method of recognition. The recommendations may result in a referendum to be voted on by all Australians.
Terror Attack in Manchester City leaves 22 killed and 59 injured
The Islamic State terrorist group has claimed responsibility for today’s deadly attack at the Manchester Arena which claimed 22 lives and injured 59 people. The attacker died while detonating the explosive device planted at a pop concert. The blast took place in the foyer area of Manchester Arena around 3 AM Indian time today. Manchester Victoria station has been closed and all trains cancelled. British police have arrested a 23-year-old man in connection with the terror attack. After chairing a meeting in the wake of the blast, British Prime Minister Theresa May said the people of Manchester have fallen victim to a callous terrorist attack. This was among the worst terrorist incidents we have ever experienced in the United Kingdom. It would take some time to establish these jact and the investigation will continue. We can continue to resolve to thwart such acts in future, to take on and defeat the idealogy that often fuels this violence and if there turn out to be others responsible for this attack, to seek them out and bring them to justice. Official sources in New Delhi said they are ascertaining if there are any Indian casualties in the blast. The Indian High Commission tweeted, any Indians injured during Manchester attack may reach the Public Response Unit of High Commission of India at 020 7632 3035. President Pranab Mukherjee, Vice President Mohammad Hamid Ansari and Prime Minister Narendra Modi have strongly condemned the attack.
Roger Moore of James Bond fame dies
Roger Moore, the handsome English actor who appeared in seven films as James Bond and as Simon Templar on “The Saint” TV series, has died in Switzerland after a short battle with cancer. He was 89. His family announced the death on Moore’s official Twitter account
Today (25th May) is International Missing Children’s Day.
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
New Appointments
International news Affairs
Rank Country
1 Switzerland
2 Sweden
3 Netherlands
4 United States of America
5 United Kingdom
NATIONAL NEWS Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
♦ Capital: Seoul
♦ Currency: South Korean won
Science & Technology
AWARDS & RECOGNITIONS
Banking, Business & Economic news
New Appointments
Key Notes:
About Atal Innovation Mission
Current Sports Affairs
International news AFFAIRS
Money Super Market. The survey highlights the individual contribution to the world’s climate and also outlines areas for improvement for each country.
More information about Environmental Impact Survey:
NATIONAL NEWS aFFAIRS
OBITUARY
NEW APPOINTMENTS
AWARDS & HONORS
BANKING, BUSINESS & ECONOMIC NEWS
Key Notes:
Guaranty Corporation (I&G), the State Development and Investment Corporation (SDIC), as
well as China’s finance ministry and National Development and Reform Commission.
financing schemes.
emission trading earnings as collateral.
platform.
of green investment China needs every year over the next five years.
ADB :
♦ Headquarters: Mandaluyong, Philippines
♦ Founded: 19 December 1966
♦ President: Takehiko Nakao
MOUS & AGREEMENTS
Current SPORTS NEWS
International news affairs
National news AFFAIRS
Awards & Honors
Banking, Business & Economic news
Science & Technology
New Appointments
Obituary
Current Sports Affairs
INTERNATIONAL NEWS Affairs
National news Affairs
AWARDS & HONORS
BANKING, BUSINESS & ECONOMIC NEWS
CURRENT SPORTS AFFAIRS
Indian shuttler Kidambi Srikanth today defeated Japan’s Kazumasa Sakai to win the Indonesia Superseries Premier title.
INTERNATIONAL NEWS AFFAIRS
Key Notes:
Australia:
♦ Capital: Canberra
♦ Currency: Australian dollar
NATIONAL news affairs
PEOPLE IN NEWS
BANKING, BUSINESS & ECONOMIC news
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
CURRENT SPORTS AFFAIRS
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Awards & Honors
New Appointments
Obituaries
Science & Technology
Sports Current Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Awards & Honors
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
New Appointments
Current Sports Affairs
India ended the Grand Prix of Liberation Plzen 2017 Shooting championships with 7 medals after Indian shooter Heena Sidhu claimed a bronze medal in the women’s 10-metre Air Pistol event today.
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
People in News
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
New Appointments
Awards & Honors
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Awards & Honours
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
People in News
New Appointments
Current Sports Affairs
Indian wrestler Harpreet Singh (80kg) has won Bronze medal in Greco- Roman category at Asian Wrestling Championship.
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Awards & Honours
New Appointments
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Awards & Honours
New Appointments
Science & Technology
Sports Current Affairs
Former cricketer VVS Laxman has been awarded honorary life membership of the Marylebone Cricket Club.
Madhya Pradesh bans Sand Excavation in Narmada River
The State Government of Madhya Pradesh has put an indefinite ban on the sand excavation in the Narmada River. This announcement has been made by Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan in Bhopal. The government has also set up a committee to suggest the scientific ways of mining the rivers. This committee will submit the report to state government after exploring ways for sand excavation without harming rivers. The government will also promote manufactured sand (made by mixing stones).
Free Wi-Fi facility inaugurated at 28 Railway Stations
On May 21, Minister of Railways Suresh Prabhu inaugurated free Wi-Fi facility at 28 Railway Stations of Konkan Railway from Kudal Railway Station in Maharashtra. Indian Railways has tied by with SYSCON/JOISTER for providing 2 Mbps peer-to-peer 24 hrs Free Wi-Fi bandwidth at 28 railway stations of Konkan Railway. In line with Government’s Digital India initiative, SYSCON/JOISTER are providing the JOISPOT brand WiFi in Pune and Mumbai educational institutions in Maharashtra state. The company has now undertaken as a part of their CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility) activity of providing free Wi-Fi to rural area on the Konkan Route. The 28 stations include Kolad; Mangaon; Veer; Karanjadi; Vinhere; Diwankhavati; Khed; Anjani; Chiplun; Kamthe; Sawarda; Aravali Road;Sangameshwar; Ukshi; Bhoke; Ratnagiri; Nivasar; Adavali; Vilavade; Rajapur Road; Vaibhavwadi Road; Nandgaon Road; Kankavali; Sindhudurg; Kudal; Zarap; Sawantwadi Road and Madure. The free Wi-Fi facility would help the travelers, commuters and tourists access essential information while waiting for trains on railway stations.
NASA Names New Species After Abdul Kalam
NASA has named a new bacteria discovered on the filters of the International Space Station, ISS, as Solibacillus kalamii to honour the late president Dr A P J Abdul Kalam. The genus is Solibacillus and the species name is kalamii. Researchers at the Jet Propulsion Laboratory has found that the bacteria remained on board the International Space Station for 40 months. The new organism is found only on the ISS and has not been found anywhere on the earth. In 1963, Dr. Kalam had his early training at NASA before setting up India’s first rocket launching facility at Thumba in Kerala.
Air India to auction its properties as part of asset monetisation plan
Air India has decided to auction seven of its properties, as a part of its asset monetisation plan. The national carrier has mandated the auctioneer MSTC to put these properties under the hammer. According to the auction notice, Air India proposes to sell its exclusive properties in the form of land parcels/built-up flats located at prime location in Mumbai, Bengaluru and Trivandrum. This sale is likely to raise around 80 crore rupees. As per the financial restructuring plan approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs back in 2012, Air India is required to monetise its assets and generate 5,000 crore rupees by way of sale, leasing or developing an asset as a joint venture.
RBI to reconstitute oversight committee to deal with bad loans
The RBI has decided to reconstitute the oversight committee, OC, with more members after the government armed it with additional powers to resolve bad loans with banks that have crossed Rs 8 lakh crore. In a statement in Mumbai yesterday, the RBI said, while the current members will continue in the reconstituted OC, names of a few more will be announced soon. It said, the apex bank would also be constituting a Committee comprised majority of its independent Board Members to advise it in the NonPerforming Asset matter. The statement said RBI already sought information on the current status of the large stressed assets from the banks. The RBI further said it has also envisages an important role for the credit rating agencies in resolving the issue. Sources said the RBI has identified about 50 major cases for NPA resolution.
Fact Box: Federation Cup and Other Football Tournaments & Leagues in India
On 21st May, 2017, the Bengaluru FC defeated Mohun Bagan 2-0 to win the Federation Cup. The final event was held in Barabati Stadium in Cuttack, Odisha. Federation Cup is India’s first major football competition involving the clubs. It was established by the All India Football Federation in 1977. During 1980s and 1990s, it was considered to be most popular foot ball tournament in India. The other popular football tournaments of India include
Durand Cup:-Santosh Trophy, Indian Super League, Subroto Cup, IFA Shield etc. Important facts about these tournaments are given below: Durand Cup Durand Cup is India’s oldest football tournament and is among the oldest in the world. It is named after its founder Sir Mortimer Durand, who served as Foreign Secretary in charge of India from 1884 to 1894. The first Durand Cup tournament was held in 1888. In the beginning, it was an Army cup for the British Indian Army troops. Over the years, it opened up for civilian teams. In 2006, the army passed its administration to civilians’ organizations called Durand Football Tournament Society (DFTS) and Osians. The latest Durand Cup Tournament was held in 2016 and current champion is Army Green.
IFA Shield:- IFA Shield is second oldest football competition of India organized by Indian Football Association and in existence since 1893. Since 2015, IFA Shield has been designed as an under- 19 youth football tournament. Its current sponsor is LG and latest competition was held in 2016, won by Tata Football Academy.
Subroto Cup:- Subroto Cup Football Tournament is an inter-school football tournament named after Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee. It was started in 1960. More than 50 school teams participate in this competition including schools from Nepal and Afghanistan. It is conducted by the Indian Air Force, with support from India’s Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. The Madhyamgram High School, in West Bengal us known for winning this tournament for seven times.
Santosh Trophy:- Santosh Trophy, started in 1941, is an annual Indian football tournament platyed by states and government institutions. It is named after Maharaja Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhary of Santosh, who served as President of the IFA. The first winners were Bengal. West Bengal has been the most successful team in the tournament and also the current champion with its 32nd title in hand.
Indian Super:- League Indian Super League (ISL) *Officially Hero ISL+ is a men’s professional football league. It was founded in 2013 and is based on franchise model on the lines of IPL. Currently, there are eight teams in ISL viz. Atlético de Kolkata; Chennaiyin FC; Delhi Dynamos; Goa; Kerala Blasters; Mumbai City; North East United and Pune City. So far three seasons have held of which two have been won by Atlético de Kolkata (2014 & 2016) while one season was won by Chennaiyin FC (2015).
I-League:- I-League (officially Hero I League) is another professional league in football in India. It was launched in 2007 as ONGC I-League and as a successor of National Football League. So far, nine sessions have been conducted of this league. It is contested by 10 football clubs and considered to be the primary competition in Indian football. The 10 clubs are Aizawl, Bengaluru FC, Chennai City, Churchill Brothers, DSK Shivajians, East Bengal, Minerva Punjab, Mohun Bagan, Mumbai and Shillong Lajong.
India wins all 10 Gold Medals at South Asian Junior Table Tennis Championships
The South Asian Junior Table Tennis championship was held in Mount Lavinia, near Colombia in Sri Lanka. In a stunning performance, the paddlers from India have won all the 10 Gold Medals on offer in this tournament. Apart from 10 gold medals, the Indian participants have also won 14 medals, thus taking the medal tally to 14. In this championship, top seeded Manav Thakkar won Junior Boys final; while Archana Girish Kamath won Junior Girls final. In Cadet Boys final, top-seed H. Jeho won the Gold Medal. India led the championship with eight points, followed by Sri Lanka (six points).
High speed Tejas Express to be flagged off on 22nd May
The high speed, air-conditioned Tejas Express will be flagged off on 22nd May from Mumbai to Goa. Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu will flag off the premium luxury train through video conferencing. Having ultra-modern amenities like LED TV, wi-fi and CCTV, Tejas Express is a state of the art train capable of running at 200 kms per hour. However, due to constraints related to rail tracks, it will run at a speed of 160 kilometres per hour. The train will operate five days a week during non-monsoon period, and three days a week during monsoon period.
GST implementation won’t jeopardise Mumbai security: Maharashtra Finance Minister
The Maharashtra government has sought to discard fears that the GST roll-out would undermine Mumbai’s security because the vehicles entering the city will not have to stop and face checks at borders after abolition of octroi Maharashtra Finance Minister Sudhir Mungantiwar stated that the vehicles entering the city will still be under watch and the government would take new steps to beef up the security. The minister was speaking during a discussion in the Lower House on Sunday on the second day of the three-day special session convened to pave way for the country-wide implementation of the GST from July 1. Mungantiwar said that the government will pay special attention to Mumbai’s security. He added that new measures to boost the city’s security will be undertaken. Leader of opposition in assembly Radhakrishna Vikhe Patil said the government should tread carefully while implementing the GST.
Anshu Jamsenpa conquers Mount Everest twice within five days: A record
Anshu Jamsenpa from Arunachal Pradesh has created history by becoming the first woman to conquer Mount Everest twice within five days. She along with Nepalease climber Furi Sherpa scaled the Everest at 8 am on 21st May 2017. Anshu also stood atop of the world’s highest mountain on Tuesday. Anshu also become the first Indian women to reach Mt Everest for the fifth time. She successfully climbed Mt Everest twice in 2011 and later in 2013. India’s Dhankude Kishor Dattatraya, Brij Mohan Sharma and Ravi Kumar also successfully conquered Mt. Everest on Saturday. But Ravi Kumar is missing after he was descending to lower camps. Rescue and search efforts are on. Meanwhile an American and Australian climber died today while they were trying to scale roof of the world.
Inflation to fall by 2% after possible initial rise following implementation of GST: Govt
Revenue Secretary Hasmukh Adhia has said, Inflation will fall by two per cent on implementation of the goods and services tax, GST, and will create buoyancy in the economy. In an interview to PTI, he said the allpowerful GST Council will meet next week to decide on tax rates of contentious items like gold, bidi and biscuits, just in time for its rollout from July 1. Mr Adhia also expressed confidence that the requirement of compensation to make up for revenue loss of any state will be fulfilled from cess on demerit and luxury goods like car and tobacco. With the stage set for the biggest overhaul of India’s tax system since Independence, the government will launch a massive awareness campaign to educate consumers about GST so that they are not fleeced by traders in the name of new tax. The Council over the two days last week assigned tax rates to more than 500 services and 1,200 goods by setting them in five broad rates of 5, 12, 18 and 28 per cent. GST will be a single nation-wide sales tax replacing a string of central and state levies.
India’s export sector performs well despite global slowdown: Nirmala Sitharaman
Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has said, India’s export sector has performed well despite the global slowdown. Addressing a press conference in New Delhi on key initiatives taken by her Ministry during the last three years, Ms Sitharaman said, notwithstanding global headwinds, exports have shone in last 6 months. Ms Sitharaman said, number of mandatory documents required for exports and imports have been reduced to three each. The Minister said, forms related to imports and exports have also been simplified. The Minister said, Government e-Market place is a remarkable step towards fighting corruption and ensuring transparency in Government transaction. She said, there is an increase in exports from special economic zone in the last three years. Exports were valued at 5.23 lakh crore rupees in 2016-17.
UNSC to hold meeting on 23rd May in response to North Korea’s missile test
The United Nations Security Council will hold an emergency meeting on 23rd May in response to yesterday’s ballistic missile test by North Korea. Uruguay’s mission to the UN said, the meeting was requested by the United States, South Korea and Japan. South Korean military said, the missile was fired from South Pyeongan province and flew about 500 kilometers before landing in the Sea of Japan. It was Pyongyang’s second missile test in a week and 10th this year. North Korea had termed the launch of its medium-range ballistic missile as successful.
Euro zone, IMF to seek compromise on Greek debt deal on 22nd May
Euro zone Finance Ministers and the International Monetary Fund will seek a deal today on Greek debt relief. Without the deal, no new loans can be disbursed to Athens, even though the bailout is now handled only by euro zone governments. Greece needs new credit to repay some 7.3 billion euros worth of maturing loans in July. Greece has agreed after months of negotiations, with the euro zone lenders and the IMF on pensions and tax reforms.
Swiss people vote for renewable energy against nuclear power
In Switzerland, voters have supported a referendum to withdraw the country from nuclear power in favour of renewable energy. Today’s referendum shows 58 per cent of voters in favor and 42 percent against the proposal. The Swiss government wants to ban the construction of new nuclear power plants and decommission the country’s five existing ones at the end of their technically safe operating lives. The plan would also boost renewable energies such as solar and wind and make cars and electronic devices more energy efficient.
Mumbai Indians win IPL title for third time In Cricket
Mumbai Indians lifted the Indian Premier League trophy for the third time, as they recorded a scintillating 1-run win against Rising Pune Supergiant in the title clash at Hyderabad last night. Opting to bat, Mumbai had posted a modest 129 for 8, with Krunal Pandya top scoring with 47. In reply, Pune got off to a decent start and were 71 for 2 in 12 overs. They needed 11 runs from the last over with 7 wickets in hand, before Mumbai paceman Mitchell Johnson took the wickets of Manoj Tiwary and Steven Smith on successive deliveries. Pune, then, needed 4 runs from the final ball. But, their hopes of winning the IPL title in the maiden Final appearance were dashed to the ground as Daniel Christian was run out and Mumbai won the match by 1 run. Johnson finished with 3 wickets.
Bengaluru FC wins 38th Federation Cup football tournament
Bengaluru FC has won the Federation Cup Football tournament. In the Final played at Cuttack last night, they defeated defending champions and 14-time winners Mohun Bagan, 2-nil. The match went into extra time after neither of the teams could break the deadlock in 90 minutes. India international CK Vineeth, then, scored twice for Bengaluru in extra time helping them to win the tournament for just the second time. With the win, Bengaluru also sealed a berth for next year’s Asian Football Confederation (AFC) Cup. It also became the eighth team to have won more than one Federation Cup title.
Indian Boy Wins Intel International Science Award in US
Prashant Ranganathan has emerged winner in the world’s largest pre-college science competition in the environment engineering category for his work on biodegradation of pesticides. Prashant is among the 20 high schools students from various parts of the country who participated in the Intel International Science and Engineering Fair held in the US. More than 1700 students across the world had participated in the event. Prashant Ranganathan is a student of Carmel Junior College in Jamshedpur. His project titled ‘Biodegradation of Chlorpyrifos using native bacteria’ is aimed at helping farmers to biodegrade the harmful pesticides. In all, Four Indian-Americans received top awards in various categories. Indian American Pratik Naidu has won an award in the category of computational biology and bioinformatics. Other Indian-American winners include Adam Nayak who has won in earth and environmental sciences, Karthik Yegnesh in mathematics and Rahul Subramaniam in the microbiology category.
Cabinet to soon take a call on FIPB abolition
Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman today said that the Union Cabinet will soon take a call on the winding up of 25-year-old Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB). The minister said this in a media briefing in New Delhi on initiatives and achievements of the ministry in the last three years. On development of the North Eastern states, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman said that her ministry is working on a new policy for the industrial development of the region. The North East Industrial and Investment Promotion Policy – 2007 has ended this year. She added that the ministry is holding consultations with those states to understand their industrial priorities with an aim to firm up something which can help in promotion of industry and employment generation there.
Defence Acquisition Council finalises broad outline of policy to engage private sector in manufacturing of hi-tech equipment
Defence Acquisition Council, under the chairmanship of Defence Minister Arun Jaitley, today finalised broad contours of policy to engage the country’s private sector in manufacturing of high tech defence equipment in India. The policy outline aims at developing defence industrial eco-system in the country through the involvement of major Indian corporates as well as Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. It envisages the establishment of long-term strategic partnerships with qualified Indian industry majors through a transparent and competitive process. The policy will give a boost to the ‘Make in India’ policy in the Defence sector and help Indian industry. Initially the policy is expected to be implemented in a few selected segments. These are fighter aircraft, submarines and armoured vehicles.
Hassan Rouhani Wins Iran’s Presidential Election
Hassan Rouhani has been re-elected as the President of Iran. He was elected as president for his first term in 2013. He won 2013 elections by pledging to end Iran’s isolation and improve civil rights at home. Rouhani was born in Semnan province on November 12, 1948. He is a graduate of University of Tehran and did his PhD from Scotland’s Glasgow Caledonian University. The 68 year old Rouhani is a lawyer, academic and a former diplomat. Rouhani has won his second term by presenting himself as the candidate of change and social freedoms that ended many sanctions and a 13 year standoff over Iran’s nuclear programme. He has held various key positions like the key defence portfolios during the 1980 -88 Iran-Iraq war. He had spent 16 years as secretary of the Supreme National Security Council, which is Iran’s top security post. Rouhani consistently worked to rebuild Irans’ relations with the West. He also became the first Iranian leader to speak with the President of United States when Barack Obama phoned in September 2013.
US President and Saudi Arabia King sign defence deals
US President Donald Trump and King Salman of Saudi Arabia have signed today 110 billion dollar defense deals to support the long term security of Saudi Arabia and the Gulf region in the face of the Iranian influence and Iran related threats. A White House statement said that this package demonstrates the commitment of the United States to Saudi Arabia while bolstering the Kingdom’s ability to provide for its own security and continue contributing to counter terrorism operations across the region, reducing the burden on U.S. military forces. The Press Statement also said that the President’s meetings underscored the deep and longstanding commitment of the United States to the security, stability, and prosperity of Saudi Arabia and demonstrated the President’s confidence in the future of USSaudi relations. He also emphasized the importance of working jointly to address challenges to regional peace and security, including defeating ISIS and al-Qa’eda, countering Iran’s destabilizing activities, and resolving conflicts in Yemen and Syria.
GST Council Finalises 4-slab Service Tax Structure
The GST Council headed by finance Minister Arun Jaitley has finalised a 4-slab service tax structure at the rates of 5, 12, 18 and 28 per cent as against the single rate of 15% levied on all taxable services. GST regime is scheduled to be implemented from July 1. In the next GST Council meeting, tax rates on gold and other precious metals will be taken up for discussion.
Salient Highlights: Luxury hotels, gambling, race club betting and cinema services will attract a tax rate of 28%. Education, healthcare and non-AC rail travel will remain exempted from the GST tax regime. However, the states will be given the option to levy additional taxes on cinema to compensate for the revenue losses entailed due to merging of entertainment tax with GST. At present, the total tax incidence on cinema including entertainment and service tax is in the range of 55%. The states need to use the legislative route if it wants to levy additional tax on cinema. States will also be permitted to levy any new tax as the taxation powers of the states have only been restricted and not abolished after the rollout of GST. Telecom and financial services will be taxed at a rate of 18%. Transport services will be taxed at the rate of 5%. Cab aggregators like Ola and Uber will have to pay 5% under GST in place of 6%. AC rail travel will attract 5% tax. Economy class air travel will attract 5 % GST while business class will attract 12%. Travelling on metro, local train and religious travel such as Haj Yatra would be exempted from GST. The e-commerce players like Flipkart and Snapdeal would be required to shell out 1% Tax Collected at Source (TCS). Non-AC restaurants and AC restaurants will attract a GST of 12% and 18% respectively. Advertisements published in newspapers will attract 5% GST. At present it is exempt from service tax.
Climate Change: Antarctica is Turning Green
According to a new study conducted by a team of scientists from the University of Exeter in the UK, plant life on Antarctica is growing rapidly due to climate change. The scientists have observed a sharp increase in biological activity in Antarctica in the last 50 years. For ascertaining the growth, the scientists conducted tests at five cores from three sites and has observed the occurrence of major biological changes across the Antarctic Peninsula. The scientists made use of 150 years’ worth of data to arrive at the conclusion. The study has been published in the journal Current Biology. According to the scientists, Antarctica will be much greener in the future and the continent’s plants and soils will change substantially even with only modest further warming. The continuous retreat of glaciers will make Antarctica much greener in the future. As per the study, the growth of moss in the continent is a signifier that the region is already undergoing change. At present, the plant life exists only in 0.3% of Antarctica. With increase in land cover occurs decrease in snow and ice cover. The thinner ice cover permits the penetration of sunlight into the previously dark areas allowing the planktons to grow. This would bring ecosystem shift to Antarctica similar to what has happened in Arctic.
World Cup Archery: Indian Men’s Team Wins Compound Gold
The Indian Men’s compound archery team has managed to win gold after defeating Columbia 226- 221 in the archery World Cup stage 1 championships held in Shanghai, China. Indian archery team were represented by Abhishek Verma, Chinna Raju Srither and Amanjeet Singh. The Colombian team comprised Camilo Andres Cardona, Jose Carlos Ospina and Daniel Munoz. India beat USA in the semifinal and edged out Iran in the quarterfinals. The team also defeated Vietnam in the first round. The women’s team, however, failed to shine in the event. In the Women’s event, South Korea, Denmark and Russia emerged as winners in that order.
GST Council Announces GST Rates
The GST Council headed by finance Minister Arun Jaitley has finalised tax rates and has approved all the seven rules for the GST regime that is scheduled to be implemented from July 1. The remaining two rules of the GST pertaining to transition and return is under the examination of the legal committee. In total, the council has fixed the rates of 1211 items. It will decide rates of some other items and services in the coming days. Salient Highlights Out of 1211 items, 81% of the items will attract tax of 18% or less. Only the remaining 19% of items will attract a highest rate of 28% Household items like Sugar, Tea, Coffee and edible oil will attract 5% levy. Cereals and milk will be exempted from the tax. Manufactured goods will attract 18% levy. Luxury cars will attract 28% GST in addition to a cess of 15%. Small petrol cars will attract 28% GST plus a 1% cess, and diesel cars will be taxed at 28% plus 3% cess. Capital goods, a key asset for the manufacturing sector, will be taxed at 28%. Aerated drinks will fall under the 28% tax bracket.
Bilateral Exercise SIMBEX-17 between Indian & Republic Of Singapore Navy Commences
The 24th bilateral exercise involving Indian Navy and Republic of Singapore Navy has commenced in South China Sea. SIMBEX stands for ‚Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercises”. The exercise will be held from May 18, 2017 to May 24, 2017. This edition of the bilateral exercise aims at increasing the interoperability among the two navies as well as developing a common understanding and procedures among the two navies for maritime security operations. The major thrust of the exercise will lie on AntiSubmarine Operations (ASN), integrated operations with Surface, Air and Sub-surface Forces, Air Defence and Surface Encounter Exercises.
Indian Scientist Shrinivas Kulkarni Wins Prestigious Dan David Prize
Indian scientist Shrinivas Kulkarni has won the prestigious Dan David prize as a recognition for his contributions made in the field of astronomy. Shrinivas Kulkarni, a professor of astrophysics and planetary science at California Institute of Technology in Pasadena, is a pioneer in the field of timedomain astrophysics. He has been credited for building and conducting the Palomar Transient Factory, which is a large-area survey of the night sky that has turned up with thousands of stellar explosions. Shrinivas kulkarni would share the award with Andrej Udalski of the University of Warsaw and Neil Gehrels of NASA for their discoveries on time-domain astrophysics in the ‚Future‛ category of the prize. With this award, Shrinivas Kulkarni will join other prominent Indians who have won the Dan David prize like noted author Amitav Ghosh, music conductor Zubin Mehta and renowned chemist CNR Rao.
Indian Army gets its First Artillery Gun in 30 Years
Nearly after 30 years after the induction of Bofors howitzers, Indian Army will get its first artillery guns called M777 from BAE Systems. Swedish Bofors guns were inducted in late 1980s after which Army has not inducted any modern artillery guns. The two M777s has arrived in New Delhi and will be tested at the Pokhran field firing range in Rajasthan. The two M777 guns will be used for compilation of firing tables. Indian Army has plans to equip 169 regiments with 3,503 guns by 2020.
International Court of Justice directs Pakistan to stay Kulbhushan Jadhav’s execution till its final verdict
The International Court of Justice at Hague today stayed the execution of Indian national Kulbhushan Jadhav who was sentenced to death by a Pakistan military court on charges of espionage. Ruling in favor of India, which moved the UN’s highest judicial body against the death sentence, the ICJ President Ronny Abraham directed Pakistan to take all necessary measures at its disposal to ensure that Jadhav was not executed till it takes a final decision.
Tata Group Named Country’s Most Valuable Brand in Brand Finance List
Brand finance in its 2017 report that lists India’s 100 most valuable brands has named Tata Group as the most valuable brand in India at an estimated brand value of 13.1 billion. Brand Finance is a global brand valuation and strategy consultancy firm. Tata Group has managed to top the list despite its brand value declining 4% from 13.7 billion in 2016. As per the report, the total brand value of India’s top 100 brands have surged 15% in 2017 compared to the global average of 11%. Overall 68 of India’s 100 most valuable brands have registered growth in value this year. Telecom operator Airtel at an estimated valuation of 7.7 billion has been ranked second in the list followed by Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) with 6.8 billion. IT firm Infosys and State Bank of India have been ranked fourth and fifth in the list with an estimated value of 6.2 billion and 5.5 billion respectively.
BSNL Signs MoU with Facebook and MobiKwik
BSNL has inked agreements with Facebook and MobiKwik in order to popularize the internet and its value added services among its customers. Further, BSNL has also signed a third MoU with Disney Land India to offer premium online gaming services to its mobile customers. The series of MoUs signed by BSNL comes at the backdrop of a stiff competition faced by BSNL from private telecom companies like Airtel and Reliance Jio.
Anti-dumping duty imposed on Chinese chemical, aluminium foil
India has imposed anti-dumping duty on a Chinese chemical used in pharma industry and aluminium foil to protect domestic industry from cheap imports. While an anti-dumping duty of up to 1.63 US Dollar per kg was imposed on aluminium foil, up to 8.71 US Dollar per kg duty was slapped on imports of amoxicillin, used in pharmaceuticals. The duty on both the products would be effective for a period of five years, the finance ministry has said in separate notifications. The commerce ministry’s investigation arm, Directorate General of Anti dumping and Allied Duties, DGAD in the separate probe had concluded that these products were dumped into India and that has caused material injury to the domestic industry.
Key Asian stocks fall amid concern about political developments in US
Key Asian stocks fell, today, amid concern about political developments in the US. Key Asian markets also lost ground. So Japan’s Nikkei 225 index slipped 1.3 percent; Singapore’s Straits Times index lost 0.1 percent; South Korea’s Kospi dropped 0.3 percent, each; China’s Shanghai Composite index declined 0.5 percent; and Hong Kong’s Hang Seng index shed 0.6 percent. In Europe, the UK’s FTSE-100 had tumbled 1.4 percent, Germany’s DAX had lost 0.9 percent, and France’s CAC-40 had slumped 1.2 percent in intra-day trade. While stocks flashed warning lights again, the dollar steadied and seemed to be going for the ‘calm down’ option.
US Justice Department names former FBI Director Robert Mueller as a special prosecutor to probe possible collusion between President Trump and Russia
In the United States, the Justice Department has named former FBI director Robert Mueller as a special prosecutor to oversee a probe into Russia’s alleged interference in the Presidential election. Deputy Attorney General Rod Rosenstein said it is in the public interest to bring an outsider to oversee the investigation. Calls for a special prosecutor to probe the matter have risen since President Donald Trump fired the FBI Director James Comey last week.
Environment Minister Anil Madhav Dave Passes Away
Union environment minister Anil Madhav Dave has passed away. He was 60. Anil Madhav Dave was born in Badnagar of Madhya Pradesh on July 6, 1956. He is a Member of Parliament representing Madhya Pradesh. Dave was first elected to Rajya Sabha in 2009. Last year, he was sworn in as a minister with independent charge of environment, forest and climate change. He was very passionate on implementing environmental projects including conservation of the Narmada river. He had also founded an organisation called ‘Narmada Samagra’ for conservation of Narmada.
Veteran film actor Reema Lagoo dies after a cardiac arrest in Mumbai Veteran film actor Reema Lagoo died in Mumbai this morning after a cardiac arrest. She was 59. She is survived by a daughter. Reema had complained of chest pain last night and was rushed to hospital where she breathed her last. “Over the course of her career, Reema Lagoo became Hindi film industry’s favourite actor who played the mother’s role to the biggest stars in the industry like Salman Khan ( in Maine Pyar Kiya), Akshay Kumar (in Gumrah and Yeh Dillagi), Sridevi (in Jai Kishen), Madhuri Dixit (in Hum Aapke Hain Koun..!), Juhi Chawla (in Qyamaat se Qayamat tak), Sanjay Dutt (in Vaastav) and Shah Rukh Khan (Kal Ho Na Ho). Her other popular films include Aashiqui, Kuch Kuch hota hain, Saajan and Hum Saath Saath hain. She was critically acclaimed for her acting in Rui Ka Bojh (1997).
International News Affairs
People in News
Deaths
Awards & Honours
MOUs & Agreements
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
Awards & Honours
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
Science & Technology
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Awards & Honors
INTERNATIONAL NEWS Affairs
National news Affairs
New Appointments
MOUs & Agreements
Science & Technology
BANKING & FINANCE
About IDBI
♦ Founded: 1 July 1964
♦ HQ: Mumbai
♦ MD & CEO: Mahesh Kumar Jain
Key Points:
About MP
♦ Capital: Bhopal
♦ Governor: Om Prakash Kohli
♦ CM: Shivrajsingh Chouhan
CURRENT Sports news
Hassan Ali (Pakistan) (13 wickets)
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
People in News
Banking, Business & Economic News
Places in News
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
National News Affairs
Places in News
Banking, Business & Economic News
New Appointments
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
New Appointments
Science & Technology
Awards & Honours
Banking, Business & Economic News
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic News
Awards & Honours
Science & Technology
Obituary
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Science & Technology
Awards & Honours
Obituary
Banking, Business & Economic News
Books & Authors
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Places in News
Obituary
Awards & Honours
Banking, Business & Economic News
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic News
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic News
Science & Technology
New Appointments
International News Affairs
New Appointments
National News Affairs
People in News
Science & Technology
Banking, Business & Economic News
Current Sports Affairs
National News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
Obituary
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
Obituary
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic News
Current Sports News
UG Programme
Scope and coverage of questions under different subject areas:
The pattern of Question Paper for the UG Courses in CLAT-2018
| a) | Maximum Marks | 200 |
| b) | Duration of CLAT-2018 Exam | 02:00 Hours |
| c) | Multiple-Choice Questions | 200 questions of one mark each |
| Subject areas with weight-age: | ||
| 1. English including comprehension | 40 Marks | |
| 2.General Knowledge and Current Affairs | 50 Marks | |
| 3.Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability) | 20 Marks | |
| 4. Legal Aptitude | 50 Marks | |
| 5. Logical Reasoning | 40 Marks | |
| Negative Marking | 0.25 Mark for each wrong answer | |
The pattern of Question Paper and syllabus for the PG Programme in CLAT-2018
The pattern of the question paper for admission to the Post-Graduate Course for CLAT-2018 is as under:
The questions will be asked in the question paper of the given sections:
| Subjects | Number of Questions | Marks Allotted per Section |
| Constitutional Law | 50 | 50 |
| Jurisprudence | 50 | 50 |
| Other Subjects such as Contract, Torts, Criminal Law, International Law, Environment Law and Human Rights. | 50 | 50 |
| Total | 150 | 150 |
Candidates can refer the previous year CDS Cutoff from the below.
Official CDS Cut Off I 2017
| Academy | CDS I Cut off 2017 |
| IMA | 125 |
| AFA | 118 |
| AFA | 144 |
| OTA for Men | 82 |
| OTA for Women | 82 |
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
Obituaries
Banking, Business & Economic News
MOUs & Agreements
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
New Appointments
National News Affairs
Obituary
Banking, Business & Economic News
Science & Technology
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Banking, Business & Economic News
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic News
Awards & Honours
Science & Technology
MOUs & Agreements
New Appointments
Current Sports Affairs
| General Awareness | Arithmetic | General Intelligence and Reasoning |
| Current Affairs, National and International, History-India, world Indian economy Indian geography Indian constitution Indian culture & Heritage Indian Polity Science & Technology General Science -Biology -Chemistry -Physics Environmental Studies | Percentage Pipes & Cisterns Profit and loss Time and work Simplification Boats and Streams Averages Time and Distance Problems on Ages Simple Interest Data Interpretation Area and Volume Linear and Quadratic Equations Margins and Discounts | Analogies Space Visualisation Similarities Decision Making Problem Solving Arithmetic Number Series Differences Arithmetic Reasoning Analysis Judgement Relationship Concepts Visual Memory Observation Verbal and Figure Classification Puzzles Sitting Circular Arrangements Direction sense Alphanumeric series |
Candidates who are going to fill RRB NTPC Application from 2018 should know about the selection process of this recruitment. All the candidates will be selected as per their score which they will get in first and second stage examination. After that, they will have to face typing and aptitude test. If candidates will clear these stages, they will be called for the Document Verification and Medical test.
As per the revealed updates, RRB NTPC 2018 first stage examination will be conducted after one or two or application form submission. RRB will release NTPC First Stage Admit card before 7 to 10 days of examination on the official website. The second stage examination will be conducted after two months of prelims exam result declaration. So, likewise 1st stage exam RRB NTPC 2018 Admit Card for 2nd stage exam will be released on the official website before some days of examination. However, only those candidates will be able to download 2nd stage admit card, who will get eligible marks in RRB NTPC 1st stage examination.
Likewise every year, RRB release cut off marks to select the candidates. Candidates who are going to appear in the RRB NTPC Examination 2018 will have get marks as per RRB NTPC Cut off 2018. Candidates can check their respective performance by checking RRB NTPC Cutoff marks 2018. When the Railway Recruitment Board will release the cut off marks list, we will update here for the candidate’s help. Till then, candidates are advised to regularly visit this website to know latest updates of RRB NTPC 2018 Cut off.
The Railway Recruitment Board will conduct NTPC 1st stage examination after 2 months of the application form submission and 2nd stage examination in 2018. Therefore, As per the information, RRB NTPC Result 2018 will be declared after one or two months examination on the official website and candidates will be able to check their result by using their roll number and name. Only those candidates will be shortlisted for 2nd stage examination who will clear stage 1st exam according to the cut off marks. When the Railway Recruitment Board announce RRB NTPC 1st Stage Result 2018, we will update here.
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
National Current News
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Awards & Honours
Science & Technology
Banking, Business & Economic News
Obituary
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
People in News
Banking, Business & Economic News
Recent Committees in News
New Appointments
Current Sports News
International News Affairs
MOUs & Agreements
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic News
People in News
New Appointments
Science & Technology News
Obituary News
Recent Committees in News
Current Sports News
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic News
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Places in News
Awards & Honours
New Appointments
Obituary
Science & Technology
Banking, Business & Economic News
The Malaysian Ringgit became the strongest Asian currency this quarter by climbing twice as much as the Chinese Yuan, according to Bloomberg.
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
About Hong Kong
♦ Government: Multiparty system
♦ Chief Executive: Carrie Lam
♦ Chief Secretary: Matthew Cheung
Banking, Business & Economic News
MOUs & Agreements
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Recent Committees in News
Banking, Business & Economic News
Obituary
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Awards & Honours
Science & Technology
People in News
New Appointments
Obituary
Banking, Business & Economic News
Sports Current News
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Science & Technology
Books & Authors
Banking, Business & Economic News
MOUs & Agreements
New Appointments
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Awards & Honours
Banking, Business & Economic News
Science & Technology
New Appointments
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic News
MOUs & Agreements
People in News
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
Places in News
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic Affairs
New Appointments
Science & Technology
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
Highlights:
National News Affairs
Banking, Business & Economic News
Awards & Honours
Current Sports Affairs
International News Affairs
National News Affairs
New Appointments
Obituary
Science & Technology News
Current Sports Affairs
Thailand’s Atthaya Thitikul has become the youngest known winner of a professional golf tour event after claiming the Ladies European Thailand Championship at the age of 14 years, 4 months and 19 days.
UG Programme
PG Programme:
The Railways RRB Computer-based Test for Assistant Loco Pilot & Technicians just took place. Now the next stage, i.e. the RRB ALP Stage 2 (Part B), Technical Paper will soon be conducted. In this article, you will find RRB ALP Technical Notes for Wire man & Electrician. Find study material on Resistance as notes for RRB ALP Technical Exam. Click here
CLAT Participating Institutes 2018: Private law colleges accepting CLAT scoresThe table below mentions another list of law colleges offering admissions into undergraduate law programmes based on CLAT 2018 scores. The list, however, is tentative and is based on the data of last year. The final list of private law schools participating in CLAT 2018 will be declared after CLAT official brochure is announced by NUALS Kochi.UG All India Category seats for undergraduate programmes
PG All India Category seats for postgraduate programmes.
1.Alliance School of Law, Bangalore
2. Asian Law College, Noida
3. Amity University, Noida
4. Azim Premji University, Bengaluru
5. Delhi Institute of Rural Development (D.I.R.D.), Holambi, Delhi
6. Disha Law College, Raipur
7. Galgotias University, Greater Noida
8. Geeta Institute of Law, Panipat
9. Harlal School of Law, Greater Noida
10. IFIM Law College, Bengaluru
11. Indore Institute of Law, Indore
12. Institute of Law, Nirma University, Ahmadabad
13. Jagannath University, Jaipur
14. JECRC University, Jaipur
15. JIMS Engineering Management Technical Campus School of Law, Greater Noida
16. Lloyd Law College, Greater Noida
17.Maharaja Surajmal Brij University, Bharatpur
18.Maharashtra National Law University, Aurangabad
19.Manipal University, Jaipur
20.MATS University, Raipur
21.Mewar University, Chittorgarh
22.Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies [NMIMS] (Deemed to be University), Mumbai
23.NIMT Institute of Method & Law (NIMT Vidhi Evam Kanun Sansthan), Delhi NCR
24.Prestige Institute of Management & Research, Indore
25.RNB Global University, Bikaner
26.Ramaiah Institute of Legal Studies (RILS), Bengaluru
27.Renaissance Law College, Indore
28.School of Law, THE North Cap University, Gurugram, Haryana
29.Shri Vaishnav Institute of Law, Indore
30.Siddhartha Law College, Dehradun
31.SRM University, Haryana
32.Vivekanand Global University, Jaipur
Apart from the above law colleges (NLUs as well as privates), there are some other institutions which accept CLAT 2017 score for recruiting the law students as legal advisors. Such institutions are recognised as Public Sector Undertakings.
Topic Wise SBI Clerk syllabus 2018
In both the SBI Clerk online tests, the candidates are tested in the following fields. Candidates must prepare for the exams based on the syllabus given below.
SBI Clerk Numerical ability Syllabus
SBI Clerk Reasoning Syllabus
SBI Clerk General awareness Syllabus
SBI Clerk Basic computer knowledge Syllabus
original notification :- click here
apply online :- click here
MH CET Law Counseling 2018 – Important dates for three year law programme
| S.No | Events | Dates |
| 1. | Notification for registration of colleges | June 1, 2018 |
| 2. | Colleges filling online registration form | June 4, 2018 |
| 3. | Colleges to submit printout of registration form with Demand Draft and other documents | June 4, 2018 |
| 4. | Verification of College documents and Approving colleges for Online Admission | June 18 – June 25, 2018 |
| 4. | Upload of CAP Brochure | July 12, 2018 |
| 5. | Online Centralised form filling by candidates | July 17, 2018 |
| 7. | NRI, OCI, PIO candidates registration and fee submission | July 17- July 31, 2018 |
| 8. | Document verification for NRI, OCI, PIO candidates | July 17- August 10, 2018 |
| 9. | Uploading of verified status of NRI/ OCI/ Foreign candidates | August 13- 14, 2018 |
| 10. | Display of provisional alphabetical list | August 8, 2018 |
| 11. | Candidature-wise Final Merit List | August 23, 2018 |
| 12. | First List of Seat Allotment | August 30, 2018 |
| 13. | Candidates report to colleges | August 31, 2018 |
| 16. | College to publish online first list of admitted candidates | August 31, 2018 |
| 17. | Uploading of merit list of NRI, OCI and PIO candidates | September 1, 2018 |
| 18. | Publishing of second list of MH CET Law seat allotment | September 14, 2018 |
| 20. | NRI, OCI and PIO candidates report to colleges | September 15-19, 2018 |
| 21. | College to publish online second list of admitted candidates | September 19, 2018 |
| 22. | Edit options available for candidates | September 22-27,2018 |
| 23. | Publishing of third list of MH CET Law seat allotment | October 10, 2018 |
| 24. | Students to report to their respective colleges with admission form | October 11, 2018 |
| 25. | Colleges to update vacant seats online | October 11-17, 2018 |
| 26. | Colleges display vacant seats online and offline | October 19, 2018 |
| 27. | Institutional round MH CET Law 2018 Counselling | October 19-26,2018 |
| 28. | Display of MH CET Law 2018 merit list | October 29, 2018 |
| 29. | Colleges to admit candidates as per merit list and generate provisional admission letter | October 30 – November 2, 2018 |
| 30. | Colleges to upload status of admitted students online | October 30 – November 3, 2018 |
| 31. | Release of MH CET Law 2018 Cut off | November 5, 2018 |
To Register for MH CET LAW 3-Year Common Admission Process (CAP) – Click here
To Login for MH CET LAW 3-Year Common Admission Process (CAP) – Click here
MH CET Law Counselling 2018 – Important dates for five-year integrated programme
| S.No | Events | Dates |
| 1. | Notification for registration of colleges | June 25, 2018 |
| 2. | Colleges filling online registration form | June 25, 2018 |
| 3. | Colleges to submit printout of registration form with Demand Draft and other documents | June 25, 2018 |
| 4. | Upload of CAP Brochure | June 25, 2018 |
| 5. | Online Centralised form filling by candidates | June 25, 2018 |
| 6. | Verification of college documents and approval of colleges for online admission | June 25, 2018 |
| 7. | NRI, OCI, PIO candidates registration and fee submission | June 25, 2018 |
| 8. | Document verification for NRI, OCI, PIO candidates | June 25 – July 24, 2018 |
| 9. | Uploading of verified status of NRI/ OCI/ Foreign candidates | August 3, 2018 |
| 10. | Display of provisional alphabetical list | July 9, 2018 |
| 11. | Candidature-wise Final Merit List | July 24, 2018 |
| 12. | Upload of list of approved colleges | July 27, 2018 |
| 13. | Publishing of first list of MH CET Law seat allotment | July 24-27,2018 |
| 14. | Reporting of candidates to colleges | July 28, 2018 |
| 15. | College to publish online first list of admitted candidates | July 28, 2018 |
| 16. | Uploading of merit list of NRI, OCI and PIO candidates | August 7, 2018 |
| 17. | Publishing of second list of MH CET Law seat allotment | August 10, 2018 |
| 18. | Downloading of admission letters of NRI, OCI, and PIO | August 10, 2018 |
| 19. | NRI, OCI and PIO candidates report to colleges | August 11-18, 2018 |
| 20. | College to publish online second list of admitted candidates | August 11-20, 2018 |
| 21. | Edit options available for candidates | August 21-27, 2018 |
| 22. | Publishing of third list of MH CET Law seat allotment | September 4, 2018 |
| 23. | Students to report to their respective colleges with admission form | September 5-8, 2018 |
| 24. | Colleges to update vacant seats online | September 5-10, 2018 |
| 25. | Colleges display vacant seats online and offline | September 12, 2018 |
| 26. | Institutional round MH CET Law 2018 Counselling | September 12-22, 2018 |
| 27. | Display of MH CET Law 2018 merit list | September 25, 2018 |
| 28. | Colleges to admit candidates as per merit list and generate provisional admission letter | September 26-29, 2018 |
| 29. | Colleges to upload status of admitted students online | September 26-October 4, 2018 |
| 30. | Release of MH CET Law 2018 Cut off | October 6, 2018 |
The overall time of the Mains exam of RBI Assistant has been increased to 135 minutes from this year onwards.
The exam will be conducted in 3 phases, namely –
1. Preliminary Phase
2. Mains Phase
3. Language Proficiency Test
Before discussing the RBI Assistant Syllabus and Exam Pattern, let’s have a look at the following –
The Prelims exam of RBI Assistant 2017 will follow the pattern mentioned below:
| S. No. | Subject | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Total time |
| 1. | English Language | 30 | 30 | Composite time of 1 hour! |
| 2. | Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | |
| 3. | Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
RBI Assistant Exam Pattern for Mains phase –
| S. No. | Subject | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Total |
| 1. | Reasoning Ability | 40 | 40 | 30 minutes |
| 2. | English Laguagee | 40 | 40 | 30 minutes |
| 3. | Numerical Ability | 40 | 40 | 30 minutes |
| 4. | General Awareness | 40 | 40 | 25 minutes |
| 7 | Computer Knowledge | 40 | 40 | 20 minutes |
| Total | 200 | 200 |
There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests (Preliminary and Main examination).1/4th marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Reasoning Ability Syllabus for RBI Assistant Exam
Syllabus for IBPS RRB Exam
English Language syllabus for RBI Assistant Exams
General Awareness syllabus for RBI Assistant Exams
Computer Knowledge syllabus for RBI Assistant Exams
[vc_row][vc_column][vc_column_text]Exam Pattern for the Post of Law Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari:
(1) Reasoning
(2) English Language
(3) General Awareness and
(4) Professional Knowledge
Exam Pattern for the Post of I.T Officer, Agriculture Officer, Marketing Officer & HR Officer:
(1) Reasoning,
(2) English Language,
(3) Quantitative Aptitude and
(4) Professional Knowledge.
Interview:
| Sr. No. | Name of the Tests | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1 | Reasoning | 50 | 30 minutes | |
| 2 | English Language | 50 | 25 minutes | |
| 3 | General Awareness with special reference to Banking Industry | 50 | 30 minutes | |
| 4 | Professional Knowledge | 50 | 80 | 35 minutes |
| Total | 200 | 80 | 120 minutes |
| Sr. No. | Name of the Tests | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1 | Reasoning | 50 | 50 | 30 minutes |
| 2 | English Language | 50 | 50 | 25 minutes |
| 3 | Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 | 30 minutes |
| 4 | Professional Knowledge | 50 | 50 | 35 minutes |
| Total | 200 | 200 | 120 minutes |
[/vc_column_text][/vc_column][/vc_row]
RRB also introduced different exam pattern and a long syllabus for RRB ALP & Technician posts.
stage-II Exams: Detailed Syllabus of RRB ALP Mains & Technician Mains
(Stage 2: Part A)
Except for Basic Science & Engineering, syllabus of Prelims and Mains is same for
RRB Railway ALP & Technician
Basic Science Syllabus
Engineering Drawing – Projections
Eng. Drawing – Views
Eng. Drawing – Instruments
Eng. Drawing – Lines
Eng. Drawing – Geometric Figures
Eng. Drawing – Symbolic Representation
Heat & Temperature
Levers & Simple Machines
Environment Education
Speed & Velocity
Occupational Safety & Health
Mass Weight & Density
IT Literacy
Measurements Units

Syllabus of RRB ALP Mains & Technician Mains (Stage 2: Part B)
Stage 2 – Part B of RRB ALP & Technician exam is qualifying in nature. The
syllabus of Part B of RRB Mains exam includes trade syllabus prescribed
by Director General of Employment & Training (DGET).
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts a common written exam (CWE) once every year to hire candidates for the post of clerical cadre across various banks in the country.
IBPS Clerk is an entry-level job in different public sector banks (PSU). In every clerical recruitment it is very important that the candidates are well aware of the regional or local language of the state for which they are applying as IBPS might conduct a regional language proficiency test after the mains examination.
The IBPS Clerk examination is conducted via two common written exams (CWE):
Candidates qualifying both the phases will be finally selected for recruitment.
IBPS CWE Preliminary Exam Pattern:
There are 3 different sections in this exam – English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Ability
IBPS CWE Main Exam Pattern:
IBPS Mains exam has separate sectional timing for each section namely Reasoning & Computer Aptitude, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude and English Language.
What do we offer?
We have a wide range of question types to choose from. To name a few, we have included multiple choice text questions, Multiple choice image questions, Fill in the blanks and free text questions.
Our Reports & Analysis tool allows learners to monitor their progress and to identify competency gaps with added insights. Our platform also encourages collaboration by allowing learners to ask questions and get answers from the relevant subject matter experts in the designed forums.
Link For Study Material: www.ipci.co.in/study-material
Link for online test: test.ipci.co.in
Banking Recruitment: click here
No. One cannot apply for the SSC CGL Exam if he/she hasn’t cleared the final year exam . For all the posts offered through SSC CGL exam, it is mandatory to be a graduate.
SSC CGL CHSL Classes in Andheri west & east Mumbai
SBI Clerks (Junior Associates) are responsible for all the client interactions and related operations. Candidates who are recruited as SBI clerks are designated as cashiers, depositors and other posts that form the face of a particular SBI Bank branch. SBI Clerk recruitment exam consists of 2 stages Preliminary & Mains.
Please Note: There is no interview round for the SBI Clerk posts.
SBI Clerk Preliminary Exam pattern
It is a 100 marks MCQ based paper with a time duration of 1 hour (60 mins). There are 3 sections (subjects) in this exam, those are English Language, Numerical Ability & Reasoning Ability.
SBI Clerk Mains Exam Paper pattern
SBI Clerk Mains is also an MCQ based online exam. It has 4 sections which are English Language, Quantitive Aptitude, Reasoning & Computer Aptitude and General Awareness. There are 190 Questions, with a total score of 200 marks, and a time duration of 160 minutes. There is a negative marking with a deduction of 1/4th marks for every mistake.
What do we offer?
We have a wide range of question types to choose from. To name a few, we have included multiple choice text questions, Multiple choice image questions, Fill in the blanks and free text questions.
Our Reports & Analysis tool allows learners to monitor their progress and to identify competency gaps with added insights.
Our platform also encourages collaboration by allowing learners to ask questions and get answers from the relevant subject matter experts in the designed forums. call dadar branch: 8080160826
Candidate should ensure that the DATE OF BIRTH is same as he had entered at the time of registration. Candidate can refer the APPLICATION PRINT for the DATE OF BIRTH entered by him. The date of Birth should be entered in DD-MM-YY format.
Following posts can be applied by freshers who will be appearing for the exam:
Assistant/Assistant Audit Officer
Assistant Accounts Officer
Assistant Section Officer
Superintendent
Inspector Of Income Tax
Inspector (Central Excise)
Inspector (Preventive Officer)
Inspector (Examiner)
Asst. Enforcement Officer
Sub Inspector
Inspector Posts
Divisional Accountant
Inspector
Junior Statistical Officer
Auditor
Accountant/Junior Accountant
Senior Secretariat Assistant/ UDC
Tax Assistant
Upper Division Clerk (UDC)
SSC CGL 2019 Recruitment announced, SSC CHSL Exam date, SSC CGL Tier-III & IV
The number of vacancies will be determined at the time of Document Verification i.e. about one month before the declaration of the final results. total number of vacancies is approx 1/3 of 2nd final result.
Join for `our new batch for ssc cgl 2019 and 2020,
Minimum Age to apply for SSC CGL written exam is 18 years and maximum age limit is 32 years.
There are no interviews for any of the posts under SSC CGL Recruitment of group C-Post. The para 9.2 of the official notification for SSC CGL Recruitment 2019 clearly states that – “9.2 Interview component has been dispensed with. There will, therefore, be no interview.”
There will be negative marking of 0.5 for each wrong answer in Tier-II. In Tier-I, there is negative marking system of 0.25 for each wrong answer in paper II – English Language & Comprehension and 0.50 for each wrong answer in Paper-I, Paper III and Paper IV of Tier II.
Written Exam for SSC CGL and Most of exams will be conducted in online mode. Only Tier-III, descriptive paper will be conducted offline – pen and paper mode and tier-IV on proficiency test on computer.
The SSC JE standard of the questions in Engineering subjects will be approximately of the level of Diploma in Engineering (Civil/ Electrical/ Mechanical/Electronics) from a recognized Institute, Board or University recognized by All India Board of Technical Education. All the questions will be set in SI units. The details of the syllabus are given below:
Paper-I (i) General Intelligence & Reasoning: The Syllabus for General Intelligence would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test may include questions on analogies, similarities, differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationships, arithmetical computations and other analytical functions.
(ii) General Awareness: Questions will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him/her and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity and Scientific Research, etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.
(iii) General Engineering (Civil and Structural), (Electrical & Mechanical):
Part –A Civil Engineering Building Materials, Estimating, Costing and Valuation, Surveying, Soil Mechanics, Hydraulics, Irrigation Engineering, Transportation Engineering, Environmental Engineering. Structural Engineering: Theory of Structures, Concrete Technology, RCC Design, Steel Design.
Part-B Electrical Engineering Basic concepts, Circuit law, Magnetic Circuit, AC Fundamentals, Measurement and Measuring instruments, Electrical Machines, Fractional Kilowatt Motors and single phase induction Motors, Synchronous Machines, Generation, Transmission and Distribution, Estimation and Costing, Utilization and Electrical Energy, Basic Electronics.
Part-C Mechanical Engineering – Theory of Machines and Machine Design, Engineering Mechanics and Strength of Materials, Properties of Pure Substances, 1st Law of Thermodynamics, 2nd Law of Thermodynamics, Air standard Cycles for IC Engines, IC Engine Performance, IC Engines Combustion, IC Engine Cooling & Lubrication, Rankine cycle of System, Boilers, Classification, Specification, Fitting & Accessories, Air Compressors & their cycles, Refrigeration cycles, Principle of Refrigeration Plant, Nozzles & Steam Turbines. Properties & Classification of Fluids, Fluid Statics, Measurement of Fluid Pressure, Fluid kinematics, Dynamics of Ideal fluids, Measurement of Flow rate, basic principles, Hydraulic Turbines, Centrifugal Pumps, Classification of steels.
Dear Aspirants,
RRB has made a huge announcement today. The RRB ALP has increased its vacancies from 26,502 to 64,371. This is a great opportunity for people aspiring for Railway exams. There are 27795 vacancies for Assistant Loco Pilot posts and 36576 vacancies for Technician posts. Check out the official notification below to know the complete details of increase in RRB ALP Vacancy.
Download the Official Notification for Vacancy increase below: Click here
State Bank of India conducts SBI PO exam to select eligible candidates to the post of Probationary Officer.The SBI PO recruitment exam is top notch among the public-sector bank exams in India. It is considered a little difficult compared to other bank entrance exams.
An aspiring candidate appearing for the SBI PO exam has to pass 3 complex stages to clear the recruitment process.
SBI PO Preliminary Examination
It is a 100 marks MCQ based paper with a time duration of 1 hour (60 mins). There are 3 sections (subjects) in this exam. Those are English Language, Numerical Ability & Reasoning Ability.
SBI PO Main Examination
Its consists 2 parts Objective Test (200 marks) and a descriptive test (50 marks).
SBI PO Mains – Objective Test Paper pattern
SBI PO Mains – Objective Test Paper pattern
SBI PO Mains Descriptive Test pattern
SBI PO Final
Aspirants have to score an aggregate high in both parts, of Stage 2, to qualify for this round. SBI arranges these aggregate marks of all applicants in the descending order.
What do we offer?
We offer an exhaustive platform which conducts online examinations to measure the knowledge of the participants on the given exam syllabus. With our platform, students can attempt a wide variety of tests online, at the most convenient time, using any visual device, regardless of the location.
We have a wide range of question types to choose from. To name a few, we have included multiple choice text questions, Multiple choice image questions, Fill in the blanks and free text questions.
Our Reports & Analysis tool allows learners to monitor their progress and to identify competency gaps with added insights.
Our platform also encourages collaboration by allowing learners to ask questions and get answers from the relevant subject matter experts in the designed forums.
As an aspirant, you probably want to know the job/position that you aim to secure by cracking this competitive exam. Here is a list of the job types:
Best training Institute in Mumbai for SSC CGL | Rakesh Yadav Sir Classes in pune | best training institute SSC CGL Main Exams | mock test training institute in Mumbai |
Find SSC CGL coaching academy by city & locality SSC BY LOCALITY SSC :
CGL Coaching Institutes in Thane West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Andheri West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Borivali West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Dadar East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kalyan West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vashi, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Dadar West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Nerul, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kandivali West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Mira Road, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Virar West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Bhandup West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Andheri East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Borivali East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Mulund West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kharghar, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Dombivali East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vasai West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Malad West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Ghatkopar East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Ghatkopar West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Panvel, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vile Parle East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Chembur, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Parel, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Bandra West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Vile Parle West, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kandivali East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Thane East, Mumbai, SSC CGL Coaching Institutes in Kalyan East, Mumbai
Under RRB/RRC Level 1 Posts 2019 Recruitment Process, different educational qualifications are prescribed for various posts as given below:
| S. No. | Name of the Post | Department | Educational Qualification (As on 12th April 2019) |
| 1 | Assistant (Workshop) | Mechanical | 10th pass (OR) ITI from institutions recognised by National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT)/ State Council for Vocational Training (SCVT) (or) equivalent(OR)National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC)granted by NCVT |
| 2 | Assistant Bridge | Engineering | |
| 3 | Assistant C&W | Mechanical | |
| 4 | Assistant Depot (Stores) | Stores | |
| 5 | Assistant Loco Shed (Diesel) | Mechanical | |
| 6 | Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical) | Electrical | |
| 7 | Assistant Operations (Electrical) | Electrical | |
| 8 | Assistant Pointsman | Traffic | |
| 9 | Assistant Signal & Telecom | Signal and Telecommunication (S and T) | |
| 10 | Assistant Track Machine | Engineering | |
| 11 | Assistant TL & AC | Electrical | |
| 12 | Assistant TL & AC (Workshop) | Electrical | |
| 13 | Assistant TRD | Electrical | |
| 14 | Assistant Works | Engineering | |
| 15 | Assistant Works (Workshop) | Engineering | |
| 16 | Hospital Assistant | Medical | |
| 17 | Track Maintainer Grade IV | Engineering |
Note:
Follow the link from organisation website to download call letter. At login page, enter the Registration No / Roll No and Password / DOB(dd-mm-yy) at the required places to download the Call Letter. download & save as pdf.
Some Important Website for Download Call letter:
IBPS Exams: www.ibps.in
SBI: www.sbi.co.in
RBI: www.rbi.org.in
for more call us: 8080160826
Internet based Call letter download depends on various factors like Internet Speed, large number of Applicants trying to download the Call Letter at the same time etc. Therefore, if you are not able to download the Call Letter immediately, please retry after a gap of 5 minutes or during off-peak hours during the night.
Please check your entries in login screen. You should use REGISTRATION NO. & PASSWORD as received at the time of registration by displaying on the screen and also mailed to you in auto generated email acknowledgement.Also, make sure that the DATE OF BIRTH you have entered is same as you entered at the time of registration and printed in the application print. regarding your’s exam Like SBI, IBPS, Bank Clerk & PO.
The State Bank of India (SBI) has released the marks of candidates of SBI clerk main examination 2018. SBI had last month declared the result of the SBI clerk main examination 2018.
Here is the direct link to check SBI clerk main exam 2018 marks of candidates. SBI clerk main exam was held on August 5. The two-hour forty minute SBI clerk main exam was for 200 marks and divided into four sections: General and financial awareness (50 marks), General English (40 marks), quantitative aptitude (50 marks) and reasoning ability and computer aptitude (60 marks). Candidates were asked to answer 190 questions. Candidates were given 35 minutes each for general/financial awareness and general English and 45 minutes each for quantitative aptitude and reasoning ability section.
The marks obtained in the prelims (Phase-I) was not considered for the selection and only the aggregate marks obtained in the main exam (Phase-II) was considered in the final merit list.
Click here
13th October is the first day of the first phase of this exam, i.e., prelims. Many students appeared for this exam and the competition will be very tough this time. Therefore, it is necessary that one gets aware about the type of questions being asked in the exam so that you get an idea about how to plan your strategy to attempt the questions in the exam and manage your time accordingly.
| Subject | Good Attempt | Time |
| English Language | 16-19 | 20 |
| Reasoning Ability | 19-22 | 20 |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 17-21 | 20 |
| Total | 53-58 | 60 |
| Topic | No. of Questions | Level |
| Data Interpretation | 11 | Moderate |
| Wrong Number Series | 6 | Moderate |
| Quadratic Equation | 6 | Moderate |
| Arithmetic Word Problems (Profit and Loss, Problem on Ages, SI & CI etc) | 12 | Moderate |
| Total | 35 | Moderate |
The level of reasoning was Moderate. There were 3 sets of puzzles and Seating Arrangement, following are the types
| Topics | No. of Questions | Level |
| Puzzles and Seating Arrangement | 15 | Moderate |
| Coding Decoding | 5 | Easy-Moderate |
| Direction sense | 3 | Moderate |
| Inequality | 5 | Easy-Moderate |
| Alphabet | 1 | Easy-Moderate |
| Comparison Based Questions | 2 | Moderate |
| Miscellaneous | 4 | Moderate |
| Total | 35 | Moderate |
English section was of moderate level. There were only 7 question in the set of Reading Comprehension out of which 1 question was of vocabulary. It is important that candidates choose wisely what to attempt and what to skip. Reading Comprehension was based on an article related to printing press and history of newspapers. There were 3 different types/pattern of Error Detection questions.
| Topic | No. of Questions | Level |
| Reading Comprehension | 7 | Moderate |
| Error Detection | 7 | Easy-Moderate |
| Filler | 5 | Moderate |
| Cloze Test | 6 | Moderate |
| Sentence Improvement | 5 | Moderate |
| Total | 30 | Moderate |
Kindly Send your Valuable Feedback at: ipcitraining@gmail.com
|
SSC CPO 2019 Exam will be held on objective mode with MCQs. It will be bilingual i.e. in the languages Hindi and English. It will observe negative marking with as much as 0.25 as penalty for every mistake committed by the candidate. SSC CPO 2019 will comprise of three stages as given below:
| S.No | Subject | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| 1 | General Intelligence & Reasoning | 50 | 50 | 2 hours |
| 2 | General Knowledge | 50 | 50 | |
| 3 | Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 | |
| 4 | English Comprehension | 50 | 50 |
| Candidate | Height | Chest | |
| Unexpanded | Expanded | ||
| Male (Gen) | 170 | 80 | 85 |
| Belonging to Hilly regions & areas of J&K, North East & Sikkim | 165 | 80 | 85 |
| Scheduled Tribes | 162.5 | 77 | 82 |
| Female (Gen) | 157 | – | – |
| Belonging to Hilly regions & areas of J&K, North East & Sikkim | 155 | – | – |
| Scheduled Tribes | 154 | – | – |
For Male Candidates
For Female Candidates
SSC CPO Medical Test
SSC CPO Paper-2 will be held once you qualify PET/PST Test for SSC CPO 2019 is carryied out.
The final merit list will be determined on the foundation of the performance of the candidate in all the three stages of SSC CPO Exam.
New & Next batch start for SSC CPO with mock PST PET from 30 sept with best faculties @ mumbai centre & Live classes
The Best SSC CGL & CPO classes & Institute in dadar, mumbaiThe advertisement prescribes detailed guidelines for uploading the photo and signature .The candidates are requested to refer to relevant clause of the advertisement available on the official IBPS website for the same and ensure that the photo and signature files meet the specifications mentioned in the advertisement. All information regarding photo, Sign and deceleration in particular recruitment advt.
There are a lot of advantages by attempting the SSC CGL Online Test Series.
There are various features present in our mock tests series that are listed below
CGL Mains Maths Paper Test-3Download
CGL Mains english Test Paper-3Download
CGL Mains Maths Paper Solution Test-3 Download

for more notes books lecture join our personal channel:https://t.me/prudencemumbai
IBPS PO test series 2019 comes with a free mock test which provides detailed solutions & performance analysis. You can improve your overall score in IBPS PO Prelims & Mains Exam by practicing our offline test series.
Prelim | Subject | Questions | Marks | Duration | Mains | Subject | Questions | Marks | Duration |
| Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 minutes | Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude | 45 | 60 | 60 Minutes | ||
| English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 minutes | General / Economy / Banking Awareness | 40 | 40 | 35 Minutes | ||
| Quantitative Aptitude | 35 | 35 | 20 minutes | Data Interpretation & Analysis | 35 | 60 | 45 Minutes | ||
| – | – | – | – | English Language | 35 | 40 | 40 Minutes | ||
| – | – | – | – | Total | 200 | 200 | 140 Minutes | ||
| Total | 100 | 100 | 60 minutes | Descriptive Test (English Language) | 2 | 25 | 30 Minutes |
Youtube GS link For Geography lecture by vivek sir at 7 to 8am
| Primary Stage (Class I to V) |
|
Date 12-sept-2019 Reasoning lecture by arun sir topic Coding-Decoding click here for View: https://youtu.be/W-351axIK-c
In above link only for IPCI & Prudence Student @dadar mumbai centre and other not required to view.
Our advertisement clearly prescribes the eligibility criteria in detail. The candidates are requested to kindly refer to the relevant clause mentioned in the advertisement.
Bank Clerk: 18 to 28 year
Bank PO/SO: 20 to 30 year
Some case of special office 35 years with Experience.
The advertisement /notification mentions in detail about the schedule of registration /payment of fees. The candidates are requested to kindly refer to the relevant clause mentioned in the advertisement. Keep in touch with official IBPS website regularly and IBPS Every Year Updates Exam Calendar for online, exam date, Result every year.
List of Gramin Bank:
| Sr. No. | Name of Regional Rural Bank & Website Link | Sponsor Bank | State |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Allahabad UP Gramin Bank | Allahabad Bank | Uttar Pradesh |
| 2 | Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank | State Bank of India | Andhra Pradesh |
| 3 | Andhra Pragathi Grameena Bank | Syndicate Bank | Andhra Pradesh |
| 4 | Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Arunachal Pradesh |
| 5 | Assam Gramin Vikash Bank | United Bank of India | Assam |
| 6 | Bangiya Gramin Vikash Bank | United Bank of India | West Bengal |
| 7 | Baroda Gujarat Gramin Bank | Bank of Baroda | Gujarat |
| 8 | Baroda Rajasthan Kshetriya Gramin Bank | Bank of Baroda | Rajasthan |
| 9 | Baroda UP Gramin Bank | Bank of Baroda | Uttar Pradesh |
| 10 | Bihar Gramin Bank | UCO Bank | Bihar |
| 11 | Central Madhya Pradesh Gramin Bank | Central Bank of India | Madhya Pradesh |
| 12 | Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank | Andhra Bank | Andhra Pradesh |
| 13 | Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Chhattisgarh |
| 14 | Dena Gujarat Gramin Bank | Dena Bank | Gujarat |
| 15 | Ellaquai Dehati Bank | State Bank of India | Jammu & Kashmir |
| 16 | Gramin Bank of Aryavart | Bank of India | Uttar Pradesh |
| 17 | Himachal Pradesh Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Himachal Pradesh |
| 18 | J&K Grameen Bank | J&K Bank Ltd. | Jammu & Kashmir |
| 19 | Jharkhand Gramin Bank | Bank of India | Jharkhand |
| 20 | Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank | Syndicate Bank | Karnataka |
| 21 | Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank | Union Bank of India | Uttar Pradesh |
| 22 | Kaveri Grameena Bank | State Bank of India | Karnataka |
| 23 | Kerala Gramin Bank | Canara Bank | Kerala |
| 24 | Langpi Dehangi Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Assam |
| 25 | Madhyanchal Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Madhya Pradesh |
| 26 | Madhya Bihar Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Bihar |
| 27 | Maharashtra Gramin Bank | Bank of Maharashtra | Maharashtra |
| 28 | Malwa Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Punjab |
| 29 | Manipur Rural Bank | United Bank of India | Manipur |
| 30 | Meghalaya Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Meghalaya |
| 31 | Mizoram Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Mizoram |
| 32 | Nagaland Rural Bank | State Bank of India | Nagaland |
| 33 | Narmada Jhabua Gramin Bank | Bank of India | Madhya Pradesh |
| 34 | Odisha Gramya Bank | Indian Overseas Bank | Odisha |
| 35 | Pallavan Grama Bank | Indian Bank | Tamil Nadu |
| 36 | Pandyan Grama Bank | Indian Overseas Bank | Tamil Nadu |
| 37 | Paschim Banga Gramin Bank | UCO Bank | West Bengal |
| 38 | Pragathi Krishna Gramin Bank | Canara Bank | Karnataka |
| 39 | Prathama Bank | Syndicate Bank | Uttar Pradesh |
| 40 | Puduvai Bharthiar Grama Bank | Indian Bank | Puducherry |
| 41 | Punjab Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Punjab |
| 42 | Purvanchal Bank | State Bank of India | Uttar Pradesh |
| 43 | Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Rajasthan |
| 44 | Saptagiri Grameena Bank | Indian Bank | Andhra Pradesh |
| 45 | Sarva Haryana Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Haryana |
| 46 | Sarva UP Gramin Bank | Punjab National Bank | Uttar Pradesh |
| 47 | Saurashtra Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Gujarat |
| 48 | Sutlej Gramin Bank | Punjab and Sind Bank | Punjab |
| 49 | Telangana Grameena Bank | State Bank of India | Telangana |
| 50 | Tripura Gramin Bank | United Bank of India | Tripura |
| 51 | Utkal Grameen Bank | State Bank of India | Odisha |
| 52 | Uttar Banga Kshetriya Gramin Bank | Central Bank of India | West Bengal |
| 53 | Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank | Central Bank of India | Bihar |
| 54 | Uttarakhand Gramin Bank | State Bank of India | Uttarakhand |
Part-A : Civil & Structural Engineering:
Civil Engineering Building Materials : Physical and Chemical properties, classification, standard tests, uses and manufacture/quarrying of materials e.g. building stones, silicate based materials, cement (Portland), asbestos products, timber and wood based products, laminates, bituminous materials, paints, varnishes.
Estimating, Costing and Valuation: estimate, glossary of technical terms, analysis of rates, methods and unit of measurement, Items of work – earthwork, Brick work (Modular & Traditional bricks), RCC work, Shuttering, Timber work, Painting, Flooring, Plastering. Boundary wall, Brick building, Water Tank, Septic tank, Bar bending schedule, Centre line method, Mid-section formula, Trapezodial formula, Simpson’s rule. Cost estimate of Septic tank, flexible pavements, Tube well, isolates and combined footings, Steel Truss, Piles and pile-caps. Valuation – Value and cost, scrap value, salvage value, assessed value, sinking fund, depreciation and obsolescence, methods of valuation.
Surveying : Principles of surveying, measurement of distance, chain surveying, working of prismatic compass, compass traversing, bearings, local attraction, plane table surveying, theodolite traversing, adjustment of theodolite, Levelling, Definition of terms used in levelling, contouring, curvature and refraction corrections, temporary and permanent adjustments of dumpy level, methods of contouring, uses of contour map, tachometric survey, curve setting, earth work calculation, advanced surveying equipment.
Soil Mechanics : Origin of soil, phase diagram, Definitions-void ratio, porosity, degree of saturation, water content, specific gravity of soil grains, unit weights, density index and interrelationship of different parameters, Grain size distribution curves and their uses. Index properties of soils, Atterberg’s limits, ISI soil classification and plasticity chart. Permeability of soil, coefficient of permeability, determination of coefficient of permeability, Unconfined and confined aquifers, effective stress, quick sand, consolidation of soils, Principles of consolidation, degree of consolidation, pre-consolidation pressure, normally consolidated soil, e-log p curve, computation of ultimate settlement. Shear strength of soils, direct shear test, Vane shear test, Triaxial test. Soil compaction, Laboratory compaction test, Maximum dry density and optimum moisture content, earth pressure theories, active and passive earth pressures, Bearing capacity of soils, plate load test, standard penetration test.
Hydraulics : Fluid properties, hydrostatics, measurements of flow, Bernoulli’s theorem and its application, flow through pipes, flow in open channels, weirs, flumes, spillways, pumps and turbines.
Irrigation Engineering: Definition, necessity, benefits, 2II effects of irrigation, types and methods of irrigation, Hydrology – Measurement of rainfall, run off coefficient, rain gauge, losses from precipitation – evaporation, infiltration, etc. Water requirement of crops, duty, delta and base period, Kharif and Rabi Crops, Command area, Time factor, Crop ratio, Overlap allowance, Irrigation efficiencies. Different type of canals, types of canal irrigation, loss of water in canals. Canal lining – types and advantages. Shallow and deep to wells, yield from a well. Weir and barrage, Failure of weirs and permeable foundation, Slit and Scour, Kennedy’s theory of critical velocity. Lacey’s theory of uniform flow. Definition of flood, causes and effects, methods of flood control, water logging, preventive measure. Land reclamation, Characteristics of affecting fertility of soils, purposes, methods, description of land and reclamation processes. Major irrigation projects in India.
Transportation Engineering: Highway Engineering – cross sectional elements, geometric design, types of pavements, pavement materials – aggregates and bitumen, different tests, Design of flexible and rigid pavements – Water Bound Macadam (WBM) and Wet Mix Macadam (WMM), Gravel Road, Bituminous construction, Rigid pavement joint, pavement maintenance, Highway drainage, Railway Engineering- Components of permanent way – sleepers, ballast, fixtures and fastening, track geometry, points and crossings, track junction, stations and yards. Traffic Engineering – Different traffic survey, speed-flow-density and their interrelationships, intersections and interchanges, traffic signals, traffic operation, traffic signs and markings, road safety.
Environmental Engineering: Quality of water, source of water supply, purification of water, distribution of water, need of sanitation, sewerage systems, circular sewer, oval sewer, sewer appurtenances, sewage treatments. Surface water drainage. Solid waste management – types, effects, engineered management system. Air pollution – pollutants, causes, effects, control. Noise pollution – cause, health effects, control.
Structural Engineering Theory of structures: Elasticity constants, types of beams – determinate and indeterminate, bending moment and shear force diagrams of simply supported, cantilever and over hanging beams. Moment of area and moment of inertia for rectangular & circular sections, bending moment and shear stress for tee, channel and compound sections, chimneys, dams and retaining walls, eccentric loads, slope deflection of simply supported and cantilever beams, critical load and columns, Torsion of circular section.
Concrete Technology: Properties, Advantages and uses of concrete, cement aggregates, importance of water quality, water cement ratio, workability, mix design, storage, batching, mixing, placement, compaction, finishing and curing of concrete, quality control of concrete, hot weather and cold weather concreting, repair and maintenance of concrete structures.
RCC Design: RCC beams-flexural strength, shear strength, bond strength, design of singly reinforced and double reinforced beams, cantilever beams. T-beams, lintels. One way and two way slabs, isolated footings. Reinforced brick works, columns, staircases, retaining wall, water tanks (RCC design questions may be based on both Limit State and Working Stress methods).
Steel Design: Steel design and construction of steel columns, beams roof trusses plate girders.
Part-B (Electrical Engineering):
Basic concepts : Concepts of resistance, inductance, capacitance, and various factors affecting them. Concepts of current, voltage, power, energy and their units.
Circuit law : Kirchhoff’s law, Simple Circuit solution using network theorems.
Magnetic Circuit : Concepts of flux, mmf, reluctance, Different kinds of magnetic materials, Magnetic calculations for conductors of different configuration e.g. straight, circular, solenoidal, etc. Electromagnetic induction, self and mutual induction.
AC Fundamentals: Instantaneous, peak, R.M.S. and average values of alternating waves, Representation of sinusoidal wave form, simple series and parallel AC Circuits consisting of R.L. and C, Resonance, Tank Circuit. Poly Phase system – star and delta connection, 3 phase power, DC and sinusoidal response of R-Land R-C circuit.
Measurement and measuring instruments: Measurement of power (1 phase and 3 phase, both active and re-active) and energy, 2 wattmeter method of 3 phase power measurement. Measurement of frequency and phase angle. Ammeter and voltmeter (both moving oil and moving iron type), extension of range wattmeter, Multimeters, Megger, Energy meter AC Bridges. Use of CRO, Signal Generator, CT, PT and their uses. Earth Fault detection.
Electrical Machines : (a) D.C. Machine – Construction, Basic Principles of D.C. motors and generators, their characteristics, speed control and starting of D.C. Motors. Method of braking motor, Losses and efficiency of D.C. Machines. (b) 1 phase and 3 phase transformers – Construction, Principles of operation, equivalent circuit, voltage regulation, O.C. and S.C. Tests, Losses and efficiency. Effect of voltage, frequency and wave form on losses. Parallel operation of 1 phase /3 phase transformers. Auto transformers. (c) 3 phase induction motors, rotating magnetic field, principle of operation, equivalent circuit, torque-speed characteristics, starting and speed control of 3 phase induction motors. Methods of braking, effect of voltage and frequency variation on torque speed characteristics.
Fractional Kilowatt Motors and Single Phase Induction Motors: Characteristics and applications.
Synchronous Machines – Generation of 3-phase e.m.f. armature reaction, voltage regulation, parallel operation of two alternators, synchronizing, control of active and reactive power. Starting and applications of synchronous motors.
Generation, Transmission and Distribution – Different types of power stations, Load factor, diversity factor, demand factor, cost of generation, inter-connection of power stations. Power factor improvement, various types of tariffs, types of faults, short circuit current for symmetrical faults.
Switchgear – rating of circuit breakers, Principles of arc extinction by oil and air, H.R.C. Fuses, Protection against earth leakage / over current, etc. Buchholtz relay, Merz-Price system of protection of generators & transformers, protection of feeders and bus bars. Lightning arresters, various transmission and distribution system, comparison of conductor materials, efficiency of different system. Cable – Different type of cables, cable rating and derating factor.
Estimation and costing : Estimation of lighting scheme, electric installation of machines and relevant IE rules. Earthing practices and IE Rules. Utilization of Electrical Energy : Illumination, Electric heating, Electric welding, Electroplating, Electric drives and motors.
Basic Electronics : Working of various electronic devices e.g. P N Junction diodes, Transistors (NPN and PNP type), BJT and JFET. Simple circuits using these devices.
Part- C (Mechanical Engineering):
Theory of Machines and Machine Design
Concept of simple machine, Four bar linkage and link motion, Flywheels and fluctuation of energy, Power transmission by belts – V-belts and Flat belts, Clutches – Plate and Conical clutch, Gears – Type of gears, gear profile and gear ratio calculation, Governors – Principles and classification, Riveted joint, Cams, Bearings, Friction in collars and pivots.
Engineering Mechanics and Strength of Materials
Equilibrium of Forces, Law of motion, Friction, Concepts of stress and strain, Elastic limit and elastic constants, Bending moments and shear force diagram, Stress in composite bars, Torsion of circular shafts, Bucking of columns – Euler’s and Rankin’s theories, Thin walled pressure vessels.
Thermal Engineering
Properties of Pure Substances : p-v & P-T diagrams of pure substance like H2O, Introduction of steam table with respect to steam generation process; definition of saturation, wet & superheated status. Definition of dryness fraction of steam, degree of superheat of steam. H-s chart of steam (Mollier’s Chart).
1st Law of Thermodynamics : Definition of stored energy & internal energy, 1st Law of Thermodynamics of cyclic process, Non Flow Energy Equation, Flow Energy & Definition of Enthalpy, Conditions for Steady State Steady Flow; Steady State Steady Flow Energy Equation.
2nd Law of Thermodynamics : Definition of Sink, Source Reservoir of Heat, Heat Engine, Heat Pump & Refrigerator; Thermal Efficiency of Heat Engines & co-efficient of performance of Refrigerators, Kelvin – Planck & Clausius Statements of 2nd Law of Thermodynamics, Absolute or Thermodynamic Scale of temperature, Clausius Integral, Entropy, Entropy change calculation of ideal gas processes. Carnot Cycle & Carnot Efficiency, PMM-2; definition & its impossibility.
Air standard Cycles for IC engines : Otto cycle; plot on P-V, T-S Planes; Thermal Efficiency, Diesel Cycle; Plot on P-V, T-S planes; Thermal efficiency.
IC Engine Performance, IC Engine Combustion, IC Engine Cooling & Lubrication.
Rankine cycle of steam : Simple Rankine cycle plot on P-V, T-S, h-s planes, Rankine cycle efficiency with & without pump work.
Boilers; Classification; Specification; Fittings & Accessories : Fire Tube & Water Tube Boilers.
Air Compressors & their cycles; Refrigeration cycles; Principle of a Refrigeraton Plant; Nozzles & Steam Turbines Fluid Mechanics & Machinery
Properties & Classification of Fluid : ideal & real fluids, Newton’s law of viscosity, Newtonian and Non-Newtonian fluids, compressible and incompressible fluids.
Fluid Statics : Pressure at a point.
Measurement of Fluid Pressure : Manometers, U-tube, Inclined tube.
Fluid Kinematics : Stream line, laminar & turbulent flow, external & internal flow, continuity equation.
Dynamics of ideal fluids : Bernoulli’s equation, Total head; Velocity head; Pressure head; Application of Bernoulli’s equitation.
Measurement of Flow rate Basic Principles : Venturi meter, Pilot tube, Orifice meter.
Hydraulic Turbines : Classifications, Principles.
Centrifugal Pumps : Classifications, Principles, Performance.
Production Engineering
Classification of Steels : mild steal & alloy steel, Heat treatment of steel, Welding – Arc Welding,
Gas Welding, Resistance Welding, Special Welding Techniques i.e. TIG, MIG, etc. (Brazing & Soldering), Welding Defects & Testing; NDT, Foundry & Casting – methods, defects, different casting processes, Forging, Extrusion, etc, Metal cutting principles, cutting tools, Basic Principles of machining with (i) Lathe (ii) Milling (iii) Drilling (iv) Shaping (v) Grinding, Machines, tools & manufacturing processes.
SSC CGL Advance Maths Lecture backup link time 11am to 12:45am :
Website link: https://youtu.be/bo5k6Qr2Gs8
For more call: 8779774040
All books are revised edition in 2019 under Rakesh Yadav Readers Publication with QR Code of Explanation and most of book available in Bilingual, Hindi & English.
| Book Name | Medium | MRP | Student Price | Category | |
| 1 | Study Material English | English | 350 | 260 | ALL Exams |
| 2 | Advance Maths | English | 400 | 300 | SSC |
| 3 | Reasoning Verbal & Non Verbal | Bilingual | 250 | 175 | ALL |
| 4 | General Knowledge 1100+ | English/Hindi | 460 | 345 | SSC, RRB |
| 5 | English Grammar & Vocab | English | 200 | 150 | All Exams |
| 6 | Study Material maths | Bilingual | 250 | 175 | All Exams |
| 7 | Class Notes Maths | English | 330 | 250 | All |
| 9 | Study Material DI | English | 150 | 110 | Bank Exam |
SSC CGL Exam Coaching in Mumbai, result oriented Coaching Classes for SSC CGL, Best Faculty, Test series, Study material, SSC CGL exam preparation tier I & II full Notes.
Rakesh Yadav Sir classes in mumbai, Arun Sir classes Reasoning, Career Will app classes.
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
SSC CGL New batch by Prudence coaching Centre Mumbai and Best Coaching Institute in Dadar & Complete Demo Lecture for Staff Selection Commission| Exam Name | SSC CGL 2019 (Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level) |
| Conducting Body | Staff Selection Commission |
| Official Website | ssc.nic.in |
| Exam Type | National Level Exam |
| Mode of Application | Online |
| Mode of Exam | Online |
| Medium of Exam | Hindi and English |
| Exam Dates (2018-19) | CGL 2019-20 Tier I: 02.03.2019 to 19.06.2019 CGL 2019-20 Tier II & III: 22.06.2020 to 25.06.2020 CGL 208-19 Tier III: 29.12.2019 |
| Eligibility | Indian citizenship & bachelor’s degree in relevant discipline |
| Duration | Tier 1 – 60 minutesTier 2 – 120 minutesTier 3 – 60 minutesTier 4 – 45 minutes |
| Section | Tier 1 – 4 Sections Tier 2 – 4 Papers |
SSC CGL Classes for Tier I and II in Andheri || Borivali || Virar || Best Exam Institute in Panvel || Vashi || Mankhurd || Rakesh Yadav Sir Maths Books ||
You may undergo various professional courses as per service requirement and certificates of equivalent qualifications from various Universities are being awarded on successful completion of courses. You will get “Graduation Equivalent Certificate” on retirement after completion of 15 years of service.
Qualified in 10+2 examination with Maths & Physics and at least one of these subjects; Chemistry/Biology/Computer science from an educational board recognized by Central/State Government.
The age for SSR candidate should be between 17-20 years on the day of enrolment.
We will provide the direct link to download CDS 2 2019 result PDF. However, test-takers can also follow the steps mentioned below to check their CDS 2 result 2019:
Crack SSC in First Attempt Join Prudence Coaching Centre Mumbai. No.1 Coaching Centre for SSC CGL in Mumbai, Maximum Selection Rate by us and Our Institute. New Batch Start Every month. Prudence Provides 7 free Demo Class for Arithmetic, Advance, General Knowledge, Reasoning & English Language & Grammar. For more details call: 8779774040 | 8080160826.
SSC CGL Off line mock test download the below link:
SSC CGL Mock Test Explanation -62Download





Every year, Staff Selection Commission conducts Combined Graduate Level Exam to recruit various posts in Ministries and Departments of the Government of India and in its Subordinate Offices. This is the biggest opportunity for the Graduates who wish to be a part of reputed government organization.
The overall recruitment process consists of 4 tiers, each tier need to be cleared depending upon the requirement of different posts. Let’s have a look at the SSC CGL 2019 Exam Pattern.
Our new batch start from 14 Oct 2019 welcome to all ssc cgl students for demo lecture @ 7 to 11am…
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
SSC CGL:- Prudence Coaching Mumbai || Rakesh Yadav Sir || Careerwill App classes in mumbai || Live Lecture App SSC CGL || Top & Best Result Oriented class in mumbai
SSC CGL Mock Test Prelim and Main Examination || SSC CHSL Mock test || Multi tasking staff || SSC CGL Notification 2019 ||
SSC CGL Calendar 2019 and 2020 out, Best classes for SSC CGL CHSL in mumbai dadar || SSC CGL Complete lecture in Mumbai , SSC CGL Exam Preparation Institute dadar || Rakesh Yadav Sir Math Careerwill App || Prudence Coaching institute in Mumbai || SSC CGL Mains Exam Preparation ||
Lecture Schedule IPCI & Prudence Mumbai
09-Oct-2019(Wednesday)
| Batch Time | Class Room-L 09-Sept, | Class Room-M | Class Room-S 1-Aug | Class Room-M Offline Lecture |
| 7-8am | GS-Polity Abhishek Sir | |||
| 8-9:30am | Maths Rakesh Sir | Maths Amit Sir | ||
| 9:30-11am | English Jaideep Sir | Maths Rakesh Sir | ||
| 11-12:45pm | Maths Rakesh Sir | English Jaideep Sir | ||
| 1-3pm | History Abhishek Sir | History Abhishek Sir | Maths Amit Sir | |
| 3 -5pm | Maths Rakesh Sir | English Jaideep Sir | ||
| 5-6:30pm | English Jaideep Sir | |||
| 6:30-7pm | Polity Abhishek Sir | |||
| 7-8:45pm | — |
1. This Booklet contains 100 questions in all comprising the following four parts: Part – I : General Awareness [40 Questions] Part – II : General Intelligence & Reasoning [30 Questions] Part – III : Quantitative Aptitude [30 Questions]
2.All questions are compulsory and carry two mark each.
3. Before you start to answer the questions you must check this Booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages (1-11) and see that no page is missing or repeated. If you find any defect in this Booklet, you must get it replaced immediately.
4. For every wrong answer 1/3 marks will be deducted from total marks you get.
5. You will be provided the Answer-Sheet separately by the Invigilator. You must complete the details of Ticket Number,Roll Number and Test Form Number on Side-I of the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start answering the questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which your AnswerSheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘Zero’ mark.
6.Questions of English Medium will be considered for evaluation in case if differs in Hindi Medium.
7. Answers must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding rectangles on Side-II of the Answer-Sheet against the relevant question number by black/blue ball pen only. Answers which are not shown by black/blue ball pen will not be awarded any mark.
8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
9. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render a candidate liable to such action/Penalty as way be deemed fit.
10. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been explained in the OMR sheet from which you should read carefully before answering the questions.
11. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not spend too much time on any question.
12. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. Space for rough work has been provided at the back of the booklet.
NTPC Mock Test Explanation -14Download
CTET is the most respected exams and jobs as a teacher in middle school & High school (Primary and Secondary) teacher. every year exam conducting for CTET & State TET entrance test is mandatory for teaching jobs in Indian government schools from Class I to Class VIII. There are two papers: Paper 1, for teachers of Classes I to V, and Paper 2 for Classes VI to VIII. The TET is conducted by both the central government and the state governments of India. Most states conduct their own TET.
People with professional teaching qualifications, including the B.T.C (D.El.Ed), B.Ed, and B.El.Ed, are eligible to take the test.
Click here for Previous Paper Environment & Heredity
Click here to watch complete lecture on compatible device: https://youtu.be/0LAyQrvlMK4
English link 16 sept 2019 at 5 to 6:30pm by Jaideep Sir fro SSC CGL/CPO and Banking examination.
New Batch announcement SSC CGL || CPO || CISF || CAPFs || ASI || 30-Sept-2019
Call: 8080160826 || 8779774040
SSC CPO Recruitment -2019https://ipci.co.in/ssc-cpo-central-police-organization-recruitment-important-date-2019/
In the given back link on 19 sep-2019 for General Knowledge by Abhishek Sir at 6:30 pm to 8 pm click here:
Above Link only useful for SSC(staff Selection Commission) CGL, CHSL, MTS, RRB NTPS, CDS, AFCAT etc. except banking students.
IPCI are frequently getting various queries from candidates in connection with Common Recruitment Process. We have compiled repeated similar queries received from candidates along with our responses to upload on the official website of IPCI for information and benefit of all concerned. Most of the queries are raised based on the information already incorporated in the advertisement of Recruitment like SSC(Staff Selection Commission), Banking Exam, Railway Exam, IB or CBI, EPFO, ESIC, NDA, CDS etc.
For More Information fill online form:
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
Hello dear prudence coaching institute will provides SSC CGL Mock Test -60 for prelims examination and test contains four section Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Knowledge and English Language. each section having 25 question and carry 2 mark and negative .5 marks. our test also available on mock www.ipci.co.in.
SSC CGL Mock Test Exaplanation-60Download
Top Most Institute in Mumbai for SSC CGL Railway Banking And State Govt Exam
Bank Exam IBPS Clerk Probationary Officer, Live Classes, Offline Classes, Institute in Mumbai
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
New Batch start for Bank Exam SSC Exam Railway Exam CDS & Other Competitive Exams
The online examinations for the next Common Recruitment Process for RRBs (CRP RRBs IX) and PSBs for recruitment of Group “A”-Officers (Scale-I, II & III), Group “B”-Office Assistant (Multipurpose), PSBs Probationary Officer, Clerk and SO will be conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) tentatively in September to Jan 2021 (Prelim & Main Exam). The interviews for recruitment of Group “A”- Officers (Scale-I, II & III) under the same process will be coordinated by Banks and IBPS in consultation with appropriate authority tentatively in the month of End of march 2021.
IBPS Exam date for Officer & Clerk 2020
Live Online Classes for Banking SSC CGL RRB NTPC CDS & Degree Entrance Course
you cover the complete syllabus of Courses & Subject wise (Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, General Awareness and English section) including fundamental concepts, important questions, and latest exam patterns.
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
Shorthand writing is a art to understand the strokes , circles , hook , symbols .etc . And express it into our own way in the simple form.
The shorthand writing is very easy to write and to understand . In shorthand one must has to practice.
Shorthand is very interested because we learn new form of writing and to feel it and easy to express .
1: A writer of shorthand
2: A person employed chiefly to take and transcribe dictation
3:A person whose job is to write down the words that someone says by using a special type of writing (called shorthand)
Pitman shorthand is a system of shorthand for the English language developed by Englishman Sir Isaac Pitman (1813–1897), who first presented it in 1837. Like most systems of shorthand, it is a phonetic system; the symbols do not represent letters, but rather sounds, and words are, for the most part, written as they are spoken.]As of 1996, Pitman shorthand was the most popular shorthand system used in the United Kingdom and the second most popular in the United States.
One characteristic feature of Pitman shorthand is that unvoiced and voiced pairs of sounds (such as /p/ and /b/ or /t/ and /d/) are represented by strokes which differ only in thickness; the thin stroke representing “light” sounds such as /p/ and /t/; the thick stroke representing “heavy” sounds such as /b/ and /d/. Doing this requires a writing instrument responsive to the user’s drawing pressure: specialist fountain pens (with fine, flexible nibs) were originally used, but pencils are now more commonly used.
Pitman shorthand uses straight strokes and quarter-circle strokes, in various orientations, to represent consonant sounds. The predominant way of indicating vowels is to use light or heavy dots, dashes, or other special marks drawn close to the consonant. Vowels are drawn before the stroke (or over a horizontal stroke) if the vowel is pronounced before the consonant, and after the stroke (or under a horizontal stroke) if pronounced after the consonant.
SSC CGL 2020 Tier-1 will be conducted tentatively from 2nd to 11th March 2020. The exam will be conducted online comprising of 4 sections with about 100 questions in total and with maximum marks of 200. The entire exam is needed to be completed in a time span of 60 minutes.
The sections asked in SSC CGL Tier-I Exam are:
Find the detailed exam analysis of the SSC CGL 2019-20 Tier-1 Exam held on 3rd March 2020 (Shift-1). The paper was conducted online in the Objective type MCQ format. So, let’s look at the type of questions asked in this exam, difficulty level and number of good attempts.
| SSC CGL Tier-I 2019-20 Online Exam Analysis held on 3rd March 2020 (Shift-1) | ||
Category (Number of Questions/Marks) | Topics | Difficulty Level (Good Attempts) |
| Quantitative Aptitude (25/50) | Number Systems, Decimals and Fractions, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, Trigonometry
| Moderate (17 to 20) |
English Language and Comprehension (25/50) | Spot the Error, Fill in the Blanks, Synonyms/ Antonyms, Mis-spelt words, Idioms & Phrases, One Word Substitution, Improvement of Sentences, Sentence Rearrangement, Cloze Test
| Easy to Moderate (18 to 20) |
General Intelligence & Reasoning (25/50) | Analogies, Classification, Analogy, Coding-Decoding, Puzzle, Matrix, Word Formation, Venn Diagram, Direction and Distance, Blood Relations, Series, Non-Verbal Reasoning (Paper-folding, Mirror Image) | Easy to Moderate (20 to 22) |
(25/50) | Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity, Awards, Indian Constitution, and general Science
| Easy to Moderate (18 to 20) |
| Total 100 Objective MCQs | Easy to Moderate (70 to 80) | |
New Batch competitive Exams SSC CGL Exams Bank Exams Railway Exams CDS/AFCAT
The SSC CHSL Teir1, 2, 3 exam call letter is released through online mode. Thus, candidates need to know how to download the admit card. The steps to download the SSC CHSL 2020 Call Letter are as follows:
1st Step: Visit the Official Website – ssc.nic.in
2nd Step: Now click on the tab ‘Admit Card’ present on the top of the page.
3rd Step: A page will open with a list of 9 SSC Regional website. Click on the appropriate regional link from which you have submitted the application form.
4th Step: The respective regional official website will open. Now, click on the SSC CHSL Tier 1 Admit Card link present on the page. (Link to be activated once the admit card is released)
5th Step: Enter your Roll Number/ Registration ID, Name and Date of Birth. Click on the button ‘Submit’.
6th Step: The SSC CHSL Admit Card will be displayed. Check the details and download the admit card for future reference.
More Help Call: 80 80 160 826

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has released the admit card for combined graduate level (CGL) tier 1 exam 2019. Candidates who have registered for the SSC CGL Tier 1 exam can download their admit cards online from the regional websites of SSC.
SSC CGL Tier 1 exam 2019 will be held from March 3 to 9, 2020. We have provided the direct links to download admit card for all regions here:
Admit card for Karnataka and Kerala region
Admit Card for Southern Region
Admit Card for North Eastern region
Admit card for Western region (Mumbai)
Admit card for Madhya Pradesh Region
Admit card for North Western region
main websitte: Click here
The best Practice Booklet for SSC Stenographer Computer based examination and test is compiled under guidance by Rakesh Yadav Sir or Prudence Coaching. it is useful for all stenography student appearing for SSC Steno. Computer based Exam 2020. Steno. sample paper click here and solution of sample mock paper in your booklet.
SSC Stenographer Mock test | SSC CGL Mock test | SSC CHSL Mock Test
SSC CHSL 2019-20 Tier-I exam will be an Objective Multiple Choice Exam which will be conducted online. The exam comprises of four sections having 100 questions (25 questions in each section) which will account for a total of 200 marks (maximum 50 marks in each section). The time duration of Tier-1 exam will be 60 minutes. The section-wise details of the exam are shown in the table given below:
Dates of SSC CHSL Computer Based Exam (Tier-I) | Parts – Subjects | Number of Questions/ Maximum Marks | Time Duration (For all four Parts) |
March 2020 | Part I – English Language (Basic Knowledge) | 25/50 | 60 Minutes (80 Minutes for candidates eligible for scribes) |
Part II – General Intelligence | 25/50 | ||
Part III – Quantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill) | 25/50 | ||
Part IV – General Awareness | 25/50 | ||
TOTAL |
| 200 |
SSC CHSL Syllabus | CHSL Tier III Exams details | CHSL Paper pattern | LDC DEP JSA SA Exam classes
SSC CHSL 2019-20 Tier-II will be a Descriptive Paper of 100 Marks in Pen and Paper Mode. The duration of the Descriptive Paper would be for one hour (20 minutes compensatory time will also be provided to the candidates eligible for scribes). The Paper would comprise writing of an Essay of 200-250 words and a Letter/ Application of approximately 150-200 words. The section-wise details of the exam are shown in the table given below:
Dates of SSC CHSL 2019-20 Descriptive Paper (Tier-II) | Max Marks | Exam Duration |
28th June 2020 (Pen and Paper Mode) | 100 | 1 Hour (20 minutes compensatory time will also be provided to the candidates eligible for scribes) |
Skill Test is mandatory for Data Entry Operators. Skill Test/ Typing Test for the qualified candidates will be conducted on computers provided by the Commission or its authorized agency. Skill Test/ Typing Test will be conducted in the cities where Regional Offices of the Commission are located or as decided by the Commission.
Skill Test | Speed | Time |
Data Entry Operator | Data Entry Speed of 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressions per hour on Computer. The ‘Speed of 8000 key depressions per hour on computer’ will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words/ key depressions as per the given passage | The duration of the Test will be 15 (Fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2000-2200 key-depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the Computer |
Data Entry Operator in the Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C&AG) | The ‘speed of 15000 key depressions per hour on Computer’ will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words/ key depressions as per the given passage | The duration of the Test will be 15 (Fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 3700-4000 key-depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the Computer |
The State Bank of India (SBI) on Tuesday released the Admit Card for Junior Associate (Clerk) preliminary examination on its official website. The SBI Clerk admit card has been released for the Prelims Exam 2020 to recruit 8000 Customer Support & Sales (clerk) in different offices of SBI across the country.
The SBI had invited applications from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment as Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) in clerical cadre in State Bank of India. The candidates should download their call letter and an “acquaint yourself booklet” by entering their registration & Password:
Click here for download:
https://ibpsonline.ibps.in/sbijassdec19/clopea_feb20/login.php?appid=6c0550ad907fc56519e7e63c4fb7e3c3
SSC CGL Mock Test | NTPC Mock test practice | RBI & SBI Mock Test | Mock test Prelim and Mains Exam Every Saturday & Sunday | Best Mock test Centre in Mumbai | Mock test ssc cgl in mumbai @8080160826
NTPC Mock test mumbai || Practice Mock test for Railway Exams || Offline Practice for railway exams || NTPC Mock test discussion
for Mock test time, test paper discussion, Mock test Price call: 8080160826(IPCI Mumbai)
H
IPCI will provide all type of online test series for all competitive prelim & mains examination on every Sunday. today’s ssc cgl prelims test series is lived and interested students join ipci online platform www.ipci.co.in/onlinemocktest to attend comprehensive test.
Fill Inquiry form for online classes
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
New course for SSC CGL & CHSL, Prudence Coaching Centre Mumbai Rakesh Yadav Sir, Arun Sir Reasoning, Jaideep Sir English grammar, Classes for SSC CGL in Kurla mumbai, SSC CGL inquiry, SSC CGL Class fee, SSC CGL Classes in in dadar west, Institute ssc in bandra,
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) released Tier 3 Admit Card for the Combined Graduate Level CGL Recruitment 2019. Candidates who have registered for the following vacancy can download Tier 3 Admit Card. SSC CGL Tier 3 Admit Card can download the admit card through the online mode. Candidates can check the SSC Tier 3 admit card only through online mode. @ssc.nic.in
SSC CGL Tier 3 Admit Card from the below Provided Table.
| State/UT | Region/ Sub Region | Download Tier 3 Admit Card |
| Rajasthan, Delhi, Uttarakhand | North Region | Available Now |
| Maharashtra, Gujarat, Goa | Western Region | Available NOW |
| Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh | MP Sub-Region | Available NOW |
| West Bengal, Orrisa, Jharkhand, A&N Island, Sikkim | Eastern Region | Available Now |
| Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland, Mizoram | North Eastern Region | Available Now |
| Andhra Pradesh, Puducherry, Tamilnadu | Southern Region | Available Now |
| Karnataka, Kerala | KKR Region | Available Now |
| Haryana, Punjab, J&K, Himachal Pradesh | North Western Region | Available Now |
| Uttar Pradesh & Bihar | Central Region | Available Now |
hello dear students,
today, ipci is published free ibps online mock test series for all students. this mock test is attempt to check yourself progress with actual questions, latest pattern, explanation etc.
Online test link: https://ipci.co.in/onlinemocktest/mod/quiz/view.php?id=44
IBPS Recruitment 2020:
https://ipci.co.in/ibps-po-recruitment-notification-out-2020-for-1167-post/
Dear Students
our upcoming classes is started from 9th January 2020 in new year and batch timing for SSC CGL, CHSL and Railway Examinations at 7 to 12pm to all subjects. time and subjects: 7am to 8am General knowledge, 8 to 9am English, 9 to 10am Reasoning and 10 to 12pm Maths (Arithmetic & Advance) for more details call at dadar centre 8779774040.
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
the Commission has released the exam date of Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Examination (Tier-I), 2019 result. The SSC CGL 2019 Tier 2 will be held between November 2 and 5, 2020. The SSC is likely to release the admit card for the same at least a week before the scheduled time.
The official notice reads, “The above schedule is subject to the prevailing conditions and government guidelines issued from time to time regarding the handling of the COVID-19 pandemic.”

Original link:
https://ssc.nic.in/SSCFileServer/PortalManagement/UploadedFiles/CGL_2019_english_26082020.pdf
Our aim for career counseling is to help students and professionals choose a field that is in tune with their skills and their job expectations.
With professional help candidates find ease at choosing the right career and perform their level best, which ultimately helps them succeed.
Career Counselling helps understand the career options that they have, and how to pursue them.
Career Counselling helps understand their own strengths and weaknesses with regard to their present course or profession, and lets them know what career they would be suited for.
Some signs that indicate that you should get help from a career counsellor today:
You are clueless about your goals in life.
You’ve just completed class 10th and are looking forward to selecting a new stream.
Now that class 12th is over, what options do you have for colleges or work opportunities?
You are now a college graduate but you’re not even close to deciding what to do next?
You’re in a job, maybe even doing well but you’re still unsatisfied.
You know what you want but feel lost with so many options.
You’ve got the talent but lack focus.
Career Counselling for students?
In current times, career counselling is a need as most students pick commonly known domains as their career option.
Career counselling is an effort for students‘ career guidance right from their school about the available career options as per their interest and stream of academics
To provide them understanding and knowledge on the available streams and choices as per their inclination in the subjects and career focus.
• Science is the most popular and favourite career option for the majority of the parents and students.
• Science stream offers many lucrative career options such as engineering, medical, IT and you can even opt for research roles.
• The best advantage of taking science stream is, it keeps your options open. You might switch from science to commerce or science to arts. But it is not possible to do the other way around.
• Taking science stream equips you with excellent problem-solving abilities.
• Science and math offer a flexible foundation which enables students to accomplish highly respected and well-paid jobs.
• Science is fun, amazing and fascinating. As Edward Teller rightly said
“The science of today is the technology of tomorrow.”
If technology fascinates you and you have a flair for numbers, then taking science after 10th would be a wise option.
– You can opt for Physics, Chemistry, Maths (PCM).
– If you want to make a mark for yourself in the medical field, you can opt for Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology (PCM-B).
– Now there are many students who don’t like Maths. Either they are afraid of Maths or Maths doesn’t interest them. Don’t worry, if you want to become a doctor, then knowing Maths is not necessary. You can easily opt for Physics, Chemistry, Biology (PCB).
There are multiple career options available for science stream after 10th class. If you have any doubts regarding what after 10th you can contact us and get your doubts cleared.
It will really help you in choosing the right career stream.
We are there to help and guide you.
• Commerce is the second most popular career option after science.
If you love numbers, finances, economics etc., then finance is the best option for you.
• It offers a wider variety of career options such as Chartered Accountants, MBA, investment in banking sectors etc.
• You acquire commercial knowledge which is very important for the business.
• You have to be familiar with the subjects such as Accountancy, Finance, Economics etc.
• You must be good with numbers, data and have a curiosity in Finance, economics.
• Commerce as a subject is gaining popularity in India and many students are studying and making a living out of it.
If you have an affinity for numbers, business, economics then commerce is the stream for you.
If you want to shape your career in economics and business world, then commerce is the right career for you.
There are a number of options available for commerce stream after 10th class.
If you have any doubts regarding whether to opt for commerce stream you can choose the smartest way by getting your career counselling done from an expert. Proper career guidance after 10th class is extremely necessary for a hassle-free career.
It will really help you in choosing the right career stream.
We are there to help and guide you.
• Nowadays arts/humanities are very high in demand and more and more students are opting for it.
• Arts is now emerging as a sought after career choice. It provides students with an array of career opportunities.
• It offers many lucrative career options such as Journalism, languages, history, psychology etc.
• Design, Language Arts, Performing arts, Humanities are well-paid career options.
• Arts subject encourage creativity and self-expression.
• Students who take up art stream develop critical thinking. It also helps you increase your leadership qualities.
Art teaches you to deal with the world around you.
~ Alan Parker.
If you are a student who is creative and wants to dive deep into humanity, then arts is the stream for you.
There are multiple options available for Arts stream after 10th class. If you have any confusion you can get your career counselling done. A career counsellor will provide you with proper career guidance and guide you in the right direction.
These are the few good career options which you can choose after 10th class.
Listing some Diploma courses and their details –
| Name of the Course | Course Details | Duration of the Course | Career Scope |
| Art Teacher Diploma | The course is basically designed to train the candidates in the fundamental and basic principles of visual and design experience | 2 years | After the successful completion of the course, the Diploma holders in Art Teaching are eligible to become an Arts Teacher |
| Commercial Art Diploma | The course will help the students to understand the concepts of selling goods and services. The course is completely different from fine art. | 2 to 3 years | After the completion of the course, the students will be eligible to secure jobs in Advertising Companies, Art Studios, Publishing Houses and Fashion Houses. Students can also join Bachelor of Fine Arts (BFA) course through Lateral Entry mode. |
| Diploma in Stenography | In this course, the students will be equipped in taking short-hand dictations and perform clerical duties. | 1 year | These students will have more scope to get a job as Stenographer in the government sector and the private sector. |
| Diploma in 3D Animation | The course will enable the candidate to obtain all the necessary skills related to 3D Animation. | 18 months to 2 years (varies from institute to institute) | These students can get employment as 3D Animator or Animator in Animation Companies. The scope of employment for high-skilled candidates is more. |
| Diploma in Beauty Care | It is one of the most preferred courses among girls. Through this course, the participants will be trained in beautician skills. | 4 months | After the successful completion of course, the students can start their own beauty parlour. |
| Diploma in Cosmetology | The course will help the participants to have an in-depth understanding of wide range of cosmetics. | 5 months | After the successful completion of course, the students can become a beautician or can start their own beauty parlour. They can also secure employment as Salesman in companies that manufacture cosmetics. |
| Diploma in Cyber Security | One of the contemporary courses that will enable the students to acquire skills related to ethical hacking. | 1 year | After the successful completion of course, the students will have chances to secure job as an Ethical Hacker in government agencies or private organizations. |
| Diploma in Agriculture and Farm Management(Animal Husbandry) | The course enables the students to understand various techniques of farming, types of soils etc. | 2 years | Students can join B.Tech in Agriculture Engineering through lateral entry mode after the successful completion of Diploma. |
| Diploma in Hotel Management and Catering Technology | The course will help the participants to meet the industry needs for competent hospitality trade. | 2 years | With this diploma, students are eligible to take up various jobs like Catering Officer, Catering Supervisors & Assistants, Cabin Crew, Hospitality Executive etc. |
| Diploma in Commercial Practice | The course deals with the promotion, sale or supply of service or product to a consumer. The students will be trained in necessary skills associated to it. | 3 years | This diploma will help students to secure a job as Commercial Account Manager, Commercial Executive, Business Junior Head, Branch Commercial Assistant Manager etc. |
| Diploma in Dental Mechanics | It is a Dentistry course that trains the students in designing dental structures and makes them more knowledgeable about dental health. | 2 years | After the course, students will be eligible to become a: Dentist Assistant Dental Surgeon Dental Technician Research Assistant |
| Diploma in Plastics Technology | The course trains the students in selecting the right type of material to make a plastic product. Students will be also trained in handling machinery for making plastic products. | 3 years | Students can either go for further studies in Plastic Technology (B.Tech) or secure employment as: Plastic Part Mould Design EngineerProject EngineerIndustrial EngineerProduct Design Engineer |
| Diploma in Ceramic Technology | It is one of the emerging disciplines that train the students in properties, manufacture, design and applications of ceramic materials. | 3 years | Students can either join B.Tech in Ceramic Technology in the lateral entry or secure employment as a Ceramic Engineer. |
| Diploma in Engineering | Colleges offer Diploma in Engineering (Polytechnic courses) in various branches of engineering. | 3 years | B.Tech Lateral Entry mode or jobs in the specified field. |
| Diploma in Fire Safety Engineering | The course trains the students in precautions that must be taken during a fire accident. | 6 months | Fire Safety Officer |
| Diploma in Fashion Technology | The course offers practical knowledge of fashion technology and design. | 3 years | Fashion Designer Costume Designer Textile Designer Bridal wear Designer Stylist |
Click here: https://ssc.digialm.com/EForms/configuredHtml/2207/64629/login.html
Industrial Training Institute (ITI)
The main objective of these institutes is to develop a skilled workforce in the country. There are many ITIs across India both in public and private sectors providing professional training to students. Students are provided with the National Trade Certificate(NTC) after successful completion of the courses provided by ITIs.
Some of the courses are as follows.
Tool and Die Maker Engineering
Diesel Mechanic Engineering
Fitter Engineering
Turner engineering
Information Technology & E.S.M. Engineering
Machinist Engineering
Draughtsman (Mechanical) Engineering
Pump Operator
Motor Driving-cum-Mechanic Engineering
Dress making
Secretarial Practice
Fruit and Vegetable Processing
After completing 12th with science stream, there are a variety of options available for an undergraduate course. Students who have an interest in technical learning, they can choose engineering courses and the rest can choose from the courses listed below.
Science is one of the popular streams offering a wide range of technical courses. Here is the list of UG engineering courses for students who have completed their secondary education in science stream.
* You can also check the List of B. tech. Lateral Courses for diploma holders
‘What after 12th?’ is the common question among the generation of students studying in 12th every year the questions hit lakhs of students.
The confusion prevails among them concerning career prospects, job opportunities and yes, their passion, their preference.
Counselors say that the lack of proper information about the courses available in India and their career prospects, is somewhere responsible.
Science, Commerce and Arts are the options available in which students can find a suitable course to pursue after 12th.
Choosing a course shall never be a convenient option rather it should be a highly motivating choice for the students.
Interests, motivation, and goals are prime factors students must consider while choosing a course from the range of courses available in India to pursue after 12th.
Students can choose a course from top domains including –
In India if one knows Shorthand at 80/100wpm, then one can apply for Stenographer in many Government Departments, viz.,
SSC Exam Calendar 2021 New Released: SSC has released new dates for SSC CGL, SSC CHSL, SSC JE, SSC MTS, SCC CPO, SSC JHT, SSC Stenographer Grade C& D, SSC Constable GD & Executive Exams for the year 2021. Staff Selection Commission (SSC) released the new examination calendar for the year 2021 at its official website – ssc.nic.in and has added new exam dates.
The examination calendar carries forth the important dates of all the important exams to be conducted by the commission in the year 2021. This is one of the easiest and convenient way that will help the SSC aspirants to check the dates and prepare as per the exam schedule. Date of Advertisement, Opening & Closing Date of Application and Date of Examination is included in the calendar with different columns along with the name of the examination maintained in a row
| Exam Name | Application Start – Closing Date | Date of Exam |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 (Tier-I)Click here for more info | 22nd October 2019 to 22nd November 2019 | 3rd to 9th March 2020 (CBE) |
| Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination-2019 (Tier-I) | 3rd December 2019 to 10th January 2020 | 17 to 19 March 2020 Conducted12th to 16th October 202019th to 21st October 202026th October 2020 |
| Junior Engineer (Civil, Electrical & Mechanical) Examination – 2019 (Paper-I) | 13th August 2019 to 12th September 2019 | 27th to 30th October 2020 |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 (Tier-II) | – | 2nd to 5th November 2020 |
| Examination for Selection Posts Phase-VIII/ 2020Click here for more info | 21st February to 20th March 2020 | 6th, 9th and 10th November 2020 |
| Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’ Examination – 2019Click here for more info | 20th September 2019 to 18th October 2019 | 16th Nov to 18th Nov 2020 |
| Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination-2020 (Paper-I) | 29th June 2020 to 25th July 2020 | 19th November 2020 |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 (Tier-III) | – | 22nd November 2020 |
| Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and CAPFs Examination-2020 (Paper-I) | 17th June to 16th July 2020 | 23rd Nov to 26th Nov 2020 |
| Constable (Executive) in Delhi Police Examination, 2020 | 1st August 2020 to 7th September 2020 | 27th Nov, 30th Nov, 1st Dec to 3rd Dec, 7th Dec to 11th Dec and 14th December 2020 |
| Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical and Quantity Surveying and Contract) Examination-2019 (Paper-II)Click here for more info | – | 31st January 2021 |
| Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination-2019 (Tier-II) | – | 14th Feb 2021 (Des) |
| Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination-2020 (Paper-II) | – | 14th Feb 2021 (Des) |
| Junior Engineer (Civil, Electrical & Mechanical) Examination – 2020 (Paper-I) | 1st Oct to 30th Oct 2020 | 22nd to 25th March 2021 |
| SI in Delhi Police, CAPFs and ASI in CISF Examination -2019 (Paper-II) | – | 26th March 2021 |
| Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’ Examination-2020 | 10th Oct to 4th Nov 2020 | 29th to 31st March 2021 |
| Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination-2020 (Tier-I) | 6th Nov to 15th Dec 2020 | 12th Apr to 27th Apr 2021 |
| Combined Graduate Level Examination-2020 (Tier-I) | 21st Dec 2020 to 25th Jan 2021 | 29th May to 7th June 2021 |
| Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and CAPFs Examination-2020 (Paper-II) | – | 12th July 2021 |
| Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Examination-2020 (Paper-I) | 2nd Feb to 18th March 2021 | 1st to 20th July 2021 |
| Constable (GD) in CAPFs, NIA, SSF and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles Examination, 2020 | 25th Mar to 10th May 2021 | 2nd to 25th Aug 2021 |
Note: CBE Stands for Computer Based Exam
The above schedule is subject to the prevailing conditions and Government guidelines issued from time to time regarding handling of the Covid-19 pandemic. We have compiled the important information and notifications related to all the SSC Exam mentioned above in Exam Calendar. Let’s have a look at all the Exam information in brief:
A system of fast writing that uses lines and simple signs to represent words and phrases.
Like Gregg shorthand, Pitman shorthand is phonemic: with the exception of abbreviated shapes called logograms, the forms represent the sounds of the English word, rather than its spelling or meaning. Unlike Gregg it is also partly featural, in that pairs of consonsant phonemes distinguished only by voice are notated with strokes differing only in thickness. There are twenty-four consonants that can be represented in Pitman’s shorthand, twelve vowels and four diphthongs. The consonants are indicated by strokes, the vowels by interposed dots.

Common words are represented by special outlines called logograms (or “Short Forms” in Pitman’s New Era). Words and phrases which have such forms are called grammalogues. Hundreds exist and only a tiny number are shown above. The shapes are written separately to show that they represent distinct words, but in common phrases (“you are”, “thank you”, etc.) two or three logograms may be joined together, or a final flick added to represent the.

The consonants in Pitman’s shorthand are pronounced bee, pee, dee, tee, jay, chay, gay, kay, vee, eff, thee, ith, zee, ess, zhee, ish, em, el, en, ray ar, ing, way, yay, and hay. When both an unvoiced consonant and its corresponding voiced consonant are present in this system, the distinction is made by drawing the stroke for the voiced consonant thicker than the one for the unvoiced consonant. (Thus s is ⟨)⟩ and z is ⟨)⟩.) There are two strokes for r: ar and ray. The former assumes the form of the top right-hand quarter of a circle (drawn top-down), whereas the latter is like chay ⟨/⟩, only less steep (drawn bottom to top). There are rules governing when to use each of these forms.
The long vowels in Pitman’s shorthand are: /ɑː/, /eɪ/, /iː/, /ɔː/, /oʊ/, and /uː/. The short vowels are /æ/, /ɛ/, /ɪ/, /ɒ/, /ʌ/, and /ʊ/. The long vowels may be remembered by the sentence, “Pa, may we all go too?”, and the short vowels may be remembered by the sentence, “That pen is not much good”
A vowel is represented by a dot or a dash, which can be written either lightly or heavily depending on the vowel needed. As this gives only four symbols, they can be written in three different positions – either at the beginning, middle or end of a consonant stroke – to represent the 12 vowels.
The dots and dashes representing long vowels are darker than the ones representing short vowels. For example, say is written as “)•”, but seh (if it did exist) would be written as “)·”; see is written as “).,
{\displaystyle ie\;\;\;^{\lor }\qquad oi\;\;\;^{\mathfrak {7}}\qquad ow\;\;\;_{\land }\qquad ew\;\;\;_{\cap }}There are four diphthongs in Pitman’s shorthand /aɪ/, /ɔɪ/, /aʊ/, /juː/, as in the words “I enjoy Gow’s music.” The first three appear as small checkmarks; the “ew” sound is written as a small arch. Both “ie” and “oi” are written in first position, while “ow” and “ew” are written in third position. In the same way, the whole outline is placed above, on or through the paper’s ruled line. If the diphthong is followed by a neutral vowel, a little flick is added.
Offline/Online Lecture start from 2 Nov. for SSC CGL, Steno. IBPS, RRB NTPC
for more details fill enquiry form:
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
Shorthand is an abbreviated symbolic writing method that increases speed and brevity of writing as compared to longhand, a more common method of writing a language.
Course Duration: 4 Months Foundation
Batch Time: 7pm to 8pm
FEE and Admission Procedure Call: 8080160826
New batch for stenography and shorthand typing
Directions:(Q.1 to 5) study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1) If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
1) यदि सभी प्रतीकों को व्यवस्था से हटा दिया गया है, तो दी गई व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से ग्यारहवीं तत्व क्या होगा?
a) 9
b) G
c) D
d) 5
e) P
2) How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
2) दी गई व्यवस्था में ऐसे कितने प्रतीकों हैं जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक वर्णमाला द्वारा पीछा किया जाता है और तुरंत एक संख्या से पहले।
a) More than three
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
e) One
3) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
3) निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था चौदहवें के बाईं तरफ से दी गई छोर के छठे स्थान है
a) P
b) *
c) β
d) Z
e) 4
4) What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
4) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था के आधार पर निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या होना चाहिए?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
a) Ω 2 β
b) 6 % +
c) 6 % K
d) Ω X Z
e) & 8 +
5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
5) निम्न पांच में से चार उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में अपनी स्थिति के आधार पर एक निश्चित तरीके से समान हैं और इसलिए एक समूह बनाते हैं। वह कौन है जो उस समूह से संबंधित नहीं है?
a) T Ω 3
b) @ % 7
c) G 9 D
d) β 3 U
e) $ 9 Q
Directions (Q.6-10) : Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे स्वर हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को व्यंजन द्वारा तुरंत आगे किया जाता है और स्वर के बाद तुरंत।
a) None
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
e) Two
7) How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
7) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में वर्णित वर्णमालाओं की श्रृंखला में कितने ऐसे जोड़ी हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच उनके दोनों अक्षर (आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
8) On the basis of above series of alphabets DECK is written as BABE and BARS is written as CHSR, then how will JUMP be written?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
8) उपरोक्त श्रृंखलाओं के आधार पर DECK को BABE के रूप में लिखा गया है और BARS को CHSR के रूप में लिखा गया है, फिर JUMP कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
a) LIFJ
b) PRTV
c) LRFV
d) PITJ
e) None of these
9) On the basis of above series of alphabets if PJ is related to GI, EA is related to DO, then NF is related to:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
9) वर्णमालाओं की उपरोक्त श्रृंखला के आधार पर यदि PJ से GI संबंधित है, EA से DO संबंधित है, तो NF संबंधित है
a) JL
b) OL
c) TL
d) TO
e) None of these
10) Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the ninth from the left end of the above arrangement?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
10) उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से नौवें के बाईं ओर चौथे स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा है?
a) V
b) I
c) U
d) M
e) None of these
Directions (Q.11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) Which of the following is ninth to the left of twenty-one from the left end of the above arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से इक्कीस बायीं तरफ नौवां है?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
e) None of these
12) How many such 5’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by an odd digit and immediately preceded by an even digit ?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
12) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 5 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद विषम संख्या होता है और तुरंत पहले सम संख्या ।
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
13) How many such 1’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
13) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 1 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक पूर्ण वर्ग है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
14) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value more than four?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
14) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत अंक से पहले किया जाता है जिसमें चार से अधिक संख्यात्मक मान होते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
15) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement which of the following will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
15) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी संख्या सम को भी हटा दिया गया है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से दसवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 7
e) 9
16) Which of the following will come in place of the question mark?
16) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा होगा
ZX YV WS ? PJ
a) TO
b) TN
c) UO
d) SO
e) TP
17) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ABKC using each letter only once in each word? (All the four letters are to be used in the word)
17) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द एबीकेसी पत्रों के साथ प्रत्येक अक्षर में प्रत्येक बार एक बार केवल एक शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं? (सभी चार अक्षर शब्द में उपयोग किए जाने हैं।)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
18) Which of the following will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
18) निम्न में से कौन सी प्रश्न अंग्रेजी में वर्णानुक्रमिक क्रम के आधार पर निम्नलिखित अंक में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आएगा?
ZX US QO ? HF CA
a) LJ
b) MK
c) NL
d) KI
e) KJ
19) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘OLBT’ using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?
19) सभी अक्षरों का इस्तेमाल करते हुए ‘OLBT’ पत्रों के साथ कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं, लेकिन प्रत्येक शब्द में प्रत्येक अक्षर में केवल एक बार?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
20) If each vowel in the word BROUGHT is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be the fourth from the left?
20) अगर शब्द BROUGHT में प्रत्येक स्वर अंग्रेजी की वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है और प्रत्येक व्यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर से प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है, और उसके बाद वर्णित वर्णमाला वर्णानुक्रम में बाएं से दायां किए गए हैं , निम्न में से कौन बाएं से चौथा होगा?
a) V
b) P
c) G
d) Q
e) S
21) If each alternate letter in the word ‘MENTION’ starting with M is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letter is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?
21) यदि ‘MENTION’ शब्द में प्रत्येक वैकल्पिक अक्षर अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और बाकी प्रत्येक अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है तो कितने अक्षर अधिक दिखाई देंगे नई व्यवस्था में एक बार से?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) Four
22) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LABOUR’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
22) ‘LABOUR’ में कितने जोड़े पत्र हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच शब्द (उनके आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) के रूप में कई अक्षर हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
23) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘EWF’ using all the letters only once in each word?
23) प्रत्येक शब्द में केवल एक बार पत्रों का प्रयोग करके ‘EWF’ पत्रों की मदद से कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
24) What should come next in the letter series given below?
24) नीचे दिए गए पत्र श्रृंखला में क्या होना चाहिए?
Z Z Y Z Y X Z Y X W Z Y X W V Z Y X W V U Z Y X W V U T Z Y X W V U T
a) U
b) Z
c) R
d) T
e) None of these
25) Which of the following will come in place of question mark?
25) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा होगा?
AC DG HL ? SY
a) QU
b) MR
c) NS
d) NU
e) MS
26) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word?
26) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द ‘RCA’ से प्रत्येक अक्षर में एक बार शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Directions (Q.27 to 30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
27) How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of less than two?
27) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने 2 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक अंक से पहले दिया जाता है जिसमें दो से कम का एक संख्यात्मक मान होता है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
28) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square).
28) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक पूर्ण वर्ग का पीछा किया जाता है? (1 भी एक वर्ग है)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
29) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the right end of the arrangement?
29) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी अंक नष्ट किए जाते हैं, तो निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के सही अंत से आठवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 9
e) 7
30) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the eighteenth digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
30) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से अठारहवीं अंक के बाईं ओर छठे है?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 2
d) 6
e) None of these
Q1. (a) According to question, the new sequence would be:
2 X T 3 Z U 4 O P 9 Q G D 5 W J 6 8 K 7.
9 is 11th from the right.
Q2. (c) Such combination are 3*Z; 9$Q and 5#W
Q3. (c) 6th to the left 14th from the left means (14-6=) 8th from the left, ie,
Q4. (b)
Q5. (e)
Q6. (e) Such combinations are RUI : KEA
Q7. (d) Q S R U I V (4)
Q8. (a)
D E C K B A R S
+1 +1 -1 +1 +1 +1 -1 +1
B A B C C H S R
Similarly,
J U M P
+1 +1 -1 +1
L I F J
Q9. (c)
P +3 G
J -3 I
E +3 D
A -3 O
Therefore,
N +3 T
F -3 L
Q10. (b) 4th to the left of ninth from the left means 5th from the left, ie I.
Q11. (c) Ninth to the left of twentyfirst from the left end = (21-9=) 12th from the left end = 6
Q12. (d) 158, 152, 156
Q13.(b) 14
Q14.(c) 84, 74
Q15. (a) New arrangement 1 5 1 5 3 5 7 9 5 1 1 5 7 Hence, 10th from the right end is 5
Q16. The first set of letters follows -1, -2, -3, -4 and the second ones -2, -3, -4, -5
Q.17 (b) BACK
Q.18 (a) The series is going in reverse alphabetical order. In every pair there is a gap of one letter. Their after following rule follows between the consecutive pairs of letters:
Z -5 U -5 Q -5 L -4 H -5 C
X -5 S -4 0 -5 J -5 -4 F -5 A
Q.19 (a) BOLT
Q.20 (b) B R O U G H T
A Q P V F G S
Alphabetically – A F G P Q S V
Fourth from the left is P
Q.21 (c) M E N T I O N
N D O S J N O
N and O appear more than once in the new arrangement
Q.22 (c) L A B O U R
LO and AB are such pairs
Q.23 (b).’FEW’ is the only word possible
Q.24 (e) Z, ZY, ZYX, ZYXW, ZYXWV, ZYXWVU, ZYXWVUT, ZYXWVUTIS
Q.25 (b) First letters follow +3, +4, +5, +6. Second letters follow +4, +5, +6, +7
Q.26 (c) CAR and ARC
Q.27 (b) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.28 (c) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.29 (c) 1 5 7 5 1 3 9 5 9 1 5 3 7 3 1 5 9
Q.30 (a) 6th to the left of 18th from left = (18-6=) 12th from left = 9
Directions:(Q.1 to 5) study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1) If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
1) यदि सभी प्रतीकों को व्यवस्था से हटा दिया गया है, तो दी गई व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से ग्यारहवीं तत्व क्या होगा?
a) 9
b) G
c) D
d) 5
e) P
2) How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
2) दी गई व्यवस्था में ऐसे कितने प्रतीकों हैं जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक वर्णमाला द्वारा पीछा किया जाता है और तुरंत एक संख्या से पहले।
a) More than three
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
e) One
3) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
3) निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था चौदहवें के बाईं तरफ से दी गई छोर के छठे स्थान है
a) P
b) *
c) β
d) Z
e) 4
4) What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
4) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था के आधार पर निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या होना चाहिए?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
Ω X T 3 Z U 4 P Q G 5 J ?
a) Ω 2 β
b) 6 % +
c) 6 % K
d) Ω X Z
e) & 8 +
5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Ω 2 X T 3 * Z β U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W ε J 6 & % 8 K @ 7 +
5) निम्न पांच में से चार उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में अपनी स्थिति के आधार पर एक निश्चित तरीके से समान हैं और इसलिए एक समूह बनाते हैं। वह कौन है जो उस समूह से संबंधित नहीं है?
a) T Ω 3
b) @ % 7
c) G 9 D
d) β 3 U
e) $ 9 Q
Directions (Q.6-10) : Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
6) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे स्वर हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को व्यंजन द्वारा तुरंत आगे किया जाता है और स्वर के बाद तुरंत।
a) None
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
e) Two
7) How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
7) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में वर्णित वर्णमालाओं की श्रृंखला में कितने ऐसे जोड़ी हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच उनके दोनों अक्षर (आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
8) On the basis of above series of alphabets DECK is written as BABE and BARS is written as CHSR, then how will JUMP be written?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
8) उपरोक्त श्रृंखलाओं के आधार पर DECK को BABE के रूप में लिखा गया है और BARS को CHSR के रूप में लिखा गया है, फिर JUMP कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
a) LIFJ
b) PRTV
c) LRFV
d) PITJ
e) None of these
9) On the basis of above series of alphabets if PJ is related to GI, EA is related to DO, then NF is related to:
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
9) वर्णमालाओं की उपरोक्त श्रृंखला के आधार पर यदि PJ से GI संबंधित है, EA से DO संबंधित है, तो NF संबंधित है
a) JL
b) OL
c) TL
d) TO
e) None of these
10) Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the ninth from the left end of the above arrangement?
Q S R U I V P J L G N F M T O K E A H D B C
10) उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से नौवें के बाईं ओर चौथे स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा है?
a) V
b) I
c) U
d) M
e) None of these
Directions (Q.11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) Which of the following is ninth to the left of twenty-one from the left end of the above arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
11) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से इक्कीस बायीं तरफ नौवां है?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
e) None of these
12) How many such 5’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by an odd digit and immediately preceded by an even digit ?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
12) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 5 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद विषम संख्या होता है और तुरंत पहले सम संख्या ।
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
13) How many such 1’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
13) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 1 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के तुरंत बाद एक पूर्ण वर्ग है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
14) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value more than four?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
14) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत अंक से पहले किया जाता है जिसमें चार से अधिक संख्यात्मक मान होते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
15) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement which of the following will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1 5 8 4 2 1 5 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5 1 4 1 5 6 8 7 4
15) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी संख्या सम को भी हटा दिया गया है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के दाहिने छोर से दसवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 7
e) 9
16) Which of the following will come in place of the question mark?
16) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा होगा
ZX YV WS ? PJ
a) TO
b) TN
c) UO
d) SO
e) TP
17) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ABKC using each letter only once in each word? (All the four letters are to be used in the word)
17) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द एबीकेसी पत्रों के साथ प्रत्येक अक्षर में प्रत्येक बार एक बार केवल एक शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं? (सभी चार अक्षर शब्द में उपयोग किए जाने हैं।)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
18) Which of the following will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
18) निम्न में से कौन सी प्रश्न अंग्रेजी में वर्णानुक्रमिक क्रम के आधार पर निम्नलिखित अंक में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आएगा?
ZX US QO ? HF CA
a) LJ
b) MK
c) NL
d) KI
e) KJ
19) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘OLBT’ using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?
19) सभी अक्षरों का इस्तेमाल करते हुए ‘OLBT’ पत्रों के साथ कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं, लेकिन प्रत्येक शब्द में प्रत्येक अक्षर में केवल एक बार?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
20) If each vowel in the word BROUGHT is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be the fourth from the left?
20) अगर शब्द BROUGHT में प्रत्येक स्वर अंग्रेजी की वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है और प्रत्येक व्यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर से प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है, और उसके बाद वर्णित वर्णमाला वर्णानुक्रम में बाएं से दायां किए गए हैं , निम्न में से कौन बाएं से चौथा होगा?
a) V
b) P
c) G
d) Q
e) S
21) If each alternate letter in the word ‘MENTION’ starting with M is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letter is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?
21) यदि ‘MENTION’ शब्द में प्रत्येक वैकल्पिक अक्षर अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में अगले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और बाकी प्रत्येक अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में पिछले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है तो कितने अक्षर अधिक दिखाई देंगे नई व्यवस्था में एक बार से?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) Four
22) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LABOUR’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
22) ‘LABOUR’ में कितने जोड़े पत्र हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के बीच शब्द (उनके आगे और पीछे की ओर दोनों दिशाओं में) के रूप में कई अक्षर हैं, जैसा कि उनके बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
23) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘EWF’ using all the letters only once in each word?
23) प्रत्येक शब्द में केवल एक बार पत्रों का प्रयोग करके ‘EWF’ पत्रों की मदद से कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बन सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
24) What should come next in the letter series given below?
24) नीचे दिए गए पत्र श्रृंखला में क्या होना चाहिए?
Z Z Y Z Y X Z Y X W Z Y X W V Z Y X W V U Z Y X W V U T Z Y X W V U T
a) U
b) Z
c) R
d) T
e) None of these
25) Which of the following will come in place of question mark?
25) प्रश्न चिह्न के स्थान पर निम्न में से कौन सा होगा?
AC DG HL ? SY
a) QU
b) MR
c) NS
d) NU
e) MS
26) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word?
26) कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द ‘RCA’ से प्रत्येक अक्षर में एक बार शब्द का उपयोग कर सकते हैं?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Directions (Q.27 to 30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
27) How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of less than two?
27) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने 2 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक अंक से पहले दिया जाता है जिसमें दो से कम का एक संख्यात्मक मान होता है?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
28) How many such 4’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square).
28) उपरोक्त व्यवस्था में कितने ऐसे 4 हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक को तुरंत एक पूर्ण वर्ग का पीछा किया जाता है? (1 भी एक वर्ग है)
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
29) If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the right end of the arrangement?
29) यदि उपरोक्त व्यवस्था से सभी अंक नष्ट किए जाते हैं, तो निम्न में से कौन सा व्यवस्था के सही अंत से आठवां होगा?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 1
d) 9
e) 7
30) Which of the following is sixth to the left of the eighteenth digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
30) निम्न में से कौन सा उपर्युक्त व्यवस्था के बायीं छोर से अठारहवीं अंक के बाईं ओर छठे है?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 2
d) 6
e) None of these
Q1. (a) According to question, the new sequence would be:
2 X T 3 Z U 4 O P 9 Q G D 5 W J 6 8 K 7.
9 is 11th from the right.
Q2. (c) Such combination are 3*Z; 9$Q and 5#W
Q3. (c) 6th to the left 14th from the left means (14-6=) 8th from the left, ie,
Q4. (b)
Q5. (e)
Q6. (e) Such combinations are RUI : KEA
Q7. (d) Q S R U I V (4)
Q8. (a)
D E C K B A R S
+1 +1 -1 +1 +1 +1 -1 +1
B A B C C H S R
Similarly,
J U M P
+1 +1 -1 +1
L I F J
Q9. (c)
P +3 G
J -3 I
E +3 D
A -3 O
Therefore,
N +3 T
F -3 L
Q10. (b) 4th to the left of ninth from the left means 5th from the left, ie I.
Q11. (c) Ninth to the left of twentyfirst from the left end = (21-9=) 12th from the left end = 6
Q12. (d) 158, 152, 156
Q13.(b) 14
Q14.(c) 84, 74
Q15. (a) New arrangement 1 5 1 5 3 5 7 9 5 1 1 5 7 Hence, 10th from the right end is 5
Q16. The first set of letters follows -1, -2, -3, -4 and the second ones -2, -3, -4, -5
Q.17 (b) BACK
Q.18 (a) The series is going in reverse alphabetical order. In every pair there is a gap of one letter. Their after following rule follows between the consecutive pairs of letters:
Z -5 U -5 Q -5 L -4 H -5 C
X -5 S -4 0 -5 J -5 -4 F -5 A
Q.19 (a) BOLT
Q.20 (b) B R O U G H T
A Q P V F G S
Alphabetically – A F G P Q S V
Fourth from the left is P
Q.21 (c) M E N T I O N
N D O S J N O
N and O appear more than once in the new arrangement
Q.22 (c) L A B O U R
LO and AB are such pairs
Q.23 (b).’FEW’ is the only word possible
Q.24 (e) Z, ZY, ZYX, ZYXW, ZYXWV, ZYXWVU, ZYXWVUT, ZYXWVUTIS
Q.25 (b) First letters follow +3, +4, +5, +6. Second letters follow +4, +5, +6, +7
Q.26 (c) CAR and ARC
Q.27 (b) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.28 (c) 4 1 6 5 8 4 7 5 1 3 2 9 2 5 2 9 1 2 5 3 6 8 2 8 7 3 1 6 2 4 5 4 9
Q.29 (c) 1 5 7 5 1 3 9 5 9 1 5 3 7 3 1 5 9
Q.30 (a) 6th to the left of 18th from left = (18-6=) 12th from left = 9
New Batch Start from May 1st Week.
New Stenographer/Shorthand Online & Offline Batch Start From 19 April-21, Batch Time 5:30 to 6:30pm. In The particular batch start from foundation level to advance level. shorthand/steno. faculty by Omkar Dhage is the best level tutor for stenography. for more information call: 8080160826.
| Commencement of Call letter Download | 22 – 07 – 2021 |
| Closure of Call letter Download | 14 – 08 – 2021 |
IBPS RRB Office Assistant Call letter download
Why we need to polish upon speaking in English?
Is it really important to know how to speak in English – to understand English – to communicate in English..?
Yes my dear friends and students – along with your skills and technical ability it is important for one to know English. It is also considered as – Fluency in speaking English is directly proportional in increased salaries.
Expressing and articulating in English attracts better opportunities and job openings.
Thousands of graduates are forced to work on frontline sales, customer services, call centers, and even as delivery professionals. they understand the fact that they can earn well and this too because of believing that fluency in speaking English can achieve a professional upgrade. so if you are one of them do enroll to polish your skills.
https://youtu.be/swoR3ciDY5A
Friends, Students and Parents,
Very warm welcome to all – In the situation of Covid 19, We have some time which we can successfully give for building our own self and on the same lines we are announcing the next batch of ENGLISH SPEAKING on 1st August 2021
We majorly focus on the basic methods to understanding, listening and speaking ENGLISH.
Focus is given and provided on easy tricks to speak with immediate thinking and speaking correctly.
Along with the same we look on Individual confidence building, communication and presentation skills.
Guidance is provided on Day to day phrases and occasions – also interview preparation.
The course validity is available through app – EXAM INSIGHT application for an year
On live lectures will run on alternate days.
https://youtu.be/PJc85SDhW30
English Speaking Batch starting on 1st August 2021 at 8pm on Exam Insight Application – Install from Playstore
STENOGRAPHY IS ALL ABOUT CONSISTEBCY
Consistency is the key to success . Consistency leads to habits .Habits form the action we take every day . Action leads to success . If you want to achieve success in anything you must be consistence about it .
Stenography also require consistency . Stick to it for 2 years with consistency hard work in the right direction and you will be through.
Now – what to do
• Do typing daily
• Transcribe daily- study daily – divide time as per the need.
• It should be full preparation for any exam which comes on your way.
• Apply in all vacancies even clerk or stenographer
• Appear with full preparation or if not prepared test yourself
• Keep yourself busy and occupied in the process
• Read newspaper or gk magazines
• Listen to the news daily
• Lay down your own daily target and achieve those
• At the end of the day analyse or audit yourself whether you have utilised your time effectively .
• If you are able to manage your day ,you can manage your life . Nobody can stop you from going ahead –only you can
Topics Covered with details are mentioned below:
-Grammar Part -Vocabulary Part -Communication Skill -Presentation Skill -Body Language -Interview Preparations -Group Discussions -Personality Development -Concluding/Greeting ways -Daily conversations -English Phrases -English translations For registration Download the EXAM INSIGHT APP from play store:
Live English Speaking Course by Rujuta Kambli
Overview of the course All modules in the self development session. Interview - Job related/Corporate/Govt positions Other Benefits and details. The main Objective for scession: How to mentally prepare for Insterview.
A Transcription of a conversation or speech is a written text of it , based on a recording or notes . In this stage , first you have to transcribe the dictated notes and then type the transcription on a Computer .
– In stenography, transcription is the life –line for speed writers. Transcription is an important as the blood in our veins. Our body minus the blood is just a bundle of flesh.
– Transcription is the daily progress report about how one fares in a shorthand class of a particular range of speed and what is his worth for the competitive test.
– Transcription must be done daily . After taking dictation of the transcription , it must be first read thoroughly well after the class . Typing must be extremely neat .
– The student should develop a speechless love for his transcription because it is his/her art/skill ,it is his/her bread giver . The transcription produced by him/her should be like the rose among flowers whose fragrance should attract the employer .You should vow that “I shall do my transcription daily as I take my food daily .
– And I shall be second to none in the art/skill of producing fool –proof transcription “.
– The mistake should be properly marked with red ball pen.
But acquire so much accuracy in your transcription the percentage of mistake is never more then 0.5%
1) Treat it as test and not a formality
• Every transcription that we do daily shows us the status (mirror) about the progress of our
stenography .
• It needs to be treated as a test and needs to be taken seriously .
• We should write the dictation on a proper shorthand not-book with a sharp pencil or a pen
.
2) Read the dictation before you start typing
• Make it a point that every dictation needs to be read before you start typing .
• The reason is when we read it before typing, we understand he context and since the words are
fresh in our memory , we are able to apply our mind on difficult and substituted words.
• When we transcribe and type , t became smooth/fast we don’t have to go back again and again .
3) Try to understand the meaning
• The transcription should preferably be typed in double space and a print taken on a paper.
• Make a habit of understanding the meaning of the sentence /matter before you type.
• This will facilitate in prompt typing and also will have very less chance of missing the line/s .
• Also be careful about the punctuation .4) Mark the mistake honesty
• It is advisable to check and mark each mistake honestly without any concession, preferable with a red pen so that the same is clearly visible.
5) Take the mistake in the right spirit
• We learn a lot from daily transcription .
• It helps in continuous improvement in our output .
• Let’s not get discourage and not leave the transcription of a passage which is tough , as the
tough passage gives us an opportunity to learn more new words .
6) Adequate practice of words and phrases
• It is suggested to keep a physical record of all the transcription for future reference and monitor the progress .
• After we understand each and every mistake ,we need to do adequate practice of new words and phrases in the transcription .
• It is also suggested tore-write the same passage of transcription minimum 3-4 times or till we are sure of writing it perfectly
IPCI going to start complete online zoom live batch for ssc cgl, Banking, NTPC and other competitive exams aspirants. Batch time are completely flexible for both students for those are working and normal students. Faculties details, Batch Time, fee and other details on website and telegram group.
New batch SSC CGL || Banking Exams || CHSL || MTS || Live Classes for CDS || Institute for competitive exams ||SBI Live Prepration
Court reporters – also referred to as short hand reporters – are responsible for keeping written records of legal proceedings, whether in government, court, or private settings. The verbatim documentation in criminal, civil and other court proceedings requires professionals who are highly skilled and trained in court reporting, which usually involves stenography.
Court reporters may also find a wealth of professional opportunities in the fields of closed and real time captioning services, webcasting, and Communications Access Realtime Reporting (CART) reporting, all of which require expert stenographic skills. Voice writing, which involves speaking into a computer that then translates the words into written transcripts, is also another important field within court reporting.
IPCI going to start complete online zoom live batch for ssc cgl, Banking, NTPC and other competitive exams aspirants. Batch time are completely flexible for both students for those are working and normal students. Faculties details, Batch Time, fee and other details on website and telegram group within a few day.
New batch SSC CGL || Banking Exams || CHSL || MTS || Live Classes for CDS || Institute for competitive exams ||
SSC CGL CHSL MTS NTPC SBI IBPS and other Competitive Examinations.
Lecture mood Live online and Offline Class room. Top faculties and updated study material. For more visit our dadar Centre.
SSC CGL | CET Exam | IBPS | Banking | NTPC | Live Lecture | Classes in Dadar for Competitive Exams
NRA CET 2021-2022 Common Eligibility Test by NRA – SSC, IBPS & RRB Vacancy CET Exam 2021 Syllabus, Pattern & Notification
Common Eligibility Test is a national-level combined competitive exam which will be conducted by a newly set up multi-agency body National Recruitment Agency to shortlist candidates at the primary (Tier-I) level for Non-Gazetted, non-technical Group ‘B’, Group ‘C’ posts of the central government.
NRA CET 2021 Key Highlights
-NTA CET exam will start from 2021 onwards.
-CET will be a single preliminary exam
-There will be three levels of CET Exams (10th, 12th & Graduate)
-NRA CET Scorecard valid for 3 years
-Get Jobs in State Govt, PSU, Private Companies based on CET Score.
-NRA is an autonomous body
-CET Syllabus & Pattern would be decided by NRA
-The CET score will be shared with all the central government recruiting agencies.
-Two CET Exam per year
-Minimum 1 exam center in every district.
-Unlimited Number of Attempts to improve CET score.
NRA CET Score Card Valid For:
-Staff Selection Commission (SSC),
-Railway Recruitment Board (RRB), and
-Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Eligibility for 10th Pass Jobs CET Exam
-Nationality – Candidates must be citizens of India
-Age Limit – Candidates should be aged between 18 and 23 years
Educational Qualification – Candidates must have passed Class 10 from a recognized board. Candidates appearing for their qualifying examination (Class 10) are not eligible for the exam
Eligibility for 12th Pass Jobs CET Exam
-Nationality – Candidates must be citizens of India
-Age Limit – Candidates should be aged between 20 and 25 years –Educational Qualification – Candidates must have passed the Class 12th/ Senior Secondary Board Exam from a recognized board.
Eligibility for Graduate Level Jobs CET Exam
-Nationality – Candidates must be citizens of India
-Age Limit – Candidates should be aged between 20 and 32 years
-Educational Qualification – the candidate must be a Graduate Degree from a recognized University/Institution.
NRA CET Exams Details | Govt. Exams CET | SSC CGL CHSL |
A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 27 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
SSC Stenographer Exam Pattern for computer Based test
The Computer Based Test of SSC Stenographer comprises three sections: General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness and English Language and Comprehension. The General Intelligence & Reasoning and General Awareness sections carry 50 questions each while the English Language and Comprehension section comprise 100 questions. Total marks allotted to General Intelligence & Reasoning and General Awareness sections are 50 each while the English Language and Comprehension section carry 100 marks. Candidates will be given two hours to complete the exam.
SSC Stenographer Marking Scheme
The marking scheme is given below.
SSC Stenographer Exam Pattern for Skill Test
Candidates for this stage are shortlisted based on their performance in the skill test. In this test, candidates will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English or Hindi which they need to type at the speed of 100 words per minute (w.p.m) for the post of Stenographer Grade C and 80 w.p.m for Stenographer Grade D post. Candidates need to type the dictation on the computer.
At present time stenographer is the most demanding job in the government. sector and competition is quite low. the best preparation time for a student to stenographer course after 12th completed. The stenography course is in three different languages English(Primary), Hindi(Secondary) and Local Language like marathi, Gujrati etc.Course
Duration: 4 to 5 months.
Age Eligibility: 18 and onwards.
Job Profile: Steno post in High Court, Menistrial Office, GST Dept. State Govt. Office.Min Salary: 35000.
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
Stenographer Classes | Shorthand Course Details | the best Institute for Shorthand |
English Speaking by Rujuta Kambli: How to self introduce yourself at meeting, in Interview and with Friends:
There are many way to introduce yourself in interview, at meeting and with friends Circle.
https://youtu.be/eAzHEnE9kLo
English Speaking Course mumbai | Self Introduction for Job Interview
Complete Guidence For English Speaking Join us: https://t.me/liveenglisheducator
NRA CET 2021-2022 Common Eligibility Test by NRA – SSC, IBPS & RRB Vacancy CET Exam 2021 Syllabus, Pattern & Notification
Important Points:
-NRA CET 2021 Key Highlights
-NTA CET exam will start from 2021 onwards.
-CET will be a single preliminary exam
-There will be three levels of CET Exams (10th, 12th & Graduate)
-NRA CET Scorecard valid for 3 years
-Get Jobs in State Govt, PSU, Private Companies based on CET Score.
-NRA is an autonomous body
-CET Syllabus & Pattern would be decided by NRA
-The CET score will be shared with all the central government recruiting agencies.
-Two CET Exam per year
-Minimum 1 exam center in every district.
-Unlimited Number of Attempts to improve CET score.
Features:
Efficient, committed and excellent organization
-Healthy & competitive environment
-Highly qualified, experienced and dedicated faculty
-Innumerous short-cuts and tricks
-Periodic motivational counseling
-Regular doubt remedial classes
-Lectures on each and every topic
-Scientifically designed, sufficiently clear and precise up to date study material
-Sufficient number of mock test papersite
STENOGRAPHY IS ALL ABOUT CONSISTENCY
Consistency is the key to success . Consistency leads to habits .Habits form the action we take every day . Action leads to success . If you want to achieve success in anything you must be consistence about it .
Stenography also require consistency . Stick to it for 2 years with consistency hard work in the right direction and you will be through.
A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria:
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 27 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
-Efficient, committed and excellent organization
-Healthy & competitive environment
-Highly qualified, experienced and dedicated faculty
-Innumerous short-cuts and tricks
-Periodic motivational counseling
-Regular doubt remedial classes
-Lectures on each and every topic
-Scientifically designed, sufficiently clear and precise up to date study material
-Sufficient number of mock test papersite
-Efficient, committed and excellent organization
-Healthy & competitive environment
-Highly qualified, experienced and dedicated faculty
-Innumerous short-cuts and tricks
-Periodic motivational counseling
-Regular doubt remedial classes
-Lectures on each and every topic
-Scientifically designed, sufficiently clear and precise up to date study material
-Sufficient number of mock test papers
IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure:
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is conducting Common Written Examination (CRP PO/MT) for the recruitment of Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee vacancies in Public Sector Banks which will be conducted online. IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure details are mentioned below.
Selection Process:
The IBPS PO/MT selection process will be carried out in three stages, the first one is Preliminary Examination, second stage is Main Examination & third stage is Common Interview conducted by IBPS.
Online Examination:
Examination will be conducted in two tier i.e. the online examination will be held in two phases, preliminary and main which consists of objective type questions. Total marks of the Preliminary exam is 100 and duration is 1 hour & total marks on Main exam is 200 marks and duration is 2 hours. There will be Negative Marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. If a question is left blank, there will be no negative marking for that question. All the tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi. The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method. Scores up to two decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations. Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview.
Common Interview:
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the examination for CRP PO/MT-VIII will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Bank in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CRP Main exam and interview will be 80:20 respectively. The combined final scores of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in CRP PO/MT-VIII and Interview. A candidate should qualify both in the CRP and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process.
Allotment:
On completion of the interview process, depending on the vacancies to be filled in during the financial year 2018-19 based on the business needs of the Participating Organisations and as reported to IBPS, candidates shortlisted will be provisionally allotted to one of the Participating Organisations, based on merit-cum-preference keeping in view the spirit of Govt. Guidelines on reservation policy, various guidelines issued by Govt. of India/ Others from time to time, administrative exigency, etc.
In the event of two or more candidates having obtained the same score, merit order is decided as per date of birth (the candidate senior in age is placed before/ above the candidate junior in age), as per the prevailing practice.
IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure:
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is conducting Common Written Examination (CRP PO/MT) for the recruitment of Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee vacancies in Public Sector Banks which will be conducted online. IBPS PO/MT Selection Procedure details are mentioned below.
Selection Process:
The IBPS PO/MT selection process will be carried out in three stages, the first one is Preliminary Examination, second stage is Main Examination & third stage is Common Interview conducted by IBPS.
Online Examination:
Examination will be conducted in two tier i.e. the online examination will be held in two phases, preliminary and main which consists of objective type questions. Total marks of the Preliminary exam is 100 and duration is 1 hour & total marks on Main exam is 200 marks and duration is 2 hours. There will be Negative Marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. If a question is left blank, there will be no negative marking for that question. All the tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi. The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method. Scores up to two decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations. Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview.
Common Interview:
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the examination for CRP PO/MT-VIII will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Bank in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CRP Main exam and interview will be 80:20 respectively. The combined final scores of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in CRP PO/MT-VIII and Interview. A candidate should qualify both in the CRP and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process.
Allotment:
On completion of the interview process, depending on the vacancies to be filled in during the financial year 2018-19 based on the business needs of the Participating Organisations and as reported to IBPS, candidates shortlisted will be provisionally allotted to one of the Participating Organisations, based on merit-cum-preference keeping in view the spirit of Govt. Guidelines on reservation policy, various guidelines issued by Govt. of India/ Others from time to time, administrative exigency, etc.
In the event of two or more candidates having obtained the same score, merit order is decided as per date of birth (the candidate senior in age is placed before/ above the candidate junior in age), as per the prevailing practice.
#ssccgl #ibps #sscgd #ibpspo #IBPS SO #CDS #NDA @ipcimain
For more details call: 8080160826
[ipt_fsqm_form id=”52″]
Hello Dear students
Today’s English Quiz is live on your Exam Insight Mobile App and Website. the English Quiz is cover all news, upcoming event and their theme related question which is related to all competitive examinations.
Join the Link : https://www.examinsight.in/english-quizzes?quizId=3716991
For E-Boook | Live Lecture | Recruitment Notification to Join Us: https://t.me/examinsightlive
for more quizzes: download mobile App: https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.examinsight
Fresh Batch For Stenography
STENOGRAPHY IS ALL ABOUT CONSISTEBCY
Consistency is the key to success . Consistency leads to habits .Habits form the action we take every day . Action leads to success . If you want to achieve success in anything you must be consistence about it .
Stenography also require consistency . Stick to it for 2 years with consistency hard work in the right direction and you will be through.
A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 30 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
Contact No. : 080801 60826 /087797 74040
Website : https://ipci.co.in/
Hello Dear students
Today’s Current Affairs Quiz-3 is live on your Exam Insight Mobile App and Website. the current affairs quiz is cover all news, upcoming event and their theme related question which is related to all competitive examinations.
Join the Link: https://www.examinsight.in/quizzes?quizId=3714635
For E-Boook | Live Lecture | Recruitment Notification to Join Us: https://t.me/examinsightlive
for more quizzes: download monile App: https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.examinsight
Hello Dear students Logical Reasoning Quiz-2 is live on your Exam Insight Mobile App and Website. the quiz-2 is completely based on coding-decoding topic which is most important for your all upcoming competitive examination. the number of question in this quiz is 15 with report of correct or not and the most important thing for attempting quizzes to accuracy of answer to the question with stipulated time. Click here to join Quiz:
Click here to join Quiz:
Reasoning Quiz-2: Coding-Decoding
Join us on telegram Channel: https://t.me/examinsightlive
Download Mobile App: Click here
I wish the reader reach the day of his skill test. Believe me, you’ll love the journey. All the
best.
SSC CGL Exam Syllabus: Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Combined Graduate Level Examination will be conducted in phases. Tier I & Tier II Exam syllabus details are given below…..
Syllabus for Combine Graduate Level Tier-I Examination:
A. General Intelligence & Reasoning : It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern –folding & un-folding, Figural Pattern – folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.
B. General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.
C. Quantitative Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart
D. English Comprehension: Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested.
Note: The questions in Parts A, B, & D will be of a level commensurate with the essential qualification viz. Graduation and questions in Part C will be of 10th standard level.
Syllabus for Combine Graduate Level (Tier-II ) Examination:
Paper-I : Quantitative Ability : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart
Paper-II : English Language & Comprehension: Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.
Paper-III : Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation & Compiler in RGI. Collection Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data – Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions.
Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency – mean median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.
Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range, quartile deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation;Measures of relative dispersion.
Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.
Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression lines; Spearman’s rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).
Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes’ theorem. Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability functions; Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial , Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable (discrete).
Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and non-probability sampling techniques(simple random sampling, stratified sampling, multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only); Sample size decisions.
Statistical Inference – Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals.
Analysis of Variance – Analysis of one-way classified data and two-way classified data.
Time Series Analysis – Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by different methods,
Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods.
Index Numbers – Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.
Paper IV: General Studies (Finance and Economics) for the post of Assistant Audit Officer in Indian Audit & Accounts Department under CAG.
Part A: Finance and Accounts-(80 marks)
1. Fundamental principles and basic concept of Accounting.
Financial Accounting: Nature and scope, Limitations of Financial Accounting, Basic concepts and Conventions, Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
Basic concepts of accounting: Single and double entry, Books of original Entry,
Bank Reconciliation, Journal, ledgers, Trial Balance, Rectification of Errors,
Manufacturing, Trading, Profit & loss Appropriation Accounts, Balance Sheet
Distinction between Capital and Revenue Expenditure, Depreciation Accounting,
Valuation of Inventories, Non-profit organisations Accounts, Receipts and Payments and Income & Expenditure Accounts, Bills of Exchange, Self Balancing Ledgers.
Part B: Economics and Governance-(120 marks)
2. Comptroller & Auditor General of India- Constitutional provisions, Role and responsibility
3. Finance Commission-Role and functions
4. Basic Concept of Economics and introduction to Micro Economics
Definition, scope and nature of Economics, Methods of economic study and Central problems of an economy and Production possibilities curve
5. Theory of Demand and Supply
Meaning and determinants of demand, Law of demand and Elasticity of demand, Price, income and cross elasticity; Theory of consumer’s behaviour Marshallian approach and Indifference curve approach, Meaning and determinants of supply, Law of supply and Elasticity of Supply.
6. Theory of Production and cost
Meaning and Factors of production; Laws of production- Law of variable proportions and Laws of returns to scale.
7. Forms of Market and price determination in different markets
Various forms of markets-Perfect Competition, Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition and Oligopoly ad Price determination in these markets
8. Indian Economy
Nature of the Indian Economy Role of different sectors-Role of Agriculture, Industry and Services-their problems and growth;
National Income of India-Concepts of national income, Different methods of measuring national income.
Population-Its size, rate of growth and its implication on economic growth
Poverty and unemployment- Absolute and relative poverty, types, causes and incidence of unemployment.
Infrastructure-Energy, Transportation, Communication.
9. Economic Reforms in India
Economic reforms sice 1991; Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation and Disinvestment.
10. Money and Banking
Monetary/ Fiscal policy- Role and functions of Reserve Bank of India; functions of commercial Banks/ RRB/ Payment Banks Budget and Fiscal deficits and Balance of payments Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.
11. Role of Information Technology in Governance.
SSC CGL Course Details | Mock Test | Live Classes & Institite
We provide you with all the notes in a concise manner to study properly which helps you to crack your competitive examination . Our major courses are SSC-CGL, SSC-CPO, SSC-CHSL, SSC-MTS, SSC-GD, CDS, Bank SBI-PO & Clerk, IBPS-PO & Clerk, RRB-PO & Clerk, Railway Loco Pilot, Technician & Group D, RPF/RPSF, and Delhi Police.
SSC CGL Exam Pattern & Syllabus 2020-21
Tier-1 Exam Pattern:
An exam is objective type and will be conducted online.
The question paper will be divided into 4 sections: (1) General Intelligence & Reasoning, (2) General Awareness / General knowledge, (3) Quantitative Aptitude and (4) English Comprehension.
There are 100 questions for 200 marks and the exam duration will be 60 minutes.
There will be negative marking of 0.50 marks for each wrong answer.
Tier-2 Exam Pattern:
The exam is objective type and will be conducted online.
There are 4 papers, (Paper-1) Quantitative Ability, (Paper-2) English Language and Comprehension, (Paper-3) Statistics and (Paper-4) General Studies (Finance & Economics).
Paper-1 & 2 is compulsory for all posts and Paper-3 is only for the post of “Statistical Investigator Gr. II” & “Compiler” and Paper-4 is only for the post of “Assistant Audit Officer”.
Each paper carries 200 marks and exam duration is 2 hours for each paper.
There will be negative marking for each wrong answer, negative marking of 0.50 marks in Paper-1, Paper-3 & Paper-4 and negative marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-2.
Tier-3 Exam Pattern:
The exam carries 100 marks and exam duration is 60 minutes and exam duration will be 80 minutes for “VH” and “Cerebral Palsy” candidates
Candidates need to write Essay / Précis / Letter / Application Writing etc.
.Exam is a descriptive type and will conduct offline.
STENOGRAPHY IS ALL ABOUT CONSISTENCY
Consistency is the key to success . Consistency leads to habits .Habits form the action we take every day . Action leads to success . If you want to achieve success in anything you must be consistence about it .
Stenography also require consistency . Stick to it for 2 years with consistency hard work in the right direction and you will be through.
A stenographer is a professional who has the abilities to translate a language into a coded form which is popularly known as Shorthand. SSC Stenographer in-hand salary for Grade C & Grade D posts is around INR 14,000/- INR 34,800 respectively
Stenographer’s Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: The student needs to have passed class 12 from a recognized board (Central/State). The student can be a pass in any stream but should have secured a minimum of 60% in their class 12.
Age: The candidate has to be between the ages of 18 to 27 years. The age limit is set by government offices.
Indian public career institute has earned a remark in the field of online and offline coaching for all competitive exams specially in IBPS/Banking/SBI Exams/Bank clerks and SSC. Many of the students have taken advantages of them, they do not teach you only but also guide you about the strategies, study technics and how to prepare best for your exams, they are focused on both, your knowledge and your marks. All they teach is 100% scoring which a student needs to earn good numbers in these exams.
It provides exam oriented coaching to the students who are about to make their careers in the public sector and these courses are aimed at enabling the students to get a reputed Govt. Job through SSC , IBPS PO/Clerk or any other Govt. Job Exam and our success record is unparalleled , thus 8 out of every 10 students at this. It succeed in the Govt. Job exams they prepare for.
Contact No. : 080801 60826 /087797 74040
Website : https://ipci.co.in/
SSC MTS Syllabus Details: Staff Selection Commission (SSC) recruits Group C posts of Multi Tasking Staff (MTS) in Different States and Union Territories. The following are the Syllabus details to apply for the SSC MTS Vacancies.
Syllabus:
Paper-I: Questions on ‘General Intelligence and Reasoning’ will be non-verbal considering the functions attached to the post. Questions on Numerical Aptitude and General English will be simple, of a level that an average matriculate will be in a position to answer comfortably. Questions on General Awareness will be also of similar standard.
General Intelligence: It would include questions of non-verbal type. The test will include questions on similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, figure classification, arithmetical number series, nonverbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.
English Language: Candidates’ understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested.
Numerical Aptitude: This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers, Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, etc.
General Awareness: Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.
NOTE: For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability and opting for SCRIBE there will be no component of Maps/Graphs/Diagrams/Statistical Data in the General Intelligence & Reasoning / General Awareness Paper.
Paper-II: The Paper will be set in English and Hindi and to the extent possible in other languages mentioned in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution, to test basic language skills commensurate with the educational qualification prescribed for the post. Candidates will be required to write one short essay/letter in English and Hindi each. Candidates can opt to write the essay/letter in any Indian languag included in the 8th schedule of Constitution.
LOANS ISSUED BY BANKS
| LOANS ISSUED BY | RECEIVED BY | AMOUNT | KEY NOTES |
| Reserve Bank of India | Sri Lanka | US$ 900 million | Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended over US$ 900 million loan facilities to Sri Lanka, comprising Asian Clearing Union (ACU) settlement of over USD 500 million and currency Swap of USD 400 million.This funding will aid Sri Lanka to overcome forex crisis and shortage of almost all essential commodities due to a shortage of dollars to pay for the imports.It will be utilized to build up its depleted foreign reserves and for food imports. |
| World Bank | West Bengal | USD 125 million (around Rs 1,000 crore) | To support its effort towards social protection service access to the poor and vulnerable groups.The loan will be sanctioned under the ‘WB Building State Capability for Inclusive Social Protection’ operation which will strengthen the access to social assistance and targeted service for poor and vulnerable groups. The Headquarters of World Bank is Washington, D.C., United States. |
RBI & World bank Loan
| BANKS | SIGNED WITH | KEY NOTES |
| HDFC Bank and Excelpoint Systems India Pvt. Ltd. | STPINEXT | AIC STPINEXT Initiatives (STPINEXT), a special purpose vehicle of Software Technology Parks of India (STPI), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), has signed two Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs), one with HDFC Bank and the other with Excelpoint Systems India Pvt. Ltd. to enhance the tech startup ecosystem in India. Both HDFC Bank and Excelpoint Systems will support the startups through technical guidance and assistance, mentoring, pitching to investors, funding support, and market connect & access. |
| Karnataka Vikas Grameena(KVG) Bank (KVGB) | Mecwin Technologies(Tech) Ltd | A Regional Rural Bank (RRB), Karnataka Vikas Grameena(KVG) Bank (KVGB), has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based Mecwin Technologies(Tech) Ltd to introduce farmer-friendly solar-powered pump-sets using bank finance. Solar-powered pump-sets will replace diesel pump- sets resulting in reduced carbon emissions. The headquarters of Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank (KVGB) is Dharwad, Karnataka |
| Indian Bank | Edelweiss Financial Services and ECL Finance | Edelweiss Financial Services and ECL Finance signed a co- lending agreement with Indian Bank to expand services under priority sector lending (PSL). The co-lending agreement will help in expanding the portfolio of lending products and will ultimately increase credit access. The Headquarters of Indian Bank is Chennai, Tamil Nadu. |
| National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) | Arthimpact Digital Loans (ARTH) | Signed a partnership agreement to provide end-to-end fintech (financial technology) solutions to support self-help groups (SHGs). ARTH will provide credit, payments and insurance solutions support to micro-MSME enterprises. |
| ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC) | First Trust Advisors | ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC) signed an agreement with First Trust Advisors, an US-based company to launch a global Fund of Funds (FoF). Under the agreement, the ICICI Prudential AMC will launch a strategic metal & energy equity FoF. It invests in offshore funds of First Trust Advisors.The ICICI Prudential strategic metal & energy equity FoF will open for subscription on January 17 and will close on January 31, 2022. |
| Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) | Gujarat International Finance Tec-city – Special Economic Zone (GIFT SEZ) Limited | A wholly-owned subsidiary of GIFT-City, to improve customer’s overall financial services offerings. KMBL and GIFT SEZ will jointly work on promoting the GIFT International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) jurisdiction for Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) structures, holding seminars and knowledge series, ease of doing business along with Global Custody Services. The headquarters of Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) is Mumbai, Maharashtra. |
| NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) | TerraPay | NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL), international arm of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with TerraPay, the Netherlands-based global payments infrastructure company.This partnership will allow Indians with an active UPI (Unified Payments Interface) ID to receive real-time, international payments into their bank accounts via TerraPay’s fully regulated, secure, scalable and efficient channel. |
MoU Between Banks
SBI PO Syllabus details:
SBI PO Syllabus is of Three Phases 1. Preliminary Examination 2. Main Examination and 3. Group Exercises & Interview.
I. Preliminary Examination: This Exam is consisting of 3 Sections as follows…
1. English Language
2. Quantitative Aptitude
3. Reasoning Ability
II. Main Examination: This is consisting of 2 papers as
a. Objective paper: This paper consists of 4 sections such as
1. Test of Reasoning & Computer Aptitude.
2. Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation.
3. Test of General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness.
4. Test of English Language.
b. Descriptive Paper: This paper is consisting of Letter Writing and Essay.
Contact No. : 080801 60826 /087797 74040
Website : https://ipci.co.in/
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved Fino Payments Bank for commencing international remittance business under the Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS). The approval will enable the customers of Fino Payments Bank to receive money sent from foreign countries. The money remitted by family members abroad can be directly withdrawn at the nearest micro-ATM or Aadhaar-Enabled Payment Services (AEPS) enabled Fino Bank’s neighbourhood merchant point.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a framework for facilitating small-value digital payments in offline mode using cards, wallets, mobile devices, etc, to push digital transactions in rural and semi-urban areas.The upper limit of an offline payment transaction was fixed at Rs 200, with a total limit on a payment instrument be at Rs 2,000 at any point in time.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted a Scheduled Payment Bank status to Airtel Payments Bank by including it into the Second Schedule to the RBI Act, 1934. With this inclusion, it becomes the 4th payment bank to get this status. This status will help Airtel Payments Bank to explore new central and state government business opportunities, including participation in government-issued Request for Proposals (RFP), and primary auctions, along with participation in government-operated welfare schemes.
To provide liquidity in the secondary market, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the market-making scheme to promote retail participation in Government Securities (G-Secs) by providing prices/quotes to Retail Direct Gilt Account Holders (RDGAHs) enabling them to buy/sell securities under the RBI Retail Direct (RBI-RD) Scheme.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cancelled the Certificate of Authorisation (CoA) of two Payment System Operators (PSOs) – Muthoot Vehicle & Asset Finance, and Eko India Financial Services for non- compliance with regulatory requirements.The CoA was cancelled by RBI on 31st December 2021, in the exercise of the powers conferred on it under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the eligibility criteria for entities to be categorised as ‘Specified User’ of Credit Information Companies (CICs). The eligible criteria are issued under clause (j) of Regulation 3 of the CICs (Amendment) Regulations, 2021.In November 2021, RBI notified CICs (Amendment) Regulations, 2021 to amend the CICs Regulations, 2006.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the threshold limit for Banks to maintain the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) on deposits and other ‘extension of funds’ received from non-financial small business customers from Rs 5 crore to Rs 7.5 crore.
In January 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sets up a separate internal department for fintech (Financial technology) by subsuming the fintech division of DPSS (department of payment and settlement systems), Central Office (CO). to facilitate innovation, and help identify, address challenges and opportunities in the fintech sector.
The department will be administratively attached to the centralised administrative division (CAD) of RBI.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the validity of its directions by 4 months for Sri Guru Raghavendra Sahakara Bank Niyamitha, Bengaluru (Karnataka) i.e., till May 10, 2022 from January 11, 2022.The directions have been issued under Section 35A read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation (BR) Act, 1949.
RBI brought the bank under Directions in the interest of depositor protection on January 2, 2020, the validity of which was extended from time to time.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the Annual Report of the Ombudsman Schemes for 2020-21, which has been prepared for the 9-month period, i.e., July 1, 2020, to March 31, 2021, in alignment with the change in the Financial Year of RBI from ‘July – June’ to ‘April – March’ with effect from July 1, 2020.The Annual Report covers the activities under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006 (BOS), the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies, 2018 (OSNBFC) and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions, 2019 (OSDT).
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the RBI – Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) for September 2021, as per the index the digital payments increased by 39.64 percent to 304.06 as against 217.74 in September 2020. It is the index launched by RBI in January 2021 with March 2018 as the base period (ie. DPI score for March 2018 is set at 100) to identify the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. The index will be released semi-annually with a lag of 4 months.
It is the index launched by RBI in January 2021 with March 2018 as the base period (ie. DPI score for March 2018 is set at 100) to identify the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. The index will be released semi-annually with a lag of 4 months.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the following regulations after exercising its powers conferred under the Factoring Regulation Act, 2011.
It permits all existing non-deposit taking Non-Banking Finance Company-Investment and Credit Companies (NBFC-ICCs) with asset size of Rs 1,000 crore and above to undertake factoring business, subject to certain conditions.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted an Overnight variable rate reverse repo (VRRR) auction for Rs 50,000 crore under liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) to infuse liquidity, instead of its usual fixed-rate overnight reverse repo window, as Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection tightened liquidity this week.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) offered overnight liquidity to the banking system of India with Rs.75,000 crore against banks bid of around Rs 1.37 lakh crore through variable rate repo (VRR) auction under Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and 25th January 2022 will be the date of reversal.
Reserve Bank of India imposed several restrictions on Indian Mercantile Cooperative Bank Limited, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh including a cap of Rs 1 lakh on withdrawals.RBI issued the directions in the exercise of powers vested in it under sub section (1) of Section 35 A read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies), 1949.
IRDAI – to Set up Hubs on Motor, Property Insurances and Sets Norms for Surety Cover
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has decided to set up two hubs, one on motor insurance at ‘Institute of Insurance and Risk Management (IIRM), the other on property insurance at ‘National Insurance Academy (NIA)’ to promote loss prevention measures in the general insurance industry. IRDAI also decided to form an advisory committee under the chairmanship of the NIA director to create a repository of past risk inspection reports and develop standard survey/inspection report formats.
Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) and New India Assurance continued to be identified by Insurance Regulator and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) for 2021-22.
Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India has inaugurated “Digi Zone”, at Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai, Maharashtra, as part of its effort to enhance its digital footprint. LIC’s Digi Zone can be used by the customers to purchase policies online, pay the premium and avail of other services.
Ministry of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs (Budget Division), has maintained the status quo and retained the Interest Rate of Small Savings Scheme unchanged for the 4th Quarter (Q4) for the Financial Year 2021-22 (FY22) (i.e. from January 2022 to March 2022) same as Q3 FY22, due to the rising cases of COVID-19 variant Omicron and elevated level of inflation.
The interest rates on various small savings instruments such as Public Provident Fund (PPF), National Savings Certificate (NSC), term deposits in post offices, etc remain unchanged from Q2 FY21 (around 7 quarters). Click here for Interest Rates on Small Savings Instruments for Q4 FY22.
Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) Fullerton India and One97 Communications, parent company of Paytm, have joined hands to provide lending products to merchant partners and consumers.Under this partnership, Paytm Postpaid/buy-now-pay-later or innovative merchant loan products will be offered to consumers on the Paytm platform while utilising Fullerton’s risk assessment capabilities, and understanding of the segment.
Indian Government offered a USD 500 million Line of Credit (LOC) to help Sri Lanka for purchase of petroleum products as it is struggling with fuel and energy crisis.This support is extended through a letter by Union Minister Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) to the Foreign Minister of Sri Lanka, Prof. Gamini Lakshman Peiris.
In January 2022, Nippon Life India Asset Management Limited (NAM India), the asset manager of Nippon India Mutual Fund (NIMF) launched a New Fund Offer (NFO) for Nippon India Nifty Auto Exchange Traded Fund (ETF). It is India’s First Auto sector ETF.
NPCI Bharat BillPay Limited (NBBL), the wholly-owned subsidiary of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), launched a Unified Presentment Management System (UPMS), which will enable users to set up standing instructions on their recurring bill payments across all modes of digital payments.
The bills will be automatically fetched from the billers and presented to customers for their action, in terms of auto-debit and bill payment management.
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and Reliance Jio collaborated to announce the introduction of Unified Payment Interface (UPI) Autopay for the telecom industry.Through this collaboration, Reliance Jio has become the 1st telecom company to launch a UPI autopay facility for both prepaid and postpaid subscribers.
NPCI sets standardized limits for cash withdrawals and mini statements on AePS transactions In order to make Aadhaar enabled Payments Systems (AePS) more standardized, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has introduced limits for cash withdrawals and mini statements which needs to implement by the acquiring banks by January 15, 2022. As per the guidelines, the acquiring banks will have to implement a maximum limit of five approved cash withdrawal transactions per customer per terminal per day.
Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN) got the Category I licence for inter-state trading in electricity in India, which was granted by the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC). SJVN has a portfolio of more than 16,000 megawatt (MW), out of which 2,016.5 MW is under operation.
An entity or person applying for a Category `I` trading licence should have net worth of Rs 50 crore and should have maintained minimum current ratio and liquidity ratio of 1:1.
Shrinithi Capital Private (Pvt) Limited (Ltd), a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) which primarily focuses on commercial vehicle & two-wheeler loans, tied-up with IndoStar Capital Finance Ltd to focus on co-lending facilities.
Yes Asset Management has been renamed as the White Oak Capital Asset Management with effect from 12th January 2022. In line with this, Yes Mutual Fund has been renamed as White Oak Capital Mutual Fund.In November 2021, the White Oak Capital group announced the completion of the transaction to acquire the mutual fund business of Yes Bank.
The Torus Kling Blockchain IFSC, an equal joint venture between Cosmea Financial Holdings and Kling Trading India signed a MoU with India INX to launch the first Bitcoin and Ethereum Futures exchange traded funds (ETFs) in India.
These funds will become India’s first crypto backed futures outside of the United States (US).
Marwadi Financial Services has joined hands with NSDL Payments Bank to offer 3-in-1 savings bank account with features of savings, demat (Dematerialised Account) and trading accounts to boost its customer experience. This partnership will also allow NSDL Payments Bank to access Marwadi’s clients and expand its customer base.
Indifi Technologies has joined hands with Alphabet’s UPI (Unified Payments Interface)-based payment app, Google Pay (GPay), to offer instant loans to eligible small merchants on the GPay platform.The loans will be in the range of Rs 2.5 to Rs 3 lakh.
Alphaniti, a Fintech company, partnered with IIFL Securities to allow investors to invest and trade in stock offerings.
The aim of the partnership is to allow direct investments by offering high-quality products at affordable costs through big data, deep domain expertise and technology for both India and the US markets across multiple asset classes.
Paytm Money, a wholly owned subsidiary of the digital finance platform ‘Paytm’, has launched India’s first intelligent messenger named ‘’Pop’’ to provide instant updates to track users’ investments in the stock market. “Pop” provides specific information related to their stock, portfolio analysis, market news, and important market movements all in one place and easily available to its users.
E-commerce platform Snapdeal has partnered with Bank of Baroda (BOB) Financial Solutions Limited, a subsidiary of BoB, and National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to launch a co-branded contactless RuPay credit card.
MobiKwik, a mobile wallet Fintech company, partnered with NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd. (NBBL) to launch ‘ClickPay’ service to its customers. With this, the customers of MobiKwik can pay recurring online bills, such as mobile, gas, water, electricity, DTH, insurance and loan EMIs using their mobile phone.
National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) has emerged as the world’s largest derivatives exchange for the third consecutive year in 2021 in terms of the number of contracts traded, based on the statistics maintained by the Futures Industry Association (FIA).As per the statistics maintained by the World Federation of Exchanges (WFE) for 2021, the NSE exchange was ranked 4th by the number of trades in cash equities.
Hitachi Payment Services partnered with Indipaisa to develop a new Fintech platform for India’s 63 million Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).The objective of the partnership is to offer a high- quality digital platform for fintech services at affordable prices for the Indian MSME market.
Max Life Insurance Company Limited (Max Life) has partnered with Policybazaar.com to offer its ‘Max Life Smart Secure Plus Plan’ on Policybazaar platform as an independent Insurance cover to homemakers. At present homemakers in India are allowed for term insurance cover only as an add-on to their earning spouse’s cover.
FAARMS, the Agri-tech start-up, partners with Reliance General Insurance Company Ltd. (RGICL) and introduced customized digital insurance solutions for the rural population especially the farmers. The partnership will enable the farmers and any individual from rural areas to easily access and choose from a range of health and cattle insurance on the FAARMS app through their smartphones.
Alphabet series consists of letters of the alphabet placed in a specific pattern. If you keep in your mind the order of the letters with their respective numbers it will help you answer the questions quickly above alphabet series:

E.g.: what will be the next term in
BKS, DJT, FIU, HHV, ?
(1) IJX
(2) IGX
(3) JGW
(4) IGU
(5) JGU
Answer: (3). In each term, the first letter is moved two steps forward, the second letter one step backward and the third letter one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the next term. So, the missing term is JGW.
LETTER SERIES
This type of question usually consists of a series of small letters which follow a certain pattern. However some letters are missing from the series. These missing letters are then given in a proper.sequence as one of the alternatives. The candidate is required to choose this alternative as the answer:
E.g.: aab_aaa_bba_
(1) baa
(2) abb
(3) bab
(4) aab
(5) bbb
In each of the following questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one term missing. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q.1) cmw, hrb, ——, rbl, wgq, blv
(1) mwg
(2) lvf
(3) lwg
(4) mxg
(5)wmx
Q.2) DKY FJW HIU JHS ——
(1) KGR
(2) LFQ
(3) KFR
(4) LGQ
(5) None of these
Q.3). —— siy oeu kaq gwm csi
(1) wne
(2) wnb
(3) vne
(4) vme
(5) None of these
Q.4) BXJ ETL HPN KLP ——
(1) NHR
(2) MHQ
(3) MIP
(4) NIR
(5) None of these
Q.5) QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ——
(1) XVZ
(2) ZYA
(3) YXW
(4) VWX
(5) AZY
Q.6) P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ——
(1) Y17O
(2) X17M
(3) X17O
(4) X16O
(5) None of these
Q.7) D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ——, ——
(1) K-12, M-13
(2) L-12, M-14
(3) L-12, N-14
(4) K-12, M-14
(5) K-12, N-14
Q.8) G, H, J, M, ——, V
(1) T
(2) S
(3) R
(4) U
(5) Q
Q.9) OTE PUF QVG RWH ——
(1) SYJ
(2) TXI
(3) SXJ
(4) SXI
(5) QWD
Q.10) BD GI LN QS ——
(1) TV
(2) VW
(3) WX
(4) WY
(5) VX
Directions(Q.11 to 15): In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.
Q.11) ba_ba_bac_acb_cbac
(1) aacb
(2) bbca
(3) ccba
(4) cbac
(5) None of these
Q.12) adb_ac_da_cddcb_dbc_cbda
(1) bccba
(2) cbbaa
(3) ccbba
(4) bbcad
(5) None of thes
Q.13) a_ba_cbaac_aa_ba
(1) ccbb
(2) cabc
(3) cbcb
(4) bbc
(5) None of these
Q.14) bc bb_aabc (1) acac (2) babc (3) abab (4) aac (5) None of these Q.15) b – b – bb – – bbb – bb – b (1) bbbbba (2) bbaaab (3) ababab (4) aabaab (5) None of these Directions(Q.16 to 30): In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative Q.16) b_cd_d_bcc_cdb (1) dbbbc (2)dccbd (3)bddcb (4)beccb (5) None of these Q.17) a b _b_cbacba_ba_cabcb (1)bccb (2)acbc (3)caba (4)cbbb (5) None of these Q.18) ac_c_cb_acbcacbca_bc (1)abbb (2)bacc (3)babc (4)bbcc (5) None of these Q.19) a_c_baab_cb
(1) bcca
(2)abbc
(3)abab
(4)aabb
(5) None of these
Q.20) ab_ c c_ffe (1) dadde (2)baded (3)abdee (4)abcde (5) None of these Q.21) _b c a b c a b c _ a b c a_ b
(1) a b a c
(2)a b c a
(3)a a b c
(4)b b c a
(5) None of these
Q.22) b_ab_b_a a b _ b
(1)a a b b
(2)a b b b
(3)a b b a
(4) b a a
(5) None of these
Q.23) bc, cde ,de, efg, fg, ?
(1)ijk
(2)ghi
(3)fgh
(4)hij
(5) None of these
Q.24) a _ _ b abba a bb a b a
(1) abab
(2)abba
(3)aabb
(4)aaab
(5) None of these
Q.25) ab _ babc_ ab_ b _ bcb_ b
(1)c b c a a
(2)c a b a c
(3)a b c b a
(4) a c a c a
(5) None of these
Q.26) a_ ba_c_aad_aa_ea
(1) babbd
(2)babbc
(3)babba
(4)bbba
(5) None of these
Q.27) b_ccacca_ba_bbc_bc_a
(1) acbca
(2)bacab
(3)baabc
(4)abaaa
(5) None of these
Q.28) b_ccacca_ba_bbc_bc_a
(1) acbca
(2)bacab
(3)baabc
(4)abaaa
(5) None of these
Q.29) ab_bbc_c _ ab_ ab _ c
(1) bccab
(2)cacab
(3)cacac
(4)cbabc
(5) None of these
Q.30) tu_rt_s _ usrtu
(1) rsurts
(2)rtusru
(3)rsutrr
(4)rsurtr
(5) None of these
Directions(Q.31 to 50): In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative
Q.31) ABC, PQR, DEF, STU, ?
(1) IJK
(2) GKL
(3) VWX
(4) GHI
(5) None of these
Q.32) AMDN, GMJN, ?, RMUN
(2) MMPN
(3) OMRN
(4) ONSU
(5) None of these
Q.33)NMT, POV, ROX,?
(1) TSZ
(2)TPZ
(3)TSY
(4)TRZ
(5) None of these
Q.34) HFD, BZX, VTR,?
(1) TRP
(2) KIH
(3) PNL
(4) GEC
(5) None of these
Q.35) C -3, E – 5, G – 7, I- 9, ?,
(1) M -18, K- 14
(2) X-24, M-21
(3) K- 11, M-13
(4) O – 15, X – 24
(5) None of these
Q.36) AFI, JOR, MRU,?
(1)RJL
(2)GJN
(3) HMP
(4)PMO
(5) None of these
Q.37) ELFA, GLHA, ILJA,?, MLNA
(1) OLPA
(2)KLMA
(3) LLMA
(4)KLLA
(5) None of these
Q.38) FGHJKLNOPRS?
(1) T
(2)M
(3)Q
(4)U
(5) None of these
Q.39) X, Q, K, F,?
(1) B
(2)C
(3)D
(4)E
(5) None of these
Q.40) BEAG, DGCI, FIEK, ?
(1) HKGM
(2)HGKJ
(3)HKLJ
(4)HMIE
(5) None of these
Q.41) ABEF, IJMN, ?
(1) QRVU
(2)QRUV
(3)QRVW
(4)QSVU
(5) None of these
Q.42) KJL, ONP, SRT, ?
(1)WVX
(2)VWX
(3)WXV
(4)VUW
(5) None of these
Q.43) AN, BO, CP, DQ, ?
(1)EG
(2)ER
(3)EH
(4)EF
(5) None of these
Q.44) PBD, REH, THL, ?
(1)UVW
(2)MNO
(3)UVX
(4)VKP
(5) None of these
Q.45) ML, NO, KJ, PQ, IH, ?
(1)RS
(2)GI
(3)RH
(4)RK
(5) None of these
Q.46) Y X Z X W Y W V X V _ _
(1)U W
(2)VW
(3)VU
(4)WU
(5) None of these
Q.47) b- 0, y-3, c- 8, x – 15, d-24, ?
(1) e-48
(2) w-35
(3) w – 39
(4) v-30
(5) None of these
Q.48) AZ,CX, FU, ?
(1)IR
(2)IV
(3)JQ
(4)KP
(5) None of these
Q.49) ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ? ,MLNA
(1)KLMA
(2)KLLA
(3)OLPA
(4)LLMA
(5) None of these
Q.50) ACE, BDF, CEG, ?
(1)DEH
(2)DFE
(3)DEF
(4)DFH
(5) None of these
Answers
1) 1 2)4 3)5 4)1 5)3 6)3 7)3 8)5 9)4 10)5
11)3 12)2 13)2 14)1 15)3 16)3 17)3 18)4 19)2 20)1
21)1 22)2 23)2 24)1 25)1 26)3 27)3 28)3 29)3 30)1
31)4 32)2 33)1 34)3 35)3 36)3 37)4 38)1 39)1 40)1
41)2 42)1 43)2 44)4 45)1 46)1 47)3 48)2 49)4 50)4
Aspirants must go through SSC CGL previous year question papers to prepare themselves well, since, there is very little time left to prepare for the SSC CGL exam 2020-21. SSC CGL previous year papers will indicate the nature of questions being asked in the exam, gives the idea of SSC CGL syllabus and the changing trend of SSC CGL question paper. Complete paper to download link below:
Here providing syllabus for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) i.e. Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Junior Time Keeper, Trains Clerk, Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Traffic Assistant, Goods Guard, Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Senior Clerk cum Typist, Junior Account Assistant cum Typist, Senior Time Keeper, Commercial Apprentice and Station Master in various Zonal Railways and Production Units of Indian Railways.
The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:
a. Mathematics:
Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics etc.
b. General Intelligence and Reasoning:
Analogies, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.
c. General Awareness:
Current Events of National and International Importance, Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and World, Flagship Government Programs, Flora and Fauna of India, Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.
SSC CGL IBanking-Insurance Exams | RRB NTPC | CET | Entrace Examination Coaching Institute
Directions (Q.1-5) : These questions are based on the five words given below:
FUR ACT BID DYE COW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
Q.1 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the third letter of the word which is second from the left among the given words?
Q.2 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to the previous letter and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowel appear?
Q.3 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be the second from the right?
Q.4 If the last letter in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words will be formed in which two or more vowels appear? (same or different vowels)
Q.5 If the positions of the first and the second letter of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
Directions (Q.6-10): The following questions are based on the five words given below:
PLY SET RID ANY TWO
Q.6 If first alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet as per the English alphabetical order, how many words having more than one vowel (same or different vowels) will be formed?
Q.7 If each letter in each word is arranged in alphabetical order (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged as compared to the original set of words?
Q.8 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to the previous letter and each vowel is changed to the next letter as per the English alphabetical order, in how many words thus formed will no vowel appear?
Q.9 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the right?
Q.10 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between the first letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
Q.11 Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words? Doctor, Fever, Medicine, Medical Shop
Q.12 Arrange the following words according to the dictionary:
a. Grasp
b. Granite
c. Grass
d. Graph
e. Grape
Q.13 Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
a. Child
b. Doctor
c. Illness
d. Medicine
e. Hospital
Q.14 Arrange the numbers into ascending order:
a. 864253
b. 842563
c. 825643
d. 834562
e. 852463
Q.15 Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, which is most like the set given in the question.
Given Set: (2, 10, 58)
Directions (Q.16-20): In each of the following questions find the odd word/letters/number pair/figure from the given alternatives.
Q.16
Q.17.
Q.18.
Q.19.
Q.20.
Directions (Q.21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
219 742 936 587 853
Q.21 If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, which of the following will be the product of the first and the second digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.22 One is subtracted from the first digit and two is subtracted from third the digit of each of the numbers. What will be the difference between the first digit of the highest number and the third digit of the lowest number?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.23 What will be the resultant if the third digits of the highest number is divided by the first digit of the lowest number?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.24 If the positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, what will be sum of all the digits of the second highest number thus formed?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.25 If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will form the lowest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
219 742 936 587 853
Q.26 1 is subtracted from each odd digits and 1 is added to each even digit in the number 4873529. which of the following will be the difference between the second digit from the left and the third digit from the right of the new number thus formed:
Q.27 if it is possible to make only meaningful word from the first, fifth, seventh and Eighth letters of the word SPONTANEOUS, Then the second letter from the left is your answer. if no such can be formed then your answer is X and if more than such word can be formed your answer is Y.
Q.28 How many such pairs are there in the number 935126 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
Q.29 A mountains would necessarily have
Q.30 How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘5391246’ in both backward & forward direction, each of which has as many digits between them in the number when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
ANSWERS:
1-1 2-1 3-3 4-2 5-1 6-4 7-3 8-5 9-2 10-1 11-2 12-3 13-1 14-3 14-1 15-3 16-1 17-4 18-4 19-4 20-3 21-2 22-5 23-1 24-1 25-2 26-3 27-5 28-5 29-3 30-3
(a) 100m (b) 120m(c) 140m (d) 160m
25. Which of the following set of instructions will take him to a position which is North from his starting point?
(a) FEB (b) BAD (c) FDC (d) None of these
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a)
Classification refers to categorization, the process in which ideas and objects are recognized, differentiated, and understood.
There are three types of Classifications basically asked in the examination.
i) Numeric Based
ii) Alphabet Based
iii) General Intelligence
I) Numeric Type:
All questions are based on numeric term. In this case, basic questions are given about number (prime, even or odd number, composite number), square of the number or a cube of the number, multiplication or division. Four of the same will be based on the above pattern but one of them will not belong to that and the same will be the answer. For e.g.:
Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
Q.1 a) 19
b) 17
c) 13
d) 27
e) 37
Answer: (d) Solution: In the above case, all are prime number
Q.2 a) 52
b) 39
c) 91
d) 117
e) 27
Answer: (e) Solution: In the above case, all are multiples of 13, except 27.
Q.3 a) 4
b) 36
c) 16
d) 64
e) 84
Answer: (e) Solution: In the above case, all are square of the number, except 84.
Q.4 a) 15
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35
e) 12
Answer: (e) Solution: In the above case, all are divisible by 5, except 12
Direction (Q.1 to 4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way; form a group which one does not belong to that group.
Q.1) a) 12
b) 21
c) 51
d) 72
e) 82
Q.2) a) 24
b) 32
c) 27
d) 36
e) 15
Q.3) a) 56
b) 35
c) 49
d) 42
e) 51
Q.4) a) 343
b) 64
c) 75
d) 27
e) 216
Solutions:
1.(e) All are divisible by 3, except 82
2.(b) All are divisible by 3, except 32
3.(e) All are divisible by 7, except 51
4.(c) All are the cubes, except 75
II) Alphabet Based
In this case, all questions are based on alphabetic term. This will be classified in terms of differences in the alphabetic form.
For e.g.:
Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
a) BE
b) GJ
c) LO
d) QT
e) US
Answer: (e) In the above case, there are differences of three letters in between the two alphabets as per the alphabetical series in all the four options, but fifth option is different from all the four given options.
a) AD
b) EI
c) JN
d) OS
e) TX
Answer: (a) In the above case, there are differences of four letters in between the two alphabets as per the alphabetical series in all the four options, except (a)
Direction (Q.1 to 2) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way; hence form a group which one does not belong to that group.
Q.1) a) PQR b) CDE c) HIJ d) KLM e) TSU
Q.2) a) EVW b) FUV c) JQR d) LOP e) STV
Answer.1 (e): Rest in all the cases the alphabets are arranged in continuous order
Answer.2 (e): In this case, all the letter that is second and third are in a continuous order, but in the fifth option the letter are not arranged as the same is done in all the other four options.
III) General Intelligence
In this case, all questions are based on general awareness and ability. This will be classified in the differences of the object, cities, colors, etc.
Direction (Q.1 to 5) Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
Q.1) a)sitar b)guitar c)sarod d)violin e)flute.
Q.2) a)Jupiter b)Mars c)Earth d)Uranium e)Moon
Q.3) a)Wood b)Table c)Chair d)Sofa e)Bench
Q.4) a)Blue b)Red c)Yellow d)Violet e)Grey
Q.5) a)April b)July c) September d)November e)June
Answer:
1.(e) In the above given question, all are musical instrument but all the four can be played by hand, except flute which can be played by mouth
.
IV Pair Type Odd Man Out
In this case, all questions are based on the pair type as if one is related to the other. It would be by means of transport, communication etc.
For eg:
1. a) Car-Road
b) Ship-Sea
c) Aero plane-Pilot
d) Rocket-Space
e)Train-Track
Answer: (c) In the above case, all the transports are related by ways but in Option C it is related to driving
Practice Test-1
Answers: 1. (3) 2.(3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (5) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (5) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (1) 16.(2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (5) 25. (2)
Explanatory:
Direction (Q.1 to 25) Given are five alternative but four of the following and five are alike in a certain way, hence form a group which one of them does not belong to that group.
1. (1) Painting (2) Art (3) Sculpture (4) Drawing (5) Music
2. (1) Mountain (2) Plateau (3) Valley (4) Peak (5) Hill 3. (1) Dynamics (2) Mechanics (3) Electronics (4) Optics (5) Physics
4. (1) Consumer (2) Customer (3) Buyer (4) Purchaser (5) Retailer
5. (1) Jasmine (2) Coriander (3) Lotus (4) Lily (5) Rose
6. (1) Moth (2) Bee (3) Lizard (4) Cockroach (5) Aphid
7. (1) Kiwi (2) Eagle (3) Emu (4) Penguin (5) Ostrich
8. (1) Swimming (2) Diving (3) Driving (4) Sailing (5) Fishing
9. (1) Pupil (2) Iris (3) Cornea (4) Medulla (5) Retina
10. (1) Sahara (2) Thar (3) Gobi (4) Sunderbans (5) Kalahari
11. (1) Skull (2) Pelvis (3) Fibula (4) Appendix (5) Vertebra
12. (1) Cap (2) Turban (3) Helmet (4) Veil (5) Hat
13. (1) Snore (2) Slumber (3) Yawn (4) Doze (5) Dream
14. (1) Epicentre (2) Seismology (3) Focus (4) Crater (5) Ritcher scale
15. (1) Curious (2) Humour (3) Wise (4) Angry (5) Mighty
16. (1) Flat (2) Bunglow (3) House (4) Temple (5) Palace
17. (1) Sweet (2) Cold (3) Sour (4) Bitter (5) Salty
18. (1) Paper (2) Pencil (3) Eraser (4) Ink (5) Sharpener
19. (1) Cotton (2) Rice (3) Wheat (4) Gram (5) Barley.
20. (1) Cricket (2) Baseball (3) Football (4) Billiards (5) Badminton
21. (1) 17 (2) 44 (3) 21 (4) 66 (5) 19
22. (1) DFI (2) MOQ (3) BDG (4) RTW (5) IKN
23. (1) 341 (2) 679 (3) 385 (4) 495 (5) 561
24. (1) 250 (2) 150 (3) 125 (4) 116 (5) 105
25. (1) BdE (2) XpD (3) HQu (4) MkV (5) PtZ
Answers Key:
1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (5) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (5) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3)
Explanatory Answers:
1. Except music all others can be seen where as music is to listen.
2. All except valley are elevated features.
3. All others are branches of physics.
4. All other terms refer to someone who buys something.
5. All except corriander are flowers.
6. All except lizard are insects.
7. All except eagle are flightless birds.
8. All except driving are activities performed in water.
9. All except medulla are parts of the eye, While medulla is a part of the brain.
10. All except Sunderbans are deserts while Sunderbans is a delta.
11. All except appendix are bones, while Appendix is an organ.
12. All except veil cover the head while veil covers the face.
13. All except yawn are actions in sleep.
14. All except crater are associated with earthquakes.
15. All others are related to state of mind or sense.
16. Except temple, all are places for living
17. Except cold all others refer to taste.
18. Except ink all others are solids.
19. Except (1) all are edible.
20. All except billiards are outdoor games.
21. In all other numbers we find the sum of the two digits to be an even number.
22. In all other groups the difference between the positions of the 2nd and the 3rd letters in the alphabet is 3.
23. In all other numbers the last digit is the difference between the 1st and the 2nd digits.
24. Except 116 all other numbers are divisible by 5.
25. In all other groups the middle letter is small.
Analogy means ‘correspondence’. In the questions based on analogy, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. Analogy tools are therefore meant to test one’s ability to reason -how far you are able to compare and comprehend the relationship that exists between two objects, things or figures. Verbal analogy measures the ability to understand the relationship between two given words or group of letters, presented in abbreviated form. See the following example.
Moon : Satellite :: Earth : Planet
This abbreviated form conveys the idea that moon is related to satellite in the same way as the earth is related to planet.
Look for the Kinds of Relationship
There are many possibilities in establishing a relationship. Here are some useful points on the basic knowledge required for the test.
Worker and Product
Eg: Carpenter : Furniture : : Mason : Wall
Carpenter makes Furniture and Mason builds a Wall.
Author : Book
Editor : Newspaper
Architect : Design
Farmer : Crop
Butcher : Meat
Judge : Justice
Chef : Food
Poet : Poem
Choreographer : Ballet
Teacher : Education
Cobbler : Shoes
Tailor : Clothes
Worker and Tool Relationship
Eg: Woodcutter : Axe : : Soldier : Gun
Axe is the tool used by a Woodcutter, likewise a Soldier uses a Gun to shoot.
Author : Pen
Doctor : Stethoscope
Astronomer : Telescope
Farmer : Plough
Barber : Scissors
Gardener : Harrow
Butcher : Chopper
Painter : Brush
Blacksmith : Anvil
Sculptor : Chisel
Bricklayer : Trowel
Surgeon : Scalpel
Carpenter : Saw
Tailor : Needle
Cobbler : Awl
Tool and Action
Eg: Pen : Write : : Knife : Cut
Pen is used for Writing and Knife is used for Cutting
Axe : Grind
Spade : Dig
Auger : Bore
Shovel : Scoop
Chisel : Carve
Spoon : Feed
Gun : Shoot
Spanner : Grip
Loudspeaker : Amplify
Steering : Drive
Microscope : Magnify
Sword : Slaughter
Oar : Row
Worker and Working Place
Eg: Farmer : Field : : Doctor : Hospital
A Farmer works on a Field while a Doctor works in a Hospital.
Artist : Theatre
Pilot : Cockpit
Actor : Stage
Sailor : Ship
Clerk : Office
Scientist : Laboratory
Driver : Cabin
Teacher : School
Engineer : Site
Umpire : Pitch
Lawyer : Court
Worker : Factory
Mechanic : Garage
Warrior : Battlefield
Product and Raw Material
Eg: Cloth : Fibre : : Petrol : Crude Oil
Cloth is made of Fibre and Petrol is extracted from Crude oil.
Book : Paper
Omlette : Egg
Butter : Milk
Paper : Pulp
Furniture : Wood
Road : Asphalt
Fabric : Yarn
Rubber : Latex
Jaggery : Sugarcane
Shoes : Leather
Metal : Ore
Sack : Jute
Oil : Seed
Quantity and Unit
Eg: Length : Metre : : Distance : Light Year
Metre is the unit of Length and Light year is the unit of Distance.
Angle : Radians
Power : Watt
Current : Ampere
Pressure : Pascal
Energy : Joule
Resistance : Ohm
Force : Newton
Time : Seconds
Mass : Kilogram
Volume : Litre
Potential : Volt
Work : Joule
Instrument and Measurement
Eg: Barometer : Pressure :: Speedometer : Speed
Barometer is used to measure Pressure. Speedometer is used to measure Speed.
Ammeter : Current
Rain Gauge : Rain
Anemometer : Wind Velocity
Screw Gauge :Thickness
Balance : Mass
Seismograph:Earth-quakes
Hygrometer : Humidity
Sphygmomanometer: Blood Pressure
Thermometer: Temperature
Study and Topic
Eg: Botany : Plants : : Ornithology : Birds
Botany is the study of Plants, Ornithology is the study of Birds.
Anthropology: Man
Orography : Mountains
Astrology : Future
Palaeontology : Fossils
Conchology : Shells
Pedology :Soil
Cardiology : Heart
Pathology :Diseases
Entomology : Insects
Semantics :Language
Haematology: Blood
Seismology :Earth-quakes
Nephrology : Kidney
Taxonomy :Classification
Oology : Eggs
Zoology : Animals
Animal and Young Ones
Eg: Cat : Kitten : : Dog : Puppy
Kitten is the young one of a Cat and Puppy is the young one of a Dog.
Butterfly: Catterpillar
Lion : Cub
Cow : Calf
Man : Child
Duck : Duckling
Pig : Piglet
Frog : Tadpole
Stallion : Colt
Hen : Chicken
Sheep : Lamb
Horse : Pony
Swan : Cygnet
Male and Female
Eg: Son : Daughter : : Nephew : Niece
Drone : Bee
Lion : Lioness
Dog : Bitch
Stag : Doe
Gentleman : Lady
Tiger : Tigress
Horse : Mare
Uncle : Aunt
Word and Synonym
Eg: Mend : Repair : : House : Home
Abode : Dwelling
Fierce : Violent
Abduct : Kidnap
Happy : Glad
Ban : Prohibition
Presage : Predict
Blend : Mix
Solicit : Request
Brim : Edge
Substitute : Replace
Dissipate :Squander
Aborigine : Native
Word and Antonym
Eg: Ignore : Notice : : Friend : Foe
Advance : Retreat
Gentle : Harsh
Best : Worst
Gradual : Abrupt
Cruel : Kind
Initial : Final
Chaos : Peace
Kindle : Extinguish
Create : Destroy
Lend : Borrow
Cordial : Hostile
Robust : Weak
Deep : Shallow
Sink : Float
Word and Intensity
Eg: Anger : Rage : : Joy : Ecstasy
Rage is greater degree of Anger and Ecstasy is greater degree of Joy.
Crime : Sin
Refuse : Deny
Error : Blunder
Sink : Drown
Famous : Renowned
Unhappy : Sad
Quarrel : War
Wish : Desire
Q.1- Q.5 Complete the following analogy pair.
Q.1 Iron : copper :: zinc: ?
1)Ceramic
2)Carbon
3)Silver
4)Coke
5)None of these
Q.2 Menu : Food :: Catalogue : ?
1)Rack
2)Newspaper
3)Library
4)Books
5)None of these
Q.3 Botany : Plant :: Entomology : ?
1)Snakes
2)Insects
3)Birds
4)Germs
5)None of these
Q.4 Gun : Shoot :: Axe
1)Grind
2)Grip
3)Magnify
4)Feed
5)None of these
Q.5 Anaemia : Blood :: Anarchy : ?
1)Lawlessness
2)Government
3)Monarchy
4)Disorder
5)None of these
Q.6-Q.10 There is certain relation between 2 given words on one side of : : of & one word is given on another side of :: while another word is to be found from the given alternative having the same relation with this word as the given pair . Select correct alternative
Q.6 Mountain : Valley : : Genius : ?
1)Brain
2)Idiot
3)Think
4)Intelligence
5)None of these
Q.7 House : Garbage : : Ore : ?
1)Rubbish
2)Gangue
3)Sand
4)Dregs
5)None of these
Q.8 King : Throne :: Rider : ?
1)Seat
2)Horse
3)Saddle
4)Chair
5)None of these
Q.9 Imprison : Jail :: Exile : ?
1)Country
2)Depart
3)Banish
4)Punishment
5)None of these
Q.10 Reluctant : Keen :: Remarkable : ?
1)Usual
2)Restrained
3)Striking
4)Evocative
5)None of these
Q.11-Q.20 There is certain relation between 2 given words on one side of : : of & one word is given on another side of :: while another word is to be found from the given alternative having the same relation with this word as the given pair . Select correct alternative
Q.11 21 : 3 :: 574 : ?
1)23
2)82
3)97
4)113
5)None
Q.12 335 : 216 :: 987 : ?
1)867
2)868
3)872
4)888
5)None
Q.13 149 : 238 :: 159 : ?
1)169
2)248
3)261
4)268
5)None
Q.14 68 : 130 :: ? : 350
1)210
2)216
3)222
4)240
5)None
Q.15 8 : 28 :: 27 : ?
1)55
2)63
3)64
4)65
5)None
Q.16 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?
1)901
2)1009
3)9889
4)9999
5)None of these
Q.17 7584 : 5362 : : 4673 : ?
1)2367
2)2451
3)2531
4)4521
5)None of these
Q.18 3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ?
1)2154
2)3562
3)5487
4)5784
5)None of these
Q.19 25: 37 : : 49 : ?
1)41
2)56
3)60
4)65
5)None of these
Q.20 5 :124 : : 7 : ?
1)125
2)248
3)342
4)343
5)None of these
Q.21 MAD : JXA : : RUN : ?
1)ORK
2)OSQ
3)PRJ
4)UXQ
5)None
Q.22 CAT : DDY : : BIG : ?
1)CLL
2)CLM
3)CML
4)CEP
5)none
Q.23 COMPUTER :fqprxvht :: LANGUAGE : ?
1)oxpixdig
2)ocqicyig
3)ocqixcjg
4)ocqixcig
5)None
Q.24 FILM : ADGH : : MILK : ?
1)ADGF
2)HDGE
3)HDGF
4)HEGF
5)NONE
Q.25 corden :zrogbq : : ? : pxivro
1)mulmul
2)sulsul
3)munmun
4)srspql
5)None
Q.26 GHF : CDB :: EFD : ?
1)ABJ
2)CBD
3)IJH
4)AJB
5)AKB
Q.27 AKJ :GNH :: EMD : ?
1)CLB
2)CLD
3)AKB
4)EMF
5)CDB
Q.28 HNP : PDA :: DLP : ?
1) PJG
2) CDP
3) CLP
4) PME
5) PHE
Q.29 AFHO : GBDM : : CHFM : ?
1)GBLD
2)GBJO
3)GPLD
4)GBDM
5)IBDE
Q.30 AOE : ? :: GMA : NKM
1)KLM
2)KLF
3)OBM
4)KLO
5)KMN
ANSWERS
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. E
Three type of question contain in alphabet:
1) Alphabet with Alphabet Code (Place Interchange)
2) Alphabet with Numeric/ Symbol code
3) Sentence Code

All questions are based on alphabet series. The alphabets are assigned to 26 letters of the English alphabet in alphabetical order. In this case, first pattern is related to the second given answer, in the same way the second word or pattern is related to the other given word. e.g.
The word MUMBAI is written as NVNCBJ, in the same way ABILITY is written as ___?
MUMBAI शब्द NVNCBJ के रूप में लिखा गया है, उसी तरह ABILITY के रूप ___ में लिखा गया है?
(a) ENTALM
(b) BCJMJUZ
(c) LDMSBK
(d) TALEMN
(e) None of these
Q.1. In a certain code ‘MOUSE’ is written as ‘PRUQC’. How will ‘SHIFT’ written in that code?
Q.1 एक निश्चित कोड ‘MOUSE’ को ‘PRUQC’ के रूप में लिखा गया है उस कोड में ‘SHIFT’ कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
(a) VKIRD
(b) VKIDR
(c) VJIDR
(d) VIKRD
(e) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q.2. In a certain code FLOWERS is written as EKNVDQR. How is SUPREME written in that code?
प्रश्न 2: भाषा FLOWERS को EKNVDQR के रूप में लिखा गया है। उस कोड में ‘SUPREME’ कैसे लिखा जाएगा??
(a) TQDROLD
(b) RTODQLD
(c) TQDDROL
(d) RTOQDLD
(e) None of these
Ans:(d)
Q.3. ‘CF’ is related to ‘HK’ in the same way as ‘MP’ is related to
प्रश्न 3. ‘CF’ से ‘HK’ संबंधित है, जैसा कि ‘MP’ से संबंधित ____
(a) SU
(b) RT
(c) RU
(d) ST
(e) RS
Ans: (c)
Q.4. In a certain code DREAMING is written as BFSEFMHL. How is TREATISE written in that code?
प्रश्न 4. एक निश्चित कोड DREAMING को BFSEFMHL के रूप में लिखा गया है। TREATISE को कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
(a) USFBDRHS
(b) BFSUDRHS
(c) BFSUSHRD
(d) BDQSDRHS
(e) None of these
Ans:(b)
Q.5. In a certain code MAIN is written as ‘9364’ and DEAR is written as ‘8532’. How is MEND written in that code?
प्रश्न 5. एक निश्चित कोड MAIN को ‘9364’ रूप में लिखा गया है और DEAR को ‘8532’ रूप में लिखा है MEND कोड में लिखा जाता है?
(a) 9548
(b) 9458
(c) 9538
(d) 9528
(e) None of these
Ans:(a)
Q.6. If ‘P’, denotes ‘-‘ ; ‘Q’ denotes ‘÷’ ; ‘R’ denotes ‘x’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘+’, then
Q.6। यदि ‘P’, ‘-‘; ‘Q’ का अर्थ ‘÷’; ‘R’ denotes ‘x’ और ‘W’ denotes ‘+’, फिर
48 Q 12 R 10 P 8 W 4 = ?
(a) 56
(b) 40
(c) 52
(d) 44
(e) None of these
Ans:(e)
Q.7. In a certain code language ‘green grass everywhere’ is written as ‘ dik pa sok’ and ‘cow eats grass’ is written as ‘nok ta pa’. How is ‘cow’ written in that code language?
Q.7. एक निश्चित कोड भाषा में ‘हरी घास हर जगह’ को ‘दिक पे सोक’ के रूप में लिखा जाता है और ‘गाय खाती घास’ को ‘नोक ते पे’ के रूप में लिखा जाता है। उस कोड भाषा में ‘गाय’ कैसे लिखा जाता है?
(a) nok
(b) ta
(c) nok or ta
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans:(c)
Q.8. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ in that code?
Q.8. एक निश्चित कोड PAGE को ‘3% @’ के रूप में लिखा गया है, SORE को 8©9@ के रूप में लिखा गया है उस कोड में ‘PEAS’ कैसे है?
(a) 3@©8
(b) 3@%9
(c) 3@%8
(d) 3%@8
(e) None of these
Ans:(c)
Q.9. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s birthday?
प्र .9. स्नेहा को सही ढंग से याद है कि उनके पिता का जन्मदिन 16 जून से पहले है, लेकिन 11 जून के बाद उनके छोटे भाई को सही ढंग से याद है कि उनके पिता का जन्मदिन 13 जून के बाद है, लेकिन 18 जून से पहले और उनके बड़े भाई को सही ढंग से याद है कि उनके पिता का जन्मदिन सम तारीख पर है। जून में क्या तारीख निश्चित रूप से उनके पिता का जन्मदिन है?
(a) Sixteenth
(b) Twelfth
(c) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans:(e)
Q.10. Each vowel in the word DROWNED is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and then, the letters so arrived are arranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the left end in the new arrangement?
Q.10. DROWNED शब्द में प्रत्येक स्वर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में अगले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और प्रत्येक व्यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में पिछले अक्षर में बदल दिया गया है और उसके बाद वर्णों की संख्या वर्णमाला क्रम में व्यवस्थित की गई है। इनमें से कौन सी नई व्यवस्था में बाएं छोर से दूसरा होगा?
(a) C
(b) V
(c) F
(d) P
(e) None of these
Ans:(a)
Q.11 In a certain code, GARNISH is written as RGAINHS. How Will GENIOUS be written in that code:
Q.11 एक निश्चित कोड में, GARNISH को RGAINHS के रूप में लिखा गया है। उस कोड में GENIOUS कैसे लिखा जायेगा
(a) NEGOISU
(b) NGEOIUS
(c) NGESUOI
(d) NEGSUOI
(e) None of these
Ans:(e)
Q.12 In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as MOCUPRET, in the same way PRODUCTS is written as
प्र .12. एक निश्चित कोड COMPUTER को MOCUPRET रूप में लिखा जाता है, उसी प्रकार से PRODUCTS को इस प्रकार लिखा गया है
(a) UDSTCORP
(b) ORPUDSTC
(c) PUDSTCOR
(d) RODUCTSP
(e) None of these.
Ans :(b)
Q.13 In the word MELDRAMATIC, position of 1st and 7th letter is interchanged, similarly 2nd to 8th and so on till after arrangement. What is the position of 5th element from the right end?
Q.13 शब्द MELDRAMATIC में, 1 और 7 वें स्थान की स्थिति बदलती है, इसी प्रकार से 2 से 8 वें और पुन: व्यवस्थित होने के बाद तक। तो निम्न में से कौन सा अंत से 5 वें तत्व की स्थिति क्या है?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) K
(d) M
(e) None of these
Ans:(a)
Q.14 If “red means white” “White means black” “Black means yellow” “Yellow means green” “Green means blue” “Blue means indigo” then which of the following will represent the color of the sunflower.
Q.14 यदि “लाल का अर्थ है सफेद” “सफेद का मतलब काला है” “काला का मतलब पीला है” “पीला मतलब हरा है” “ग्रीन का अर्थ है नीला” “ब्लू का अर्थ है इंडिगो” तो निम्न में से कौन सा सूर्यफूल के रंग का प्रतिनिधित्व करेगा।
(a) Sky
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Blue
(e) None of these
Ans:(b)
Q.15 If in the word, DOCUMENT, all the vowels are first arranged alphabetically followed by the entire consonant arranged alphabetically then which letter is fifth from right?
प्र.15 यदि शब्द, DOCUMENT में, सभी स्वर पहले वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित किए जाते हैं और इसके बाद पूरे व्यंजन को वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित किया जाता है, जिसके बाद से वह पत्र पांचवां है?
(a) U
(b) D
(c) M
(d) N
(e) None of these
Ans:(b)
Direction (Q.16 to 20) Study the following arrangement of code carefully and answer the question given below:
In a certain code, “you are good” is coded as “1 3 4” “They go house” is coded as “7 5 8” “We are house” is coded as “8 3 9”.
एक निश्चित कोड में, “you are good” को “1 3 4” के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है “They go house” को “7 5 8” के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है “We are house” को “8 3 9” के रूप में कोडित किया गया है|
Q.16) Which of the following code is for “They”?
Q.16) निम्न में से कौन सा कोड “They” के लिए है?
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e)7 or 5
Q.17) What does code “8” stands for?
Q.17) “8” क्या है?
(a) House
(b) they
(c) you or good
(d) None of these
(e) cant’ be determined
Q.18) what is the code for “they go”
Q.18) “they go” के लिए कोड क्या है
(a) 7 5
(b) 4 5
(c) 1 7
(d) None of these
(e) cant’ be determined
Q.19) what is code for “you mountain”
Q.19) ” you mountain ” के लिए कोड है
(a) 7 3
(b) 1 8
(c) 4 2
(d) 5 3
(e) 7 1
Q.20) what is code for “vast fight”
Q.20) क्या “vast fight” के लिए कोड है
(a) * #
(b) * 9
(c) l 4
(d) 7 0
(e) 7 +
Ans: Q.16 (e) Q.17(a) Q.18(a) Q.19(c) Q.20 (a)
Direction (Q.21 to 25): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered a), b), c) and d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark e) none of these as the answer.

Conditions:
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol, both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last element are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’
शर्तेँ:
(i) यदि समूह का पहला तत्व एक प्रतीक है और अंतिम तत्व एक अंक है, तो कोड बदलना चाहिए।
(ii) यदि समूह का पहला तत्व अंक है और अंतिम तत्व एक प्रतीक है, तो दोनों को अंकों के कोड के रूप में कोडित किया जाना है।
(iii) यदि पहले और आखिरी तत्व दोनों सम अंक हैं तो दोनों को ‘एक्स’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाना है|
(iv) यदि पहले और अंतिम तत्व दोनों विषम अंक हैं, तो दोनों को ‘वाई’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाना है|
Q.21) 4%@93*
(a) PMFTIB
(b) PMFTIP
(c) BMFTIB
(d) XMFTIX
(e) None of these
Q.22) $1896©
(a) RQJTNH
(b) HQJTNR
(c) RQJTNR
(d) YQJTNY
(e) None of these
Q.23) 2*#836
(a) YBEJIY
(b) ABEJIN
(c) NBEJIA
(d) XBEJIX
(e) None of these.
Q.24) 8732@9
(a) TGIAFJ
(b) YGIAFY
(c) JGIAFT
(d) XGIAFX
(e) None of these.
Q.25) 7#$%35
(a) GERMIU
(b) UERMIG
(c) GERMIG
(d) XERMIX
(e) None of these.
Ans: Q.21(b) Q.22(a) Q.23(d) Q.24(c) Q.25(e)
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) reconstituted 20 members Market Data Advisory Committee (MDAC) to recommend policy measures in areas like securities market data access and privacy.The MDAC will be chaired by S.Sahoo.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) amended the SEBI (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018, called the SEBI (Settlement Proceedings) (Amendment) Regulations, 2022 and has reduced the timeline for filing settlement applications to just 60 days from the current 180 days to make the system more efficient.
National Stock Exchange (NSE) has received approval from Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to launch derivatives on Nifty Midcap Select Index. The index will be available for trading from 24 January, 2022.Nifty Midcap Select Index intends to track the performance of a focused portfolio of 25 stocks within the Nifty Midcap 150 index.
Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) Ventures Limited, a wholly owned subsidiary of CDSL has received approval from Securities and Exchange Board of India’s (SEBI) for setting up Accreditation Agency for a period of 3 years with effect from 1st February 2022 for accreditation of eligible Investors.‘Accredited Investors’ (AIs) may avail flexibility in minimum investment amount (lower ticket
size) or concessions from specific regulatory requirements applicable to investment products with certain conditions for specific products or services.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) sanctioned financial assistance of around ₹650 crore to AU Small Finance Bank (AUSFB) and Jana Small Finance Bank (JSFB). The Small Finance Banks will use this assistance to support small-sized non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and micro finance institutions (MFIs) and micro entrepreneurs.
The headquarters of Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
Pencilton, a teen-focused fintech company in partnership with Transcorp has launched PencilCard, India’s 1st debit card with National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) for teens. PencilCard is an NCMC – compliant RuPay debit card specially designed for the teenager which will serve as an all-in-one card (debit card, metrocard & bus card) for multiple needs for both online & offline payments.
State Bank of India (SBI) listed its 1st USD 300 million Formosa bonds on India International Exchange IFSC (India INX). SBI became the first Indian entity to raise money through Formosa Bond.Through the issuance, India INX became the first Exchange in IFSC (International Financial Services Centre) to list Formosa Bonds issued by SBI.
SBI (State Bank of India) Cards and Payment Services Limited (SBICPSL) has collaborated with Paytm to enable their cardholders to tokenize their cards on devices and make payments through Paytm.
Currently, only cards issued in the Indian Territory are enabled on Paytm network but this partnership enables SBI Cardholders to transact through Paytm network in international locations.The card tokenization facility is available only on Android NFC (near field communication) devices.
On 30th December 2021 Paisabazaar.com, the digital marketplace for consumer credit partnered with Axis Bank to launch a pre-qualified program for unsecured loans on its platform.The pre-qualified program involves deep technology and analytics collaboration with banks and non-bank financiers, enabling customers to view customized and pre-qualified lending offers.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that SBI (State Bank of India), ICICI (Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India) and HDFC (Housing Development Finance Corporation Limited) banks will continue to be identified as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
Therefore, they will have to maintain additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital ratios in the same manner prescribed in 2020.
SBI (State Bank of India) General Insurance Company Ltd launched a campaign titled ‘#BahaneChhodoTaxBachao’ to increase awareness around the need to buy health insurance to save tax.It will also highlight the other benefits of opting for health insurance.The campaign is in a quirky Vox Pop format featuring anchor Rudraksh Singh aka Rudy.
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), a multilateral development bank has committed USD 150 million to invest in the development of data centres that mostly serve emerging Asia through the Keppel Data Centre Fund II (KDCF II), a closed-end private equity vehicle managed by Alpha Investment Partners Limited (Alpha).
Airtel Payments Bank and Park+ have collaborated to offer FASTag-based smart parking solutions to marquee commercial and residential properties across India.This partnership will utilize the reach of Airtel Payments Bank to digitise the parking ecosystem using FASTag associated with the vehicle.
Park+ is backed by Sequoia Capital and Matrix Partners, and is engaged in automating parking spaces through FASTag.
RBL Bank and Google announced a strategic collaboration to improve the bank’s customer experience strategy through the digital platform, Abacus 2.0. This collaboration will enable better customer data management and analytics.
Axis Bank has partnered with MinkasuPay to offer a biometric authentication solution for net banking payments in merchant apps using Fingerprint or Face ID, without the need for usernames, passwords, and One-Time Passwords (OTPs).This Solution will reduce the time of payment from 50-60 seconds to just 2-3 seconds and also increase the transaction success rate.
On 11th January 2022 LazyPay, a Buy Now Pay Later (BNPL) solution by PayU Finance, announced its partnership with SBM Bank India to launch LazyCard, a prepaid payment instrument backed by a credit line that works on the Visa payment network.
Axis Bank issued industry’s 1st letter of credit (LC) on the Secured Logistics Document Exchange (SLDE), a government-backed blockchain-enabled platform (launched in July 2021). The deal, which was executed digitally on the SLDE platform, involved ArcelorMittal Nippon and Lalit Pipes & Pipes Limited (LPPL) (Axis bank’s client). The bank released an LC on behalf of LPPL.
UCO Bank (formerly United Commercial Bank Ltd) in partnership with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched the ‘UCO Bank RuPay Select Contactless Debit Card’ with a host of benefits for its premium/HNI (High Networth Individuals) customers.This launch was made on the occasion of the 79th Inauguration Day of the bank i.e. January 6, 2022.
Fintech company Lendingkart announced a co-lending partnership with Canara Bank to provide low- cost business loans of up to Rs. 10 lakh to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs).The aim of the partnership is to broaden the support provided to the MSME borrowers for enhancing financial inclusion under the Reserve Bank India’s (RBIs) Priority Sector initiative.
using ‘zero touch’ technology.
Federal Bank and Equirus Wealth in collaboration with SCUBE Capital, a global fund management company based out of Singapore, have launched a ‘US dollar offshore fund’ for their customers. Only the customers of Federal Bank (both NRI (Non-Resident Indian) and Resident) could invest in the fund. It offers a portfolio return (internal rate of return (IRR)) guidance of ~ USD 6.50 percent per annum with a fund tenor of 3 years from the date of fund closure with an option to extend by one year.
Ujjivan Small Finance Bank (SFB) launched ‘Platina Fixed Deposit’ (FD), offering interest of 15 basis points (bps) higher than the regular term deposit rates provided by Ujjivan SFB.The Platina FD is a non- callable deposit, where partial & premature withdrawal is not applicable.While the interest amount can be received on monthly, quarterly or at the end of the maturity period.
The Headquarters of Ujjivan Small Finance Bank (USFB) is Bangalore, Karnataka.
City Union Bank (CUB), the oldest Private Sector Bank in India, in association with smart-tech-enabled preventive healthcare platform GOQii has launched CUB Easy Pay Debit Card in a Fitness Watch, a wearable & contactless RuPay On-The-Go payment solution, powered by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).On 24th January 2022, V.R.Venkatachalam, chancellor of Sri Ramachandra Institute of Higher Education and Research received the 1st watch in Chennai.
The headquarters of City Union Bank (CUB) Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the Government of India’s approval for the amalgamation of the Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative Bank (PMC Bank) with Unity Small Finance Bank limited (USFBL), the 12th SFB of India.
The amalgamation came into force from 25th January 2022 and on the same day all the branches of the PMC Bank were allowed to function as the branches of USFBL.
The Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) has set up new Bank Note Printing Lines at Currency Note Press (CNP), Nashik in Maharashtra; and Bank Note Press (BNP), Dewas in Madhya Pradesh as a part of its modernization initiatives. The bank note printing line at CNP Nashik was virtually inaugurated by Meera Swarup, Special Secretary & Financial Adviser, Ministry of Finance.
Current Affairs Section provides latest International & national news with categorised section like National News, International News, Sports, New Appointments, and Obituary with about static General Knowledge. It is useful for all competitive exams such as UPSC, Sate PCS, Banking, IBPS, SSC, Railway, and other degree diploma entrance exams. Download complete pdf from given link:
Complete Paper discussion for SSC CHSL-2021 maths by RD Sir.
JSSC Excise Constable Online Form 2022
Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission (JSSC) has published notification for the recruitment of Jharkhand Excise Constable Competitive Examination (JECCE) 2022. Those Candidates who are interested in the vacancy details & completed all eligibility criteria can read the Notification & Apply Online.
Application Fee
Important Dates
Age Limit (as on 01-08-2022)
Qualification
For call: 8080160826
| Vacancy Details | |
| Post Name | Total |
| Excise Constable | 583 |
For call: 8080160826
The State Common Entrance Test (CET) Cell releases the syllabus for the MH CET law 2022 exam. It will contain the subject-wise topics that candidates need to follow to prepare for 3-year and 5-year LLB programs. In addition, it will also have the subject-wise weightage, which will tell the candidate which topics to focus on more. The MH CET law 2022 syllabus for the 5-year LLB will be of intermediate level, whereas the syllabus for the 3-year LLB will be of graduation level.
Candidates should prepare the following topics to score well in the English section of MHCET Law 2021 question paper:
The questions in the legal aptitude and legal aptitude section will be around the following topics:
To score well in this section, candidates should prepare the topics as under:
The section will be based on the following topics:
The section will be based on topics from Class 10th Mathematics syllabus as under:
| Basic Mathematics Syllabus | |
|---|---|
| Profit and loss | Speed, distance, and time |
| Algebra | Average |
| Permutation and combination | Venn diagrams |
| Geometry | Probability |
| Triangles | Percentage |
| Numbers | Trigonometry |
SSC Tier-I & Tier-II Mock Test-www.examinsight.in
we have provided SSC CHSL questions papers of previous years. Previous year papers are beneficial for exam preparation. Candidates can solve past years papers and analyze their performance. Furthermore, they can also get to know about the paper pattern, marking scheme, types & difficulty level of questions asked in the exam.
Previous Paper Download: Telegram Channel https://t.me/examinsightlive
SSC CHSL MOCK PREVIOUS PAPER-2021 ONLINE
Here providing syllabus for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) i.e. Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Junior Time Keeper, Trains Clerk, Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Traffic Assistant, Goods Guard, Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Senior Clerk cum Typist, Junior Account Assistant cum Typist, Senior Time Keeper, Commercial Apprentice and Station Master in various Zonal Railways and Production Units of Indian Railways.
The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:
Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics etc.
Analogies, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.
Current Events of National and International Importance, Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and World, Flagship Government Programs, Flora and Fauna of India, Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.
Contact No. : 080801 60826 /087797 74040
The Commission has scheduled to conduct following examinations in the months of April, May and June 2022 as per the given schedule:
Name of Examination Paper/ Stage Schedule of Examination
Source to Click here
SSC CGL Tier 1 Answer Key 2021: The Staff Selection Commission has released the answer key of the Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier 1)-2021. Candidates who have appeared for the examination can download their answer key from the official website of SSC at ssc.nic.in. The Commission has conducted the Tier-I of Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2021 from April 11 to 21, 2022 at different centres all over the country.
Visit the official website of the Staff Selection Commission at ssc.nic.in.
– On the homepage, click on the ‘Answer Key’ option.
– Click on the link that reads, “Uploading of Tentative Answer Keys along with Candidates’ Response Sheets (s) of Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier-I) – 2021.”-
– Enter your Roll number and password As per Admission Certificate and click on submit option.
– Your SSC CGL Tier 1 Answer Key 2021 will appear on the screen.
SSC CGL Upcoming Batch Offline and Live Both from Dadar Mumbai Branch.
Established in the year 2011, Indian Public Career Institute (IPCI) is Mumbai’s leading competitive Examination preparation institute with presence and help to build a few thousands careers especially in public sector organization. IPCI is today acknowledged as a multi-program training specialist run on various sector like IBPS/BANK (CLERK, P.O, S.O), Staff Selection Commission (SSC CGL), Railways, CDS & NDA under UPSC and other competitive/degree entrance examinations.
It provides exam oriented coaching to the students who are about to make their careers in the public sector and these courses are aimed at enabling the students to get a reputed Govt. Job through SSC , IBPS PO/Clerk or any other Govt. Job Exam and our success record is unparalleled , thus 8 out of every 10 students at this. It succeed in the Govt. Job exams they prepare for.
ADDRESS : 107, 1st Floor, Crystal Height, M Pasta Road,, Opp. Greater Bank Dadar East, Mumbai, Maharashtra 400014
Contact No. : 080801 60826 /087797 74040
Website : https://ipci.co.in/
I&B Ministry Announces Merger of Film Media Units with NFDC
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) has transferred the mandate for the production of documentaries and short films, the organization of film festivals and the preservation of films to
the National Film Development Corporation (NFDC), a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) working under the ministry.
This resulted in the merger of the four film media units, including the Films Division, the Directorate of Film Festivals, the National Film Archives of India (NFAI) and the Children’s Film Society of India under the NFDC.
• This step is a move towards reducing the overlap of various activities and ensuring better utilization of public resources by bringing all these activities under a single management.
The Central Government has also designated Rs. 1304.52 crore till 2026 for film production and preservation, film festivals, and providing financial incentives for audio-visual productions with foreign countries, which will be managed by the NFDC through its Film Facilitation Office.
Key Points:
i. The ownership of the assets available with these units will remain with the Central government. ii.The Films Division, established in 1948, was the first state film production and distribution unit to produce documentaries and news magazines for publicity of government programmes and cinematic representation of Indian history.
• Its mandate has been completely transferred to the NFDC with effect from April 1, 2022. The Production Vertical for the Production of Documentaries in the NFDC will be named “Films Division.”
iii. The Directorate of Film Festivals was set up by the Centre to organize national and international film festivals and the National Film Awards.
• Some of the major upcoming film festivals to be organized by the NFDC are the Mumbai International Film Festival, the International Film Festival of India at Goa, and the Children’s Film Festival.
iv. Children’s Film Society India was entrusted with the production of children’s films and television programmes in Indian languages under the central government.
v. The National Film Archive of India was established as a media unit to acquire and preserve cinema and to classify, document, and undertake research related to films.
vi. National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) is the central agency for film financing, production, and distribution under MIB. It already has the mandate of producing feature films.
BEZA signs deal with Adani group for Indian Economic Zone in Chattogram, Bangladesh
The Bangladesh Economic Zones Authority (BEZA) signed a non-binding agreement called term-sheet with Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ Ltd.,) in Mumbai,Maharashtra to establish
an Indian Economic Zone under the government-to- government (G2G) engagement in Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujib Shilpa Nagar (BSMSN) in Mirsarai of Chattogram, Bangladesh.
i. The Indian Economic Zone will provide a range of facilities for Indian investors in Bangladesh.
ii. The agreement was the follow up of June 2015 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish an Indian economic zone.
iii. The Indian Economic Zone is being built on 857 acres of land with an estimated cost of Taka 964 crore supported by an Indian Line of Credit worth USD 115 million.
iv. The project involves land development, construction of connecting roads, security system, water supply, telecommunication, and water treatment plant facilities for the Indian companies investing in Bangladesh.
v.Among the Government to Government economic zones being set up in Bangladesh, the Indian Economic Zone is going to be the second largest one after the Japanese Economic Zone.
About Bangladesh:
Capital – Dhaka
Currency – Bangladeshi taka
President – Abdul Hamid
Prime minister –Sheikh Hasina Wazed
About Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited of India(APSEZ Ltd): Managing Director – Rajesh Adani
Chief Executive Officer (CEO) – Karan Adani
Journalist Aarefa Johari wins Chameli Devi Jain Award for 2021
A journalist from Mumbai, Aarefa Johari was awarded with the Chameli Devi Jain Award for an Outstanding Woman Mediaperson 2021. It was announced by the Media Foundation.
• Aarefa Johari works for ‘Scroll.in’ in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• In 2020, Neetu Singh got this award. She is associated with ‘Goan Connection’ media house.
• Jury – Nirupama Subramania, Githa Hariharan and Ashutosh
About Chameli Devi Jain Award:
i. It is the annual prestigious recognition in the field of Journalism for women media persons journalist in India who have reported on themes such as social development, politics, equity, gender justice, health, war and conflict, and consumer values.
ii. Chameli Devi Jain was a freedom fighter and a community reformer. She became the first Jain woman to go to prison during India’s independence struggle.
iii. The award was instituted in 1980 by Verghese and the family of Chameli Devi.
Instituted-1981
Australian Women’s Cricket Team Were Crowned As The Champions Of 2022 ICC Women’s Cricket
The 12th edition of the ICC (International Cricket Council) Women’s Cricket World Cup was held in New Zealand from March to April 2022. In which the Australian women’s cricket team were crowned as the champions of the 2022 ICC Women’s Cricket by defeating England women’s cricket team in the finals by 71 runs in Hagley Oval, Christchurch, New Zealand.
• The Australian women’s team was awarded 1.32 million United States Dollar (USD) and the Runner-up team (England women’s team) won USD 600,000.
• The Australian women’s team wins ICC world cup for the 7th time, most by any women’s cricket team.
Performer Of The Tournament:
i. Alyssa Healy (Australia) has been named as the ‘Player of the Tournament’ for scoring 509 runs in 9 matches, she is the first player to score 500-plus runs in a single edition of the Women’s One-Day International (ODI) World Cup.
• Rachael Haynes (Australia) scored 497 runs in this tournament, which is the second-highest tally in a 2022 Women’s World Cup.
ii. Also, Alyssa Healy has been named as the player of the match for scoring 170 runs off 138 balls and it stands as the highest score in the final of any ICC Cricket World Cup (in both men’s or women’s) surpassing Adam Gilchrist’s (Australia) 149 runs vs Sri Lanka in 2007.
iii. Sophie Ecclestone (England) was named as the highest wicket-taker for claiming 21 wickets in 9 matches.
Records In The 2022 ICC (International Cricket Council) Women’s World Cup:
i. Alyssa Healy became the first cricketer in history to score a century in the semi-final and final of the same World Cup.
ii. It is the fifth time (2022, 2005, 1997, 1982 and 1978) that the Australian women’s team have lifted the trophy staying undefeated throughout the tournament.
Records By Indian women’s cricket team:
i.Jhulan Goswami (Bowler) of India became the highest wicket-taker in the World Cup Tournament bagging overall of 43 wickets.Indian bowler Jhulan Goswami achieved this with 40 wickets in 31 matches, beating Australia’s Lyn Fullston’s 39 wickets in Women World cup tournaments.
ii. Indian women’s team ODI skipper Mithali Raj broke the record for most matches captained (24 matches) in the ICC Women’s World Cup, surpassing former Australian counterpart Belinda Clark (23 matches).
iii. Mithali Raj became the third cricketer (including men’s and women’s) and the first woman to play in 6 ODI World Cups.
SBI Signs MoU with The BSF to Provide Curated Benefits
The State Bank of India (SBI) and the Border Security Force (BSF) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to provide special benefits to serving and retired BSF personnel, as well as family pensioners, through the Central Armed Police Salary Package (CAPSP) Scheme.
This partnership intends to benefit and provide financial security for BSF personnel and their families by providing a variety of specialized benefits through CAPSP, which ensures that they and their family have easy access to banking services.
Features of the MoU:
i. The MoU ensures extensive benefits for the security forces, including complimentary Personal and Air Accidental Insurance (Death) Cover, additional cover in case of on-duty death, and Permanent Total Disability/Partial Disability Cover.
ii. The MoU will support child education and the marriage of girl children of deceased BSF personnel.
iii. Retired personnel will be eligible for complimentary Personal Accidental (Death) Insurance, irrespective of age, whereas family pensioners will be eligible for a bouquet of benefits.
iv. SBI will offer a zero-balance savings bank account with a host of complimentary benefits and a waiver of service charges to the BSF personnel considering their selfless services rendered to nation building.
v. It will also provide attractive interest rates and concessions on processing charges for serving personnel on home, car, education, and Xpress Credit personal loans.
Aegon Life and Ahalia Finforex Partners to Offer Insurance Cover to Unserved Segment Aegon Life Insurance Company(Aegon Life), a digital life insurance company and Ahalia Finforex, a Kerala-based diversified financial services firm has partnered to provide life insurance access to unorganized and unserved segments residing in tier 2, tier 3, and tier 4 towns.
SSC SI & ASI (Delhi Police, CAPF, CISF) Exam Syllabus: Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspector in CISF Examination syllabus details are given below….
Syllabus:
Paper-I:
A General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and nonverbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/ Number Analogy, figural analogy, Semantic classification, symbolic/ Number classification, figural classification, semantic series, number series, figural series, problem solving, word building, coding & de-coding, numerical operations, symbolic operations, trends, space orientation, space visualization, venn diagrams, drawing inferences, punched hole/ pattern-folding & unfolding, figural pattern-folding and completion, indexing address matching, date & city matching classification, embedded figures, critical thinking , emotional intelligence, social intelligence, other sub-topics if any.
B. General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity, Indian Constitution, scientific Research etc.
C. Quantitative Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio and Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit & Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Allegation, Time and distance, Time & work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra and Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle , Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.
D. English Comprehension : Candidates ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested.
Paper-II:
English Language & Comprehension: Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidate‟s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on error recognition, filling in the blanks (using verbs, preposition, articles etc), Vocabulary, Spellings, Grammar, Sentence Structure, Synonyms, Antonyms, Sentence Completion, Phrases and Idiomatic use of Words, comprehension etc.
For more details call: 8080160826
MAH CET MBA data interpretation previous year questions (2014-2020) complete book for upcoming CET & CAT exams. download pdf and E-Book from given link:
MBA & Law Degree Entrance Exam Institute in Dadar | Live Online Classes for MAH CET
For Upcoming Batch MAH CET Entrance Exams 2022-23 call: 8080160826
1. The cattle in the meadow (A)/ was terrified to hear (B)/ the roar of a lion which appeared to be wild with anger (C)/ No error (D)
2. There should be (A)/ no furnitures (B) / in my room. (C)/ No error (D)
3. That house (A)/ is built of (B)/ stones. (C)/ No error (D)
4. Santosh lives (A)/ by the principals (B)/ he professes. (C)/ No error (D)
5. The astronomer (A)/ who predicts the future (B) / has arrived (C)/ No error (D)
6. He told me that (A)/ it was (B)/ his friend’s Sankar’s house (C)/ (d) No error.
7. Linguistic (A)/ is (B) /the study (C)/of language. (D) No error (E).
8. Five thousand (A)/rupees is a (B/ large amount (C)/for everybody. (D/ No error (E).
9. Our housing society comprises (A)/ six block and thirty flats (B)/in an area of (C)/about thousand square meters. (D)/No error (E)
10. His losses at the races (A)/ made the young man (B)/ lose the peace of his mind. (C)/ No error.
11. Our system of assigning (A)/different jobs to different people (B)/should be based on their strengths and weakness (D)/ No error (E)
12. The book must be old (A)/ for it’s cover (B)/is torn. (C)/No error(D)
13. Gandhi ji lived a noble life of fasting (A)/and poverty (B)/in order to work for peaceful (C)/and independence. (D)/No error (E).
14. I went to the temple (A)/with my parents(B)/my aunts (C)/and my cousin sisters. (D)/No error (E).
15. You will find (A)/ a lamp-post (B)/ at the front side (C)/ of the institute. (D)/ No error (E).
16. The poetries (A)/of R.N. Tagore (B)/ has been taught (C)/ in the class. (D)/ No error (E).
17. On a number of occasions (A)/we had noticed that (B)/ those employees (C)/were often in state of confused (D)/No error (E)
18. Hundreds of (A)/ passer-bys (B)/ stopped at (C)/ the place of accident. (D)/ No error (E)
19. Custom is (A)/ paid on goods (B)/ imported from (C)/ other countries. (D)/ No error (E).
20. My son is reading (A)/Dinkar’s and Nirala’s (B)/ poetries as a part (C)/of his syllabus. (D)/No error (E).
21. The name of (A)/Amitabh’s (B)/and Amitabh’s (C)/ father is Bachchan ji. (D)/No error. (B).
22. The widow (A)/who lives near his house (B)/is passing through (C)/ many crisis. (D)/No error (E).
23. His company is (A)/one of the few company (B)/ manufacturing this product (C)/in the whole country. (D)/No error (E).
24. One should use (A)/ spectacle to protect (B)/ the eyes from bright sunlight. (D)/ No error (E).
25. In spite of having received (A)/all the necessary data (B)/ he did not take any decision (C)/because of extraneous reasons. (D)/ No error (E)
26. I went to Delhi (A)/ and bought (B)/ much good (C)/ for my wife. (D)/No error (E).
27. In today meeting (A) we must first discuss (B)/and thrash out the problem (C)/one by one. (D)/No error (E).
28. No other (A)/typists in this (B)/office is as (C)/ slow as she. (D)/No error (E)
29. Her sister-in-laws (A)/are a cruel lot (B)/ and they harass her (C)/No error (D)
30. The sun whose (A)/ray give life to the (B)/ earth was venerated as (C)/God by our ancestors. (D)/ No error (E)
31. Aditi was unable (A)/to support her parent (B)/ even though both of them (C)/had no income of their own. (D)/ No error (E).
32. There is (A)/no place (B)/in this compartment. (C)/No error (D).
33. Most of that country (A)/hilly land is (B)/ unsuitable not only for building (C)/but also for agriculture. (D)/No error (E).
34. Raghu is going (A)/ to Stephen Hawking’s (B)/ the scientist’s (C)/ country. (D)/ No error (E).
35. The sheafs (A) / of the wheat plants were too heavy (B) / for the weak farmer (C) / to carry them on his head. (D) / No error (E)
36. It is truth (A)/that India is (B)/the largest consumer of (C)/gold in the world. No error (E).
37. Success in money-making (A)/ is not always (D)/ a good criteria (C)/ of real success in life. (D)/ No error (E).
38. The gentry (A)/of our colony (B)/ was invited (C)/ to attend the meeting. (D)/ No error (E).
39. Yogesh knew the (A)/value of obedient(B)/to well not to anticipate some (C)/censure of his act. (D)/ No error (E).
40. The meeting will not end (A)/till the chairman (B)/ gets approval from (C)/every members of the Board.(D)/No error (E).
41.The teacher and the guardian appreciate (A)/ Jaya walking early (B)/ in the morning with a view to (C)/ achieving normal health. (D)/ No error (E)
42. There was (A)/ no money in the bank (B)/in Dhananjay’s (C)/ and Mintunjay’s joint account. (D)/ No error (E).
43. Gulliver’s Travels (A)/is an (B)/ interesting book (C)/written by Jonathan Swift. (D)/No error
44. On my way (A)/to the railway station I met (B)/ one of your friend Ram. (D)/No error (E).
45. Rakhi met me (A)/on the way (B)/and asked a one (C)/hundred rupees note (D)/No error (E).
46. One of my most (A)/ widely spread (B)/ bad habit (C)/ is the use of tobacco. (D)/ No error (E)
47. All the children have (A)/assembled on the ground (B)/and are waiting for (C)/ the Principal coming (D)/No error
48. The vacancy was (A)/filled by Mr. Sharma (B)/ whom the manager said (C)/ought to be promoted. (D)/No error (E).
49. A postman (A)/ delivers our (B)/ letters from doors(D)/ to doors/No Error (E)
50. One must use (A)/his best efforts (B)/ if one (C)/wishes to succeed. (D)/No error (E)
Click here: https://bit.ly/3Ma1AMq
Q1. The company’s decision to issue (a)/ bonus shares clearly indicates (b)/ the management’s confident (c)/ about the future (d)/ No error (e)
Q2. Inspite that organisations are aware (a)/ of the importance of IT (b)/ they often do not know (c)/ how to deploy it (d)/ No error (e)
Q3. The angry at being (a)/ left out of the bonanza (b)/ is palpable among (c)/ employees of the organization. (d)/ No error (e)
Q4. Festivals are prime occasions (a)/ for splurging on presents and owing to improved economic situation, (b)/ the youth is gung-ho (c)/ about breaking all previous records. (d)/ No error (e)
Q5. After a complain was filed, (a)/ the police teams was given the photograph (b)/ of the accused from the CCTV footage (c)/ recorded at the hotel. (d)/ No error (e)
Q6. Watching the exponential (a)/ talent of world tennis (b)/ was the best things (c)/ to happen to him. (d)/ No error (e)
Q7. The couple’s work In (a)/ upgrading rural technicians (b)/ has set a benchmarking (c)/ for future generations. (d)/ No error (e)
Q8. The arguments assumes that (a)/ early detection of the disease (b)/ will lead to an immediate drop in (c)/ the mortality rating from this disease. (d)/ No error (e)
Q9. It is estimated that the government requires (a)/ two trillion rupees over the next few year (b)/ to fund the construction of 20,000 kilometres of road (c)/ under the national highways development project. (d)/ No error (e)
Q10. Sporting body such as FIFA (a)/ should be run transparently and rigorous standards (b)/ should be maintained to ensure that (c)/ sports are played in the right spirit. (d)/ No error (e)
Q11. Hectic schedules can (a)/ take a toll on anybody and (b)/ the solutions to this is (c) / a quick holiday to same exotic location. (d)/ No error (e)
Q12. A prisoner, in remanding, escaped (a) / from the clutches of two (b) / policemen while being taken to (c)/ the state’s central prison yesterday afternoon. (d)/ No error (e)
Q13. An incident when my youth taught (a)/me to stand up and (b)/ do what is right even if /(c) others do not agree with me. /(d) No error (e)
Q14. It is not the (a)/ faculty members (b)/ but the president (c)/ who decide this issue. (d)/ No error. (e)
Q15. The pledges that countries (a)/are making to battle climate change (b)/ will still result in the world (c)/ heating up by more than 6 degree Celsius. (d)/ No error (e)
Video Explanation on Given Link: https://youtu.be/zvos7t8dvjI
Join Our Telegram Channel: https://t.me/englishbyrk
Institute for Competitive Exam SSC IBPS SBI CDS NDA (offline and online)
Q1. My cousin brother is a cheater (a)/ and he (b)/ cheats his family members and friends too. (c)/ No error (E)
Q2. We should not be(a)/ miserly in giving alm (b)/ to the beggars.(c)/ No error(d)
Q3. To provide more such facility (a)/ to its workers, the company (b)/ is planning to build(c)/ schools and parks in the township.(d)/ No error(e)
Q4. He left (b)/ his luggages (b)/ at the railway station (c)/ No Error
Q5. The police have arrested (a)/ the thieves but they failed(b)/ to get any information(c)/ about the valuable stolen.(d)/ No error(e)
Q6. He should understand (a)/ that Ethics make(b)/ the basis of life good.(c)/ No error(d)
Q7. Success in money-making (a)/ is not always (d)/ a good criteria (c)/ of real success in life. (d)/ no error (e)
Q8. The gentry (a)/of our colony (b)/ was invited (c)/ to attend the meeting. (d)/ no error (e).
Q9. The meeting will not end (a)/till the chairman (b)/ gets approval from (c)/every members of the board.(d)/no error (e)
Q10. William Shakespeare is (a)/ known for his dramas (b)/ more than his poetries.(c)/ No error(d)
Q11. One of my most (a)/ widely spread (b)/ bad habit (c)/ is the use of tobacco. (d)/ no error (e)
Q12. The judge issued (a)/ summon to the chairman (b)/ of the company because he(c)/ did not obey the honorable court.(d)/ No error(e)
Q13. The chairman and (a)/ all the members of (b)/ committee were present (c)/ in meeting of today.(d)/ No error(e)
Q14. I saw only (a)/ five police who(b)/ were running after(c)/ the bank-robbers.(d)/ No error(e)
Q15. He says that(a)/ a two-miles walk(b)/ always keeps him(c)/ healthy and fresh
Q16. There were no surprises (a)/ in the second bimonthly monetary policy (b)/ announcement by the (c)/ Reserve Bank of India. (d)/ No error. (e)Q17. When you see his(a)/ offsprings, you can’t(b)/ believe that he is(c)/ above seventy.(d)/ No error(e)
Q18. These type of books(a)/ are certainly helpful to the students(b)/ preparing for the Banking(c)/ Service Examinations.(d)/ No error(e)
Q19. Very few soldiers dared(a)/ to turn a deaf ear(b)/ their commander’s-in-chief order.(c)/ No error(d)
Q20. You should always be(a)/ true to your words if(b)/ you are to succeed in life.(c)/ No error(d)Q21. Without taking pain (a)/ one cannot progress in life(b)/ so we must keep this fact(c)/ in our mind.(d)/ No error(e)
Q22. Doctors did (a)/their best to save (b) the lifes of the (c)/accident victims. (d)/ No error (e)
Q23. Two and a half hour (a)/ have passed since (b)/ I returned from my village. (c)/ no error (d)
Q24. The rich is getting (a)/ richer and richer and (b)/ the poor are getting (c)/ poorer and poorer.(d)/ no error (e) Q25. I want you must (a)/ put your sign here (b)/ so that I may (c)/ accept your papers. (d)/ No error (e)
Q26. I am sure that (a)/ he cannot walk ever one(b)/ and a half kilometer.(c)/ No error(d)
Q27. If you have a way with words (a)/ (b) a good sense of design and administration ability / (c) you may enjoy working in high pressure world of advertising. /(d) No erroR
Q28. On Saturdays, (a)/ (b) students are suggested / (c) to wear white pants. / (d) No error
Q29. All his sister-in-laws (a)/ are extremely beautiful(b)/ to look at so the question(c)/ of selection is very puzzling.(d) No error(e)
Video Explanation on Given Link: https://youtu.be/SPQBeZgaAmM
Join Our Telegram Channel: https://t.me/englishbyrk
SSC CGL EXAM PREPRATION INSTITUTE IN MUMBAI
Q1. The people (a)/of the world (b)/must (c)/unite (d)/No error (e)
Q2. Monika met me (a)/on the way (b)/and asked a one (c)/hundred rupees note (d)/No error (e)
Q3. Hundreds of (a)/passer-bys (b)/stopped at (c)/the place of accident. (d)/No error (e)
Q4. My parents obtained (a)/many informations (b)/ about this child (c)/last night. (d)/No error (e)
Q5. One should use (a)/ spectacle to protect (b)/ the eyes from bright sunlight. (d)/ No error (e)
Q6. Rani together with her parents (a)/went to the market (b)/and brought (c)/a lot of handkerchieves. (d)/No error (e)
Q7. Thousand of people (a)/had already been killed (b)/in the accident (c)/near Railway crossing. (d)/No error (e)
Q8. We will find a lamp-post (a)/at the front (b)/ side of the (c)/institute. (d)/No error (e)
Q9. Sunrise (a)/is a (b)/great (c)/ phenomena. (d)/ No error (e) Q10. Arabian nights are (a)/collection of very (b)/ interesting episodes (c)/of Adventure (d)/No error (e)
Q11. Ten kilometers (a)/is a long distance (b)/but five years (c)/are not a long period. (d)/No error (e)
Q12. There was (a)/ no money in the bank (b)/in Dhananjay’s (c)/ and Mintunjay’s joint account. (d)/ No error (e)
Q13. Sachin Tendulkar has (a)/scored more than (b)/ five thousands (c)/ runs. (d)/No error (e)
Q14. I went to the house (a)/and found that (b)/the cart’s wheel (c)/ was broken. (d)/No error (e)
Q15. The same board (a)/is used (b)/for chess (c) as well as for draughts. (d)/No error (e)
Q16. All the children have (a)/assembled on the (b)/and are waiting for (c)/the Principal to come. (d)/No error
Q18. I have been (a)/living in Hyderabad (b)/at my uncle (c)/since my birth. (d)/No error
Q17. His company is (a)/one of the few company(b)/ manufacturing this product (c)/in the whole country. (d)/No error (e) Q18. I have been (a)/living in Hyderabad (b)/at my uncle (c)/since my birth. (d)/No error
Q19. Gandhi ji lived a noble life of fasting (a)/and poverty (b)/in order to work for peaceful (c)/ and independence. (d)/No error (E)
Q20. A large number of (a)/ her classmate called for (b)/the hospital when (c)/ she was there. (d)/ No error (e)
Q21. A few word (a)/gratitude are enough (b)/to express your (c)/feelings sincerely. (d)/No error
Q22. No other (a)/typists in this (b)/office is as (c)/ slow as she. (d)/No error (e)
Q23. I have read (a)/Tagor’s poems (b)/who is a great poet. (c)/No error(d)
Video Explanation on Given Link:
Join Our Telegram Channel: https://t.me/englishbyrk
Reasoning is defined as the process of thinking about something in a Logical/Analytical way in order
to form a conclusion or judgment. The questions are based on alphabetical series, numeric and
symbol basis, decisions and arguments, statements and conclusions etc.
Complete section wise topic for all competitive exams:-
Join Telegram Channel For Updates Notes, Lecture and E
1. Problem Based on Alphabet
2. Alphabet Series
3. Analogy & Classification
4. Coding- Decoding
5. Number & Word Problem
6. Mathematical Operation
7. Distance & Direction
8. Venn diagram
9. Blood relations
10. Order & Ranking
11. Syllogism
12. Sitting Arrangement
13. Input/ Output
14. Inequality
15. Selection Procedure
16. Puzzle test
17. Clock and Calendar
18. Data Sufficiency
1. Mirror & Water Image
2. Paper Cutting & Folding
3. Figure Based Problem
I. Completion
II. Formation
III. Grouping
IV. Finding
V. Counting
4. Dice & Cube
5. Non-verbal Series
6. Analogy/Classification
7. Dot Situation & Figure Similarity
1. Course of Action
2. Statement & Assumption
3. Statement & Conclusion
4. Strong & Weak Argument
6. Cause & Effect
7. Passage Inference
Stenography Course for English Language | Shorthand classes in Dadar
Stenography is that the mixture of two different classes i.e. Typewriting and Shorthand. Stenography Course comprises skills in Shorthand, Transcription and Typewriting. The essential work of Stenographer in government offices is to require dictations, record speeches and transcription.
#stenographer #shorthandcourse #onlineliveclasses #liveclassesdadar
SSC (Staff selection commission) conducts SSC CPO exam for the recruitment of various posts in Inspectors in CAPF (Central Armed Police Forces), Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and Assistant Sub-Inspector posts in CISF. SSC CPO 2022 exam is conducted in the month of November 2022. Solve SSC CPO previous year question papers to get a good understanding or complete idea about of the questions asked in past SSC CPO exam.
Download Previous Paper SSC CPO Exams-2022
SSC CGL EXAMS PREPRATION ONLINE INSTITUTE IN MUMBAI